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Welcome to Insights IAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam – 2020.
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Recently, mouse deer, an endangered species is introduced in this tiger reserve.
- It is located in Nallamalla hills
- Nagarjuna ViswaVidyalayam, an university ran by Nagarjunacharya in ancient times is located here.
Identify the tiger reserve based on the features explained in the above statements
Correct
Solution: B
Amrabad Tiger Reserve lies in Nallamala hills of Telangana. It is India’s second-largest tiger reserve, next only to Nagarjunasagar Srisailam Tiger Reserve (Andhra Pradesh and Telangana).
In 2017, the endangered species of mouse deer was reintroduced her. It contains ruins of the ancient. Nagarjuna ViswaVidyalayam run by the great Buddhist scholar Nagarjunacharya (150 AD).
It has a large presence of the Chenchu tribe.
It harbours great biodiversity, consisting of around 70 species of mammals, more than 300 hundred avian varieties, 60 species of reptiles and thousands of insects, all supported and nourished by more than 600 different plant species.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Amrabad Tiger Reserve lies in Nallamala hills of Telangana. It is India’s second-largest tiger reserve, next only to Nagarjunasagar Srisailam Tiger Reserve (Andhra Pradesh and Telangana).
In 2017, the endangered species of mouse deer was reintroduced her. It contains ruins of the ancient. Nagarjuna ViswaVidyalayam run by the great Buddhist scholar Nagarjunacharya (150 AD).
It has a large presence of the Chenchu tribe.
It harbours great biodiversity, consisting of around 70 species of mammals, more than 300 hundred avian varieties, 60 species of reptiles and thousands of insects, all supported and nourished by more than 600 different plant species.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding population interactions
- In competition, only one species benefits and the other is harmed.
- The interaction where one species is benefitted and the other is neither benefitted nor harmed is called commensalism.
- Example of commensalism is the interaction between sea anemone that has stinging tentacles and the clown fish.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Both the species benefit in mutualism and both lose in competition in their interactions with each other. In both parasitism and predation only one species benefit (parasite and predator, respectively) and the interaction is detrimental to the other species (host and prey, respectively).
The interaction where one species is benefitted and the other is neither benefitted nor harmed is called commensalism. In amensalism on the other hand one species is harmed whereas the other is unaffected. Predation, parasitism and commensalism share a common characteristic– the interacting species live closely together.
Example of commensalism is the interaction between sea anemone that has stinging tentacles and the clown fish that lives among them. The fish gets protection from predators which stay away from the stinging tentacles. The anemone does not appear to derive any benefit by hosting the clown fish.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Both the species benefit in mutualism and both lose in competition in their interactions with each other. In both parasitism and predation only one species benefit (parasite and predator, respectively) and the interaction is detrimental to the other species (host and prey, respectively).
The interaction where one species is benefitted and the other is neither benefitted nor harmed is called commensalism. In amensalism on the other hand one species is harmed whereas the other is unaffected. Predation, parasitism and commensalism share a common characteristic– the interacting species live closely together.
Example of commensalism is the interaction between sea anemone that has stinging tentacles and the clown fish that lives among them. The fish gets protection from predators which stay away from the stinging tentacles. The anemone does not appear to derive any benefit by hosting the clown fish.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Ganga Council (NGC)
- It was a statutory body created under the River Ganga (Rejuvenation, Protection and Management) Authorities act, 2016.
- It is headed by the Prime Minister.
- NGC would have on board the chief ministers of five Ganga basin states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Namami Gange Programme
- It is an umbrella programme which integrates previous and currently ongoing initiatives with more comprehensive & better coordinated interventions.
- Implemented by the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG), and its state counterparts—State Programme Management Groups.
National Ganga Council (NGC):
- Created in October 2016 under the River Ganga (Rejuvenation, Protection and Management) Authorities Order, 2016, dissolving the National Ganga River Basin Authority.
- Headed by the Prime Minister.
- NGC would have on board the chief ministers of five Ganga basin states—Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh (UP), Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal—besides several Union ministers and it was supposed to meet once every year.
Main Pillars of the Namami Gange Programme are:
- Sewerage Treatment Infrastructure
- River-Surface Cleaning
- Afforestation
- Industrial Effluent Monitoring
- River-Front Development
- Bio-Diversity
- Public Awareness
- Ganga Gram
Incorrect
Solution: B
Namami Gange Programme
- It is an umbrella programme which integrates previous and currently ongoing initiatives with more comprehensive & better coordinated interventions.
- Implemented by the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG), and its state counterparts—State Programme Management Groups.
National Ganga Council (NGC):
- Created in October 2016 under the River Ganga (Rejuvenation, Protection and Management) Authorities Order, 2016, dissolving the National Ganga River Basin Authority.
- Headed by the Prime Minister.
- NGC would have on board the chief ministers of five Ganga basin states—Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh (UP), Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal—besides several Union ministers and it was supposed to meet once every year.
Main Pillars of the Namami Gange Programme are:
- Sewerage Treatment Infrastructure
- River-Surface Cleaning
- Afforestation
- Industrial Effluent Monitoring
- River-Front Development
- Bio-Diversity
- Public Awareness
- Ganga Gram
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Colistin
- Colistin is an antibiotic used for therapeutic purpose in veterinary.
- It is largely misused in poultry industry as a growth promoter.
- The drug is banned under the provisions of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Colistin is an antibiotic for therapeutic purpose in veterinary. But the drug is highly misused in poultry industry as a growth promoter for prophylactic purpose.
Colistin is a valuable, last-resort antibiotic that saves lives in critical care units but in recent years, there have been patients who have exhibited resistance to the drug.
Recently, the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has issued an order prohibiting the manufacture, sale and distribution of Colistin and its formulations for food-producing animals, poultry, aqua farming and animal feed supplements.
The ban has been imposed under the provisions of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/colistin-banned-in-animal-food-industry/article28621663.ece
Incorrect
Solution: D
Colistin is an antibiotic for therapeutic purpose in veterinary. But the drug is highly misused in poultry industry as a growth promoter for prophylactic purpose.
Colistin is a valuable, last-resort antibiotic that saves lives in critical care units but in recent years, there have been patients who have exhibited resistance to the drug.
Recently, the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has issued an order prohibiting the manufacture, sale and distribution of Colistin and its formulations for food-producing animals, poultry, aqua farming and animal feed supplements.
The ban has been imposed under the provisions of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/colistin-banned-in-animal-food-industry/article28621663.ece
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Great Green Wall
- It was launched by African Union.
- Once complete, the Wall will be the largest living structure on the planet.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
What is the Great Green Wall?
The Great Green Wall is a symbol of hope in the face of one of the biggest challenges of our time – desertification. Launched in 2007 by the African Union, this game-changing African-led initiative aims to restore Africa’s degraded landscapes and transform millions of lives in one of the world’s poorest regions, the Sahel. Once complete, the Wall will be the largest living structure on the planet – an 8,000 km natural wonder of the world stretching across the entire width of the continent.
The Great Green Wall is now being implemented in more than 20 countries across Africa and more than eight billion dollars have been mobilized and pledged for its support. The initiative brings together African countries and international partners, under the leadership of the African Union Commission and Pan-African Agency of the Great Green Wall.
Objectives
By 2030, the ambition of the initiative is to restore 100 million hectares of currently degraded land; sequester 250 million tons of carbon and create 10 million green jobs. This will support communities living along the Wall to:
- Grow fertile land, one of humanity’s most precious natural assets
- Grow economic opportunities for the world’s youngest population
- Grow food security for the millions that go hungry every day
- Grow climate resilience in a region where temperatures are rising faster than anywhere else on Earth
- Grow a wonder of the world spanning 8000 km across Africa
Incorrect
Solution: C
What is the Great Green Wall?
The Great Green Wall is a symbol of hope in the face of one of the biggest challenges of our time – desertification. Launched in 2007 by the African Union, this game-changing African-led initiative aims to restore Africa’s degraded landscapes and transform millions of lives in one of the world’s poorest regions, the Sahel. Once complete, the Wall will be the largest living structure on the planet – an 8,000 km natural wonder of the world stretching across the entire width of the continent.
The Great Green Wall is now being implemented in more than 20 countries across Africa and more than eight billion dollars have been mobilized and pledged for its support. The initiative brings together African countries and international partners, under the leadership of the African Union Commission and Pan-African Agency of the Great Green Wall.
Objectives
By 2030, the ambition of the initiative is to restore 100 million hectares of currently degraded land; sequester 250 million tons of carbon and create 10 million green jobs. This will support communities living along the Wall to:
- Grow fertile land, one of humanity’s most precious natural assets
- Grow economic opportunities for the world’s youngest population
- Grow food security for the millions that go hungry every day
- Grow climate resilience in a region where temperatures are rising faster than anywhere else on Earth
- Grow a wonder of the world spanning 8000 km across Africa
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Cheetah
- The Asiatic cheetah is classified as an extinct species by the IUCN Red List.
- The African cheetah is classified as a critically endangered species by the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Cheetah reintroduction project
- The Supreme Court recently allowed the Centre to introduce the African cheetah to a suitable habitat in India.
- With India’s own cheetahs vanishing, a plea for this had been filed by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), seeking permission to introduce the African cheetah from Namibia.
- The matter came up before the Supreme Court during a hearing on shifting a few lions from Gujarat to Kuno-Palpur wildlife sanctuary, Madhya Pradesh, which was also one of the sites identified for releasing cheetahs.
What is reintroduction and why reintroduce Cheetah now?
o ‘Reintroduction’ of a species means releasing it in an area where it is capable of surviving.
o Reintroductions of large carnivores have increasingly been recognised as a strategy to conserve threatened species and restore ecosystem functions.
o The cheetah is the only large carnivore that has been extirpated, mainly by over-hunting in India in historical times.
Facts:
o The cheetah, Acinonyx jubatus, is one of the oldest of the big cat species, with ancestors that can be traced back more than five million years to the Miocene era.
o The cheetah is also the world’s fastest land mammal.
o It is listed as vulnerable in IUCN red listed species.
o The country’s last spotted feline died in Chhattisgarh in 1947. Later, the cheetah — was declared extinct in India in 1952.
o The Asiatic cheetah is classified as a “critically endangered” species by the IUCN Red List, and is believed to survive only in Iran.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Cheetah reintroduction project
- The Supreme Court recently allowed the Centre to introduce the African cheetah to a suitable habitat in India.
- With India’s own cheetahs vanishing, a plea for this had been filed by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), seeking permission to introduce the African cheetah from Namibia.
- The matter came up before the Supreme Court during a hearing on shifting a few lions from Gujarat to Kuno-Palpur wildlife sanctuary, Madhya Pradesh, which was also one of the sites identified for releasing cheetahs.
What is reintroduction and why reintroduce Cheetah now?
o ‘Reintroduction’ of a species means releasing it in an area where it is capable of surviving.
o Reintroductions of large carnivores have increasingly been recognised as a strategy to conserve threatened species and restore ecosystem functions.
o The cheetah is the only large carnivore that has been extirpated, mainly by over-hunting in India in historical times.
Facts:
o The cheetah, Acinonyx jubatus, is one of the oldest of the big cat species, with ancestors that can be traced back more than five million years to the Miocene era.
o The cheetah is also the world’s fastest land mammal.
o It is listed as vulnerable in IUCN red listed species.
o The country’s last spotted feline died in Chhattisgarh in 1947. Later, the cheetah — was declared extinct in India in 1952.
o The Asiatic cheetah is classified as a “critically endangered” species by the IUCN Red List, and is believed to survive only in Iran.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsCentral Fraud Registry, sometime seen in the news, is set up by
Correct
Solution: C
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has put in place a Central Fraud Registry. It has informed that 13,083, 16,468 and 13,653 cases of ATM/Debit Card and Internet Banking frauds, where the amount involved is Rs. 1 lakh and above, were reported by commercial banks during financial years 2014-15, 2015-16 and 2016-17 respectively. As per RBI’s instructions, banks are required to report cases of fraud to law enforcement agencies. No centralised information is maintained regarding the outcome of investigations by law enforcement agencies.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has put in place a Central Fraud Registry. It has informed that 13,083, 16,468 and 13,653 cases of ATM/Debit Card and Internet Banking frauds, where the amount involved is Rs. 1 lakh and above, were reported by commercial banks during financial years 2014-15, 2015-16 and 2016-17 respectively. As per RBI’s instructions, banks are required to report cases of fraud to law enforcement agencies. No centralised information is maintained regarding the outcome of investigations by law enforcement agencies.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Policy on Biofuels
- The Policy categories biofuels as Basic Biofuels and Advanced Biofuels.
- Policy allows use of surplus food grains for production of ethanol for blending with petrol.
- It has an indicative target of 25% blending of ethanol in petrol and 10% blending of bio-diesel in diesel by 2030.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
National Policy on Biofuels-2018
- The National Policy on Biofuels-2018 approved by the Government envisages an indicative target of 20% blending of ethanol in petrol and 5% blending of bio-diesel in diesel by 2030.
- National Policy on biofuels- salient features:
- Categorization: The Policy categorises biofuels as “Basic Biofuels” First Generation (1G) bioethanol & biodiesel and “Advanced Biofuels” – Second Generation (2G) ethanol, Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) to drop- in fuels, Third Generation (3G) biofuels, bio-CNG etc. to enable extension of appropriate financial and fiscal incentives under each category.
- Scope of raw materials: The Policy expands the scope of raw material for ethanol production by allowing use of Sugarcane Juice, Sugar containing materials like Sugar Beet, Sweet Sorghum, Starch containing materials like Corn, Cassava, Damaged food grains like wheat, broken rice, Rotten Potatoes, unfit for human consumption for ethanol production.
- Protection to farmers: Farmers are at a risk of not getting appropriate price for their produce during the surplus production phase. Taking this into account, the Policy allows use of surplus food grains for production of ethanol for blending with petrol with the approval of National Biofuel Coordination Committee.
- Viability gap funding: With a thrust on Advanced Biofuels, the Policy indicates a viability gap funding scheme for 2G ethanol Bio refineries of Rs.5000 crore in 6 years in addition to additional tax incentives, higher purchase price as compared to 1G biofuels.
- Boost to biodiesel production: The Policy encourages setting up of supply chain mechanisms for biodiesel production from non-edible oilseeds, Used Cooking Oil, short gestation crops.
Incorrect
Solution: A
National Policy on Biofuels-2018
- The National Policy on Biofuels-2018 approved by the Government envisages an indicative target of 20% blending of ethanol in petrol and 5% blending of bio-diesel in diesel by 2030.
- National Policy on biofuels- salient features:
- Categorization: The Policy categorises biofuels as “Basic Biofuels” First Generation (1G) bioethanol & biodiesel and “Advanced Biofuels” – Second Generation (2G) ethanol, Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) to drop- in fuels, Third Generation (3G) biofuels, bio-CNG etc. to enable extension of appropriate financial and fiscal incentives under each category.
- Scope of raw materials: The Policy expands the scope of raw material for ethanol production by allowing use of Sugarcane Juice, Sugar containing materials like Sugar Beet, Sweet Sorghum, Starch containing materials like Corn, Cassava, Damaged food grains like wheat, broken rice, Rotten Potatoes, unfit for human consumption for ethanol production.
- Protection to farmers: Farmers are at a risk of not getting appropriate price for their produce during the surplus production phase. Taking this into account, the Policy allows use of surplus food grains for production of ethanol for blending with petrol with the approval of National Biofuel Coordination Committee.
- Viability gap funding: With a thrust on Advanced Biofuels, the Policy indicates a viability gap funding scheme for 2G ethanol Bio refineries of Rs.5000 crore in 6 years in addition to additional tax incentives, higher purchase price as compared to 1G biofuels.
- Boost to biodiesel production: The Policy encourages setting up of supply chain mechanisms for biodiesel production from non-edible oilseeds, Used Cooking Oil, short gestation crops.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding three species of crocodilians
- Mugger is listed as vulnerable by IUCN.
- The Gharial is listed as a Critically Endangered by IUCN.
- Saltwater Crocodile is listed as least concern by IUCN.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Bhitarkanika census on saltwater crocodiles
- Bhitarkanika census finds an increase of 15 saltwater crocodiles from last year.
- There are now 1,757 crocodiles in the park, the census conducted on January 3, 2020, found. Last year, there were 1,742.
- There are three species of crocodilians—saltwater, Mugger and Gharial.
- Mugger:
o The mugger crocodile, also called the Indian crocodile, or marsh crocodile, is found throughout the Indian subcontinent.
o It is listed as vulnerable by IUCN.
o The mugger is mainly a freshwater species, and found in lakes, rivers and marshes.
- Gharial:
o The Gharial or fish-eating crocodile is native to the Indian subcontinent.
o It is listed as a Critically Endangered by IUCN.
o Small released populations are present and increasing in the rivers of the National Chambal Sanctuary, Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary, Son River Sanctuary and the rainforest biome of Mahanadi in Satkosia Gorge Sanctuary, Orissa.
- Saltwater Crocodile:
o It is the largest of all living reptiles. It listed as least concern by IUCN. It is found throughout the east coast of India.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Bhitarkanika census on saltwater crocodiles
- Bhitarkanika census finds an increase of 15 saltwater crocodiles from last year.
- There are now 1,757 crocodiles in the park, the census conducted on January 3, 2020, found. Last year, there were 1,742.
- There are three species of crocodilians—saltwater, Mugger and Gharial.
- Mugger:
o The mugger crocodile, also called the Indian crocodile, or marsh crocodile, is found throughout the Indian subcontinent.
o It is listed as vulnerable by IUCN.
o The mugger is mainly a freshwater species, and found in lakes, rivers and marshes.
- Gharial:
o The Gharial or fish-eating crocodile is native to the Indian subcontinent.
o It is listed as a Critically Endangered by IUCN.
o Small released populations are present and increasing in the rivers of the National Chambal Sanctuary, Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary, Son River Sanctuary and the rainforest biome of Mahanadi in Satkosia Gorge Sanctuary, Orissa.
- Saltwater Crocodile:
o It is the largest of all living reptiles. It listed as least concern by IUCN. It is found throughout the east coast of India.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsSukhna Lake, recently declared as living entity by high court, is located in which of the following state?
Correct
Solution: C
Sukhna Lake in Chandigarh, India, is a reservoir at the foothills of the Himalayas. This 3 km² rainfed lake was created in 1958 by damming the Sukhna Choe, a seasonal stream coming down from the Shivalik Hills. Originally the seasonal flow entered the lake directly causing heavy siltation.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Sukhna Lake in Chandigarh, India, is a reservoir at the foothills of the Himalayas. This 3 km² rainfed lake was created in 1958 by damming the Sukhna Choe, a seasonal stream coming down from the Shivalik Hills. Originally the seasonal flow entered the lake directly causing heavy siltation.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs of National parks/tiger reserve and the States they are located in
- Guru Ghasidas National Park : Punjab
- Kamlang Tiger Reserve : Arunachal Pradesh
- Achanakmar Tiger Reserve : Chattisgarh
- Sanjay-Dubri Tiger Reserve : Assam
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: B
Guru Ghasidas National Park
- This will be Chattisgarh’s 4th tiger reserve.
- Current 3 tiger reserves: Achanakmar, Udanti- Sitanadi and Indravati tiger reserves.
Sl. No. Name of Tiger Reserve State 1 Nagarjunsagar Srisailam (part)* Andhra Pradesh 2 Namdapha Arunachal Pradesh 3 Kamlang Tiger Reserve Arunachal Pradesh 4 Pakke Arunachal Pradesh 5 Manas Assam 6 Nameri Assam 7 Orang Tiger Reserve Assam 8 Kaziranga Assam 9 Valmiki Bihar 10 Udanti-Sitanadi Chattisgarh 11 Achanakmar Chattisgarh 12 Indravati Chhattisgarh 13 Palamau Jharkhand 14 Bandipur Karnataka 15 Bhadra Karnataka 16 Dandeli-Anshi Karnataka 17 Nagarahole Karnataka 18 Biligiri Ranganatha Temple Karnataka 19 Periyar Kerala 20 Parambikulam Kerala 21 Kanha Madhya Pradesh 22 Pench Madhya Pradesh 23 Bandhavgarh Madhya Pradesh 24 Panna Madhya Pradesh 25 Satpura Madhya Pradesh 26 Sanjay-Dubri Madhya Pradesh Incorrect
Solution: B
Guru Ghasidas National Park
- This will be Chattisgarh’s 4th tiger reserve.
- Current 3 tiger reserves: Achanakmar, Udanti- Sitanadi and Indravati tiger reserves.
Sl. No. Name of Tiger Reserve State 1 Nagarjunsagar Srisailam (part)* Andhra Pradesh 2 Namdapha Arunachal Pradesh 3 Kamlang Tiger Reserve Arunachal Pradesh 4 Pakke Arunachal Pradesh 5 Manas Assam 6 Nameri Assam 7 Orang Tiger Reserve Assam 8 Kaziranga Assam 9 Valmiki Bihar 10 Udanti-Sitanadi Chattisgarh 11 Achanakmar Chattisgarh 12 Indravati Chhattisgarh 13 Palamau Jharkhand 14 Bandipur Karnataka 15 Bhadra Karnataka 16 Dandeli-Anshi Karnataka 17 Nagarahole Karnataka 18 Biligiri Ranganatha Temple Karnataka 19 Periyar Kerala 20 Parambikulam Kerala 21 Kanha Madhya Pradesh 22 Pench Madhya Pradesh 23 Bandhavgarh Madhya Pradesh 24 Panna Madhya Pradesh 25 Satpura Madhya Pradesh 26 Sanjay-Dubri Madhya Pradesh -
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding process of Decomposition
- In the process of fragmentation, Detritivores break down detritus into smaller particles.
- In the process of catabolism, Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade detritus into simpler inorganic substances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Decomposition:
You may have heard of the earthworm being referred to as the farmer’s ‘friend’. This is so because they help in the breakdown of complex organic matter as well as in loosening of the soil. Similarly, decomposers break down complex organic matter into inorganic substances like carbon dioxide, water and nutrients and the process is called decomposition.
Dead plant remains such as leaves, bark, flowers and dead remains of animals, including fecal matter, constitute detritus, which is the raw material for decomposition. The important steps in the process of decomposition are fragmentation, leaching, catabolism, humification and mineralisation.
Detritivores (e.g., earthworm) break down detritus into smaller particles. This process is called fragmentation. By the process of leaching, watersoluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon and get precipitated as unavailable salts. Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade detritus into simpler inorganic substances. This process is called as catabolism.
It is important to note that all the above steps in decomposition operate
simultaneously on the detritus. Humification and mineralisation occur during decomposition in the soil.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Decomposition:
You may have heard of the earthworm being referred to as the farmer’s ‘friend’. This is so because they help in the breakdown of complex organic matter as well as in loosening of the soil. Similarly, decomposers break down complex organic matter into inorganic substances like carbon dioxide, water and nutrients and the process is called decomposition.
Dead plant remains such as leaves, bark, flowers and dead remains of animals, including fecal matter, constitute detritus, which is the raw material for decomposition. The important steps in the process of decomposition are fragmentation, leaching, catabolism, humification and mineralisation.
Detritivores (e.g., earthworm) break down detritus into smaller particles. This process is called fragmentation. By the process of leaching, watersoluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon and get precipitated as unavailable salts. Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade detritus into simpler inorganic substances. This process is called as catabolism.
It is important to note that all the above steps in decomposition operate
simultaneously on the detritus. Humification and mineralisation occur during decomposition in the soil.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding crypto currencies
- A cryptocurrency is a digital or virtual currency designed to work as a medium of exchange.
- Any cryptocurrency network is based on the absolute consensus of all the participants regarding the legitimacy of balances and transactions.
- Cryptocurrencies are banned in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
A cryptocurrency is a digital or virtual currency designed to work as a medium of exchange. It uses cryptography to secure and verify transactions as well as to control the creation of new units of a particular cryptocurrency. Essentially, cryptocurrencies are limited entries in a database that no one can change unless specific conditions are fulfilled.
Within a cryptocurrency network, only miners can confirm transactions by solving a cryptographic puzzle. They take transactions, mark them as legitimate and spread them across the network. Afterwards, every node of the network adds it to its database. Once the transaction is confirmed it becomes unforgeable and irreversible and a miner receives a reward, plus the transaction fees.
Essentially, any cryptocurrency network is based on the absolute consensus of all the participants regarding the legitimacy of balances and transactions. If nodes of the network disagree on a single balance, the system would basically break. However, there are a lot of rules pre-built and programmed into the network that prevents this from happening.
Cryptocurrencies are so called because the consensus-keeping process is ensured with strong cryptography. This, along with aforementioned factors, makes third parties and blind trust as a concept completely redundant.
Recently, SC uplifted ban on Cryptocurrency imposed by RBI more than one year ago
https://cointelegraph.com/bitcoin-for-beginners/what-are-cryptocurrencies
Incorrect
Solution: C
A cryptocurrency is a digital or virtual currency designed to work as a medium of exchange. It uses cryptography to secure and verify transactions as well as to control the creation of new units of a particular cryptocurrency. Essentially, cryptocurrencies are limited entries in a database that no one can change unless specific conditions are fulfilled.
Within a cryptocurrency network, only miners can confirm transactions by solving a cryptographic puzzle. They take transactions, mark them as legitimate and spread them across the network. Afterwards, every node of the network adds it to its database. Once the transaction is confirmed it becomes unforgeable and irreversible and a miner receives a reward, plus the transaction fees.
Essentially, any cryptocurrency network is based on the absolute consensus of all the participants regarding the legitimacy of balances and transactions. If nodes of the network disagree on a single balance, the system would basically break. However, there are a lot of rules pre-built and programmed into the network that prevents this from happening.
Cryptocurrencies are so called because the consensus-keeping process is ensured with strong cryptography. This, along with aforementioned factors, makes third parties and blind trust as a concept completely redundant.
Recently, SC uplifted ban on Cryptocurrency imposed by RBI more than one year ago
https://cointelegraph.com/bitcoin-for-beginners/what-are-cryptocurrencies
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Photosynthetically active radiation (PAR)
- It is light of wavelengths 400-700 nm and is the portion of the light spectrum utilized by plants for photosynthesis.
- Plants capture nearly 20-30 per cent of the PAR.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Photosynthetically active radiation (PAR) is light of wavelengths 400-700 nm and is the portion of the light spectrum utilised by plants for photosynthesis.
Except for the deep-sea hydro-thermal ecosystem, sun is the only source of energy for all ecosystems on Earth. Of the incident solar radiation less than 50 per cent of it is photo synthetically active radiation (PAR). We know that plants and photosynthetic bacteria (autotrophs), fix Sun’s radiant energy to make food from simple inorganic materials. Plants capture only 2-10 per cent of the PAR and this small amount of energy sustains the entire living world.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Photosynthetically active radiation (PAR) is light of wavelengths 400-700 nm and is the portion of the light spectrum utilised by plants for photosynthesis.
Except for the deep-sea hydro-thermal ecosystem, sun is the only source of energy for all ecosystems on Earth. Of the incident solar radiation less than 50 per cent of it is photo synthetically active radiation (PAR). We know that plants and photosynthetic bacteria (autotrophs), fix Sun’s radiant energy to make food from simple inorganic materials. Plants capture only 2-10 per cent of the PAR and this small amount of energy sustains the entire living world.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding limitations of ecological pyramids
- It does not take into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels.
- It assumes a simple food chain.
- saprophytes are not given any place in ecological pyramids.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
There are certain limitations of ecological pyramids such as it does not take into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels. It assumes a simple food chain, something that almost never exists in nature; it does not accommodate a food web. Moreover, saprophytes are not given any place in ecological pyramids even though they play a vital role in the ecosystem.
Incorrect
Solution: D
There are certain limitations of ecological pyramids such as it does not take into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels. It assumes a simple food chain, something that almost never exists in nature; it does not accommodate a food web. Moreover, saprophytes are not given any place in ecological pyramids even though they play a vital role in the ecosystem.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Asian Waterbird Census
- It has been conducted by BirdLife International
- It is an international programme that focuses on monitoring the status of water birds and wetlands
- In India, it is jointly coordinated by the Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS) and Wetlands International.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Asian Waterbird Census was recently conducted in Upper Kuttanad region and has recorded 16,767 birds of 47 continental and local species.
The Asian Waterbird Census:
- The Asian Waterbird Census (AWC) the largest such census in Asia, is organised by Wetlands International, is an international programme that focuses on monitoring the status of water birds and wetlands.
- It also aims to increase public awareness on issues related to wetland and water bird conservation.
- In India, the AWC is annually coordinated by the Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS) and Wetlands International.
- Asian Waterbird Census is a part of the global project ‘International Waterbird Census Programme’ and is carried out every year in January.
- Any wetland which consistently holds 1% or more of water birds can be qualified as a wetland of international importance under the Ramsar Convention. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Asian Waterbird Census was recently conducted in Upper Kuttanad region and has recorded 16,767 birds of 47 continental and local species.
The Asian Waterbird Census:
- The Asian Waterbird Census (AWC) the largest such census in Asia, is organised by Wetlands International, is an international programme that focuses on monitoring the status of water birds and wetlands.
- It also aims to increase public awareness on issues related to wetland and water bird conservation.
- In India, the AWC is annually coordinated by the Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS) and Wetlands International.
- Asian Waterbird Census is a part of the global project ‘International Waterbird Census Programme’ and is carried out every year in January.
- Any wetland which consistently holds 1% or more of water birds can be qualified as a wetland of international importance under the Ramsar Convention. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Hydrarch succession
- Hydrarch succession takes place in wet areas.
- The successional series progress from hydric to the xeric conditions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Hydrarch succession takes place in wet areas and the successional series progress from hydric to the mesic conditions. As against this, xerarch succession takes place in dry areas and the series progress from xeric to mesic conditions. Hence, both hydrarch and xerarch successions lead to medium water conditions (mesic) – neither too dry (xeric) nor too wet (hydric).
The species that invade a bare area are called pioneer species. In primary succession on rocks these are usually lichens which are able to secrete acids to dissolve rock, helping in weathering and soil formation. These later pave way to some very small plants like bryophytes, which are able to take hold in the small amount of soil. They are, with time, succeeded by higher plants, and after several more stages, ultimately a stable climax forest community is formed. The climax community remains stable as long as the environment remains unchanged. With time the xerophytic habitat gets converted into a mesophytic one.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Hydrarch succession takes place in wet areas and the successional series progress from hydric to the mesic conditions. As against this, xerarch succession takes place in dry areas and the series progress from xeric to mesic conditions. Hence, both hydrarch and xerarch successions lead to medium water conditions (mesic) – neither too dry (xeric) nor too wet (hydric).
The species that invade a bare area are called pioneer species. In primary succession on rocks these are usually lichens which are able to secrete acids to dissolve rock, helping in weathering and soil formation. These later pave way to some very small plants like bryophytes, which are able to take hold in the small amount of soil. They are, with time, succeeded by higher plants, and after several more stages, ultimately a stable climax forest community is formed. The climax community remains stable as long as the environment remains unchanged. With time the xerophytic habitat gets converted into a mesophytic one.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Niche
- A niche is the unique functional role or place of a species in an ecosystem.
- Niche plays an important role in conservation of organisms.
- A niche is unique for a species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Niche
A niche is the unique functional role or place of a species in an ecosystem. It is a description of all the biological, physical and chemical factors that a species needs to survive, stay healthy and reproduce.
A niche is unique for a species, which means no two species have exact identical niches. Niche plays an important role in conservation of organisms.
If we have to conserve species in its native habitat we should have knowledge about the niche requirements of the species and should ensure that all requirements of its niche are fulfilled.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Niche
A niche is the unique functional role or place of a species in an ecosystem. It is a description of all the biological, physical and chemical factors that a species needs to survive, stay healthy and reproduce.
A niche is unique for a species, which means no two species have exact identical niches. Niche plays an important role in conservation of organisms.
If we have to conserve species in its native habitat we should have knowledge about the niche requirements of the species and should ensure that all requirements of its niche are fulfilled.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Tigris River flows through Turkey, Syria and Iraq.
- Persian Gulf lies between Iran to the northeast and the Arabian Peninsula to the southwest.
- Euphrates river forms boundary between Israel and Jordan
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Tigris:
- The Tigris is the eastern of the two great rivers that define Mesopotamia, the other being the Euphrates.
- The river flows south after originating in Lake Hazar from the Taurus Mountains of southeastern Turkey through Iraq and empties itself into the Persian Gulf as Shatt al-Arab.
- It flows through Turkey, Syria (as a border with Turkey) and Iraq.
- Flooding of the Tigris usually occurs about a month before flooding of the Euphrates. This is due to the shorter length of the Tigris.
- Baghdad, the capital of today’s Iraq, is located on both banks of the Tigris while Mosul, the site of Iraq’s largest dam, is principally located on the west bank. (Mosul is opposite the remains of ancient Ninevah.)
- Not all of the Tigris River is navigable by shallow-draft vessels. Upstream, during ancient times, people used rafts to reach the city of Ninevah. Today people still use rafts to reach the city of Mosul.
- The last time anyone saw a lion along the Tigris River was in 1926.
- Around 55 fish species live in the Tigris. Although fishing was once very important to people living along the river’s banks, pollution and wars have harmed the fishing industry.
The Persian Gulf is a Mediterranean sea in Western Asia. The body of water is an extension of the Indian Ocean (Gulf of Oman) through the Strait of Hormuz and lies between Iran to the northeast and the Arabian Peninsula to the southwest. The Shatt al-Arab river delta forms the northwest shoreline.
The Euphrates is the longest and one of the most historically important rivers of Western Asia. Together with the Tigris, it is one of the two defining rivers of Mesopotamia. The Jordan River flows downstream through Israel where it forms the border with Jordan South of the Sea of Galilee. As for the Yarmouk, it originates in Syria and forms the border between Jordan and Israel, before joining the Jordan River downstream to the Sea of Galilee.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Tigris:
- The Tigris is the eastern of the two great rivers that define Mesopotamia, the other being the Euphrates.
- The river flows south after originating in Lake Hazar from the Taurus Mountains of southeastern Turkey through Iraq and empties itself into the Persian Gulf as Shatt al-Arab.
- It flows through Turkey, Syria (as a border with Turkey) and Iraq.
- Flooding of the Tigris usually occurs about a month before flooding of the Euphrates. This is due to the shorter length of the Tigris.
- Baghdad, the capital of today’s Iraq, is located on both banks of the Tigris while Mosul, the site of Iraq’s largest dam, is principally located on the west bank. (Mosul is opposite the remains of ancient Ninevah.)
- Not all of the Tigris River is navigable by shallow-draft vessels. Upstream, during ancient times, people used rafts to reach the city of Ninevah. Today people still use rafts to reach the city of Mosul.
- The last time anyone saw a lion along the Tigris River was in 1926.
- Around 55 fish species live in the Tigris. Although fishing was once very important to people living along the river’s banks, pollution and wars have harmed the fishing industry.
The Persian Gulf is a Mediterranean sea in Western Asia. The body of water is an extension of the Indian Ocean (Gulf of Oman) through the Strait of Hormuz and lies between Iran to the northeast and the Arabian Peninsula to the southwest. The Shatt al-Arab river delta forms the northwest shoreline.
The Euphrates is the longest and one of the most historically important rivers of Western Asia. Together with the Tigris, it is one of the two defining rivers of Mesopotamia. The Jordan River flows downstream through Israel where it forms the border with Jordan South of the Sea of Galilee. As for the Yarmouk, it originates in Syria and forms the border between Jordan and Israel, before joining the Jordan River downstream to the Sea of Galilee.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Bioaccumulation
- It refers to the tendency of pollutants to concentrate as they move from one trophic level to the next.
- In bioaccumulation there is an increase in concentration of a pollutant from the environment to the first organism in a food chain.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Bioaccumulation
- It refers to how pollutants enter a food chain.
- In bioaccumulation there is an increase in concentration of a pollutant from the environment to the first organism in a food chain.
Biomagnification
- Biomagnification refers to the tendency of pollutants to concentrate as they move from one trophic level to the next.
- Thus in biomagnification there is an increase in concentration of a pollutant from one link in a food chain to another.
In order for biomagnification to occur, the pollutant must be: long-lived, mobile, soluble in fats, biologically active.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Bioaccumulation
- It refers to how pollutants enter a food chain.
- In bioaccumulation there is an increase in concentration of a pollutant from the environment to the first organism in a food chain.
Biomagnification
- Biomagnification refers to the tendency of pollutants to concentrate as they move from one trophic level to the next.
- Thus in biomagnification there is an increase in concentration of a pollutant from one link in a food chain to another.
In order for biomagnification to occur, the pollutant must be: long-lived, mobile, soluble in fats, biologically active.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsRecently Araku Valley Coffee has won the Gold Medal for the best coffee pod in the Prix Epicures. Araku valley is located in
Correct
Solution: D
Araku Valley Coffee has won the Gold Medal for the best coffee pod in the Prix Epicures in Paris, France.
Araku Valley is a hill station and valley region in the southeastern Indian state of Andhra Pradesh. It’s surrounded by the thick forests of the Eastern Ghats mountain range. The Tribal Museum is dedicated to the area’s numerous indigenous tribes, known for their traditional Dhimsa dance, and showcases traditional handicrafts. A miniature train runs through Padmapuram Gardens, with its sculptures and tree-top huts.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Araku Valley Coffee has won the Gold Medal for the best coffee pod in the Prix Epicures in Paris, France.
Araku Valley is a hill station and valley region in the southeastern Indian state of Andhra Pradesh. It’s surrounded by the thick forests of the Eastern Ghats mountain range. The Tribal Museum is dedicated to the area’s numerous indigenous tribes, known for their traditional Dhimsa dance, and showcases traditional handicrafts. A miniature train runs through Padmapuram Gardens, with its sculptures and tree-top huts.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding nitrogen cycle
- Fixing atmospheric nitrogen: Azotobacter and Clostridium
- Nitrobacter bacteria promote transformation of ammonia into nitrite.
- Nitrite is then further transformed into nitrate by the bacteria Nitrosomonas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Certain microorganisms are capable of fixing atmospheric nitrogen into ammonium ions. These include free living nitrifying bacteria (e.g. aerobic Azotobacter and anaerobic Clostridium) and symbiotic nitrifying bacteria living in association with leguminous plants and symbiotic bacteria living in non-leguminous root nodule plants (e.g. Rhizobium) as well as blue green algae (e.g. Anabaena, Spirulina).
Ammonium ions can be directly taken up as a source of nitrogen by some plants, or are oxidized to nitrites or nitrates by two groups of specialised bacteria: Nitrosomonas bacteria promote transformation of ammonia into nitrite. Nitrite is then further transformed into nitrate by the bacteria Nitrobacter.
The nitrates synthesised by bacteria in the soil are taken up by plants and converted into amino acids, which are the building blocks of proteins. These then go through higher trophic levels of the ecosystem. During excretion and upon the death of all organisms nitrogen is returned to the soil in the form of ammonia.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Certain microorganisms are capable of fixing atmospheric nitrogen into ammonium ions. These include free living nitrifying bacteria (e.g. aerobic Azotobacter and anaerobic Clostridium) and symbiotic nitrifying bacteria living in association with leguminous plants and symbiotic bacteria living in non-leguminous root nodule plants (e.g. Rhizobium) as well as blue green algae (e.g. Anabaena, Spirulina).
Ammonium ions can be directly taken up as a source of nitrogen by some plants, or are oxidized to nitrites or nitrates by two groups of specialised bacteria: Nitrosomonas bacteria promote transformation of ammonia into nitrite. Nitrite is then further transformed into nitrate by the bacteria Nitrobacter.
The nitrates synthesised by bacteria in the soil are taken up by plants and converted into amino acids, which are the building blocks of proteins. These then go through higher trophic levels of the ecosystem. During excretion and upon the death of all organisms nitrogen is returned to the soil in the form of ammonia.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Food Corporation of India
- It is a statutory body
- It has primary duty to undertake purchase, store, and transport, distribute and sell food grains and other foodstuffs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The Food Corporation of India is an organization created and run by the Government of India. It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, Government of India. Its top official is designated as Chairman. It was set up in 1965 with its Initial headquarters at Chennai. Later this was moved to New Delhi. It also has regional centers in the capitals of the states. Important regions of the state also serve as district centers.
Objectives:
- Effective price support operations for safeguarding the interests of the poor farmers
- Distribution of foodgrains throughout the country for Public Distribution System (PDS)
- Maintaining a satisfactory level of operational and buffer stocks of food grains to ensure National Food Security
- Regulate market price to provide food grains to consumers at a reliable price.
- It has primary duty to undertake purchase, store, and move/transport, distribute and sell food grains and other foodstuffs.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Food Corporation of India is an organization created and run by the Government of India. It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, Government of India. Its top official is designated as Chairman. It was set up in 1965 with its Initial headquarters at Chennai. Later this was moved to New Delhi. It also has regional centers in the capitals of the states. Important regions of the state also serve as district centers.
Objectives:
- Effective price support operations for safeguarding the interests of the poor farmers
- Distribution of foodgrains throughout the country for Public Distribution System (PDS)
- Maintaining a satisfactory level of operational and buffer stocks of food grains to ensure National Food Security
- Regulate market price to provide food grains to consumers at a reliable price.
- It has primary duty to undertake purchase, store, and move/transport, distribute and sell food grains and other foodstuffs.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding characteristics of Mangroves
- They are basically evergreen land plants and found in locations where no silt is found.
- Their physiological adaptation to salinity stress and to water logged anaerobic mud is high.
- It produces pneumatophores (blind roots) to overcome respiration problem.
- Mangroves exhibit Viviparity mode of reproduction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Characteristics of mangroves
- They are basically evergreen land plants growing on sheltered shores, typically on tidal flats, deltas, estuaries, bays, creeks and the barrier islands.
- The best locations are where abundant silt is brought down by rivers or on the backshore of accreting sandy beaches.
- Their physiological adaptation to salinity stress and to water logged anaerobic mud is high.
- They require high solar radiation and have the ability to absorb fresh water from saline/brackish water.
- It produces pneumatophores (blind roots) to overcome respiration problem in the anaerobic soil conditions.
- Mangroves occur in variety of configurations. Some species (e.g. Rhizophora) send arching prop roots down into the water. While other (e.g. Avicennia) send vertical “Pneumatophores” or air roots up from the mud.
- Most mangrove vegetation has lenticellated bank which facilitates more water loss, produces coppices. Leaves are thick and contain salt secreting glands.
- Mangroves exhibit Viviparity mode of reproduction. i.e. seeds germinate in the tree itself (before falling to the ground). This is an adaptative mechanism to overcome the problem of germination in saline water.
- Some secrete excess salt through their leaves as if you look closely, you can see crystals of salt on the back of the leaves; others block absorption of salt at their roots.
- Adventitious roots which emerged from the main trunk of a tree above ground level are called stilt roots.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Characteristics of mangroves
- They are basically evergreen land plants growing on sheltered shores, typically on tidal flats, deltas, estuaries, bays, creeks and the barrier islands.
- The best locations are where abundant silt is brought down by rivers or on the backshore of accreting sandy beaches.
- Their physiological adaptation to salinity stress and to water logged anaerobic mud is high.
- They require high solar radiation and have the ability to absorb fresh water from saline/brackish water.
- It produces pneumatophores (blind roots) to overcome respiration problem in the anaerobic soil conditions.
- Mangroves occur in variety of configurations. Some species (e.g. Rhizophora) send arching prop roots down into the water. While other (e.g. Avicennia) send vertical “Pneumatophores” or air roots up from the mud.
- Most mangrove vegetation has lenticellated bank which facilitates more water loss, produces coppices. Leaves are thick and contain salt secreting glands.
- Mangroves exhibit Viviparity mode of reproduction. i.e. seeds germinate in the tree itself (before falling to the ground). This is an adaptative mechanism to overcome the problem of germination in saline water.
- Some secrete excess salt through their leaves as if you look closely, you can see crystals of salt on the back of the leaves; others block absorption of salt at their roots.
- Adventitious roots which emerged from the main trunk of a tree above ground level are called stilt roots.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- ASAT missile can be only land-based missile.
- India became only the fourth country to carry out an anti-satellite missile test.
- Mission Shakti is a joint programme of DRDO and ISRO.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
India’s Anti-Satellite (ASAT) missile
- Mission Shakti is a joint programme of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
- As part of the mission, an anti-satellite (A-SAT) weapon was launched and targeted an Indian satellite which had been decommissioned.
- The target of the test was a satellite present in a low Earth orbit.
- The test sparked concerns regarding the creation of space debris.
- ASAT missile can be air, sea or land-based
Significance:
- India is only the 4th country to acquire such a specialised and modern capability, and Entire effort is indigenous. Till now, only the US, Russia and China had the capability to hit a live target inspace.
- India’s successful demonstration of the ASAT capability is said to signify its ability to intercept an intercontinental ballistic missile.
What is space debris?
- Space junk is an ever-growing problem with more than 7,500 tonnes of redundant hardware now thought to be circling the Earth. Ranging from old rocket bodies and defunct spacecraft through to screws and even flecks of paint – this material poses a collision hazard to operational missions.
- The rising population of space debris increases the potential danger to all space vehicles, but especially to the International Space Station (ISS), space shuttles, satellites and other spacecraft.
Technologies that can tackle the problem in future are:
-
- Nasa’s Space Debris Sensor orbits the Earth on the International Space Station. The sensor was attached to the outside of the space station’s European Columbus module in December 2017. It will detect millimetre- sized pieces of debris for at least two years, providing information on whatever hits it such as size, density, velocity, and orbit and will determine whether the impacting object is from space or a man-made piece of space debris.
- REMOVE debris, satellite contain two cubesats that will release simulated space debris so that it can then demonstrate several ways of retrieving them.
- Deorbit mission: e.Deorbit is a planned European Space Agency active space debris removal mission developed as a part of their Clean Space initiative.
- Other technologies include moving objects with a powerful laser beam. It is important to start doing that soon, current scientific estimates predict that without active debris removal, certain orbits will become unusable over the coming decades.
Incorrect
Solution: B
India’s Anti-Satellite (ASAT) missile
- Mission Shakti is a joint programme of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
- As part of the mission, an anti-satellite (A-SAT) weapon was launched and targeted an Indian satellite which had been decommissioned.
- The target of the test was a satellite present in a low Earth orbit.
- The test sparked concerns regarding the creation of space debris.
- ASAT missile can be air, sea or land-based
Significance:
- India is only the 4th country to acquire such a specialised and modern capability, and Entire effort is indigenous. Till now, only the US, Russia and China had the capability to hit a live target inspace.
- India’s successful demonstration of the ASAT capability is said to signify its ability to intercept an intercontinental ballistic missile.
What is space debris?
- Space junk is an ever-growing problem with more than 7,500 tonnes of redundant hardware now thought to be circling the Earth. Ranging from old rocket bodies and defunct spacecraft through to screws and even flecks of paint – this material poses a collision hazard to operational missions.
- The rising population of space debris increases the potential danger to all space vehicles, but especially to the International Space Station (ISS), space shuttles, satellites and other spacecraft.
Technologies that can tackle the problem in future are:
-
- Nasa’s Space Debris Sensor orbits the Earth on the International Space Station. The sensor was attached to the outside of the space station’s European Columbus module in December 2017. It will detect millimetre- sized pieces of debris for at least two years, providing information on whatever hits it such as size, density, velocity, and orbit and will determine whether the impacting object is from space or a man-made piece of space debris.
- REMOVE debris, satellite contain two cubesats that will release simulated space debris so that it can then demonstrate several ways of retrieving them.
- Deorbit mission: e.Deorbit is a planned European Space Agency active space debris removal mission developed as a part of their Clean Space initiative.
- Other technologies include moving objects with a powerful laser beam. It is important to start doing that soon, current scientific estimates predict that without active debris removal, certain orbits will become unusable over the coming decades.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsA bigger solid cube is painted from outside and cut into 125 smaller cubes of equal size. What is the number smaller cubes which are painted at most on one face?
Correct
Solution: C
When there are 125 smaller cubes, the cube root of 125 is taken as n.
So, n = 5.
The smaller cubes which are painted on at most one face are nothing but the cubes which are painted on one face and the faces which are not painted at all.
The smaller cubes which are painted only on one face = 6 × (n-2)2 = 6 × (5-2)2 = 6 × 32 = 54
The smaller cubes which are not painted at all = (n-2)3 = 33 = 27
Therefore, the smaller cubes which are painted on at most one face = 54 + 27 = 81
Incorrect
Solution: C
When there are 125 smaller cubes, the cube root of 125 is taken as n.
So, n = 5.
The smaller cubes which are painted on at most one face are nothing but the cubes which are painted on one face and the faces which are not painted at all.
The smaller cubes which are painted only on one face = 6 × (n-2)2 = 6 × (5-2)2 = 6 × 32 = 54
The smaller cubes which are not painted at all = (n-2)3 = 33 = 27
Therefore, the smaller cubes which are painted on at most one face = 54 + 27 = 81
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsTwo statements are given followed by two conclusions. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Q. Statements:
- Some gods are devils.
- No god is a hero.
Conclusions:
- No devil is a hero.
- All devils are gods.
Correct
Solution: D
Statement I:
God Devils
Statement II:
Gods Heroes
By clubbing two diagrams:
Both conclusions don’t follow the club diagram
Incorrect
Solution: D
Statement I:
God Devils
Statement II:
Gods Heroes
By clubbing two diagrams:
Both conclusions don’t follow the club diagram
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsThere is a big cube which is painted Red, Black and Blue on 3 pairs of opposite faces respectively before it was cut into 64 smaller cubes of equal size. What is the number of smaller cubes which have same colour at least on two faces?
Correct
Solution: A
With the given conditions:
There will be eight smaller cubes which are painted on 3 faces but all with different colours.
There will be 24 smaller cubes which are painted on 2 faces but with two different colours.
Thus, there are no such cubes which are painted with same colour at least on two faces.
Incorrect
Solution: A
With the given conditions:
There will be eight smaller cubes which are painted on 3 faces but all with different colours.
There will be 24 smaller cubes which are painted on 2 faces but with two different colours.
Thus, there are no such cubes which are painted with same colour at least on two faces.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsStatements:
- All shades are darks.
- No dark is a colour.
Conclusions:
- No colour is a shade.
- Some darks are shades.
- No shade is a colour.
Which of the given conclusions logically follow/s from the given statements
Correct
Solution: D
Incorrect
Solution: D
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsDirections for the following (one) item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follow. Your answer to this item should be based on the passage only.
We have hard work ahead. There is no resting for any of us till we redeem our pledge in full fill we make all the people of India what destiny intends them to be. We are citizens of a great country, on the verge of bold advance, and we have to live up to that high standard. All of us, to whatever religion we may belong, are equally the children of India with, equal rights, privileges and obligations. We cannot encourage communalism or narrow mindedness, for no nation can be great whose people are narrow in thought or action.
The challenge the author of the above passage throws to the public is to achieve
Correct
Answer. D.
Hard work is a challenge that the author throws to the public in the very first line. The passage also highlights the importance of national unity and not be divided on the lines of religion etc. Hence D is the correct answer.
Incorrect
Answer. D.
Hard work is a challenge that the author throws to the public in the very first line. The passage also highlights the importance of national unity and not be divided on the lines of religion etc. Hence D is the correct answer.















