INSIGHTS CURRENT Affairs RTM - 2019
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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
4 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- All FDI proposals from countries sharing border with India will be under the government approval route.
- Under the Automatic Route, the non-resident investor or the Indian company does not require any approval from Government of India for the investment.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Stat1: The Government has amended certain sections of the FDI policy for curbing opportunistic takeovers/acquisitions of Indian companies due to the current COVID-19 pandemic. The changes introduced:
- All FDI proposals from countries sharing border with India will be under the government approval route.
- The so-called automatic route, under which the central bank simply had to be informed after money was invested, has been blocked in such cases.
- Companies whose beneficial ownership also lies in such countries will have to undergo government scrutiny for any change in foreign holding.
- Stat2: Under the Government Route, prior to investment, approval from the Government of India is required. Proposals for foreign investment under Government route, are considered by respective Administrative Ministry/ Department. Under the Automatic Route, the non-resident investor or the Indian company does not require any approval from Government of India for the investment.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/20/government-amends-the-extant-fdi-policy/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Stat1: The Government has amended certain sections of the FDI policy for curbing opportunistic takeovers/acquisitions of Indian companies due to the current COVID-19 pandemic. The changes introduced:
- All FDI proposals from countries sharing border with India will be under the government approval route.
- The so-called automatic route, under which the central bank simply had to be informed after money was invested, has been blocked in such cases.
- Companies whose beneficial ownership also lies in such countries will have to undergo government scrutiny for any change in foreign holding.
- Stat2: Under the Government Route, prior to investment, approval from the Government of India is required. Proposals for foreign investment under Government route, are considered by respective Administrative Ministry/ Department. Under the Automatic Route, the non-resident investor or the Indian company does not require any approval from Government of India for the investment.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/20/government-amends-the-extant-fdi-policy/
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC):
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- It is the second largest inter-governmental organization after the United Nations.
- The OIC has permanent delegations to the United Nations and the European Union.
- India is an observer state to OIC.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Stat1: Organisation of Islamic Cooperation is an international organization founded in 1969, consisting of 57 member states. It is the second largest inter-governmental organization after the United Nations.
- Stat2: The OIC has permanent delegations to the United Nations and the European Union.
- Stat3: Islam is the second-largest religion in India after Hinduism, with roughly 15% of the country’s population or 201 million people identifying as adherents of Islam (2018 estimate). It makes India the country with the largest Muslim population outside Muslim-majority countries. However, India’s relationship with Pakistan has always been tense and has a direct impact on India-OIC relations, with Pakistan being a founding member of the OIC. India has pushed for the OIC to accept India as a member, arguing that about 11% of all Muslims worldwide live in India. Pakistan opposes India’s entry into the OIC.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/20/islamophobia-and-ioc/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Stat1: Organisation of Islamic Cooperation is an international organization founded in 1969, consisting of 57 member states. It is the second largest inter-governmental organization after the United Nations.
- Stat2: The OIC has permanent delegations to the United Nations and the European Union.
- Stat3: Islam is the second-largest religion in India after Hinduism, with roughly 15% of the country’s population or 201 million people identifying as adherents of Islam (2018 estimate). It makes India the country with the largest Muslim population outside Muslim-majority countries. However, India’s relationship with Pakistan has always been tense and has a direct impact on India-OIC relations, with Pakistan being a founding member of the OIC. India has pushed for the OIC to accept India as a member, arguing that about 11% of all Muslims worldwide live in India. Pakistan opposes India’s entry into the OIC.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/20/islamophobia-and-ioc/
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsWith reference to composition and powers of Electricity Contract Enforcement Authority, consider the following statements:
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- The Authority will be headed by a retired Judge of the Supreme Court.
- It is proposed to be set-up with powers of the Civil Court.
- It will enforce performance of contracts between a generating and transmission companies.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation: Composition and powers of Electricity Contract Enforcement Authority:
- Stat1: The Authority will be headed by a retired Judge of the High Court.
- Stat2: It is proposed to be set-up with powers of the Civil Court.
- Stat3: It will enforce performance of contracts related to purchase or sale or transmission of power between a generating, distribution or transmission companies.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/20/draft-electricity-act-amendment-bill-2020/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation: Composition and powers of Electricity Contract Enforcement Authority:
- Stat1: The Authority will be headed by a retired Judge of the High Court.
- Stat2: It is proposed to be set-up with powers of the Civil Court.
- Stat3: It will enforce performance of contracts related to purchase or sale or transmission of power between a generating, distribution or transmission companies.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/20/draft-electricity-act-amendment-bill-2020/
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsIt is a type of contact electrification on which certain materials become electrically charged after they are separated from a different material with which they were in contact. It is popularly known as
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- It is popularly known as triboelectric charging, it is a type of contact electrification on which certain materials become electrically charged after they are separated from a different material with which they were in contact.
- Rubbing the two materials each with the other increases the contact between their surfaces, and hence the triboelectric effect.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/20/triboe-masks-and-triboelectricity/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- It is popularly known as triboelectric charging, it is a type of contact electrification on which certain materials become electrically charged after they are separated from a different material with which they were in contact.
- Rubbing the two materials each with the other increases the contact between their surfaces, and hence the triboelectric effect.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/20/triboe-masks-and-triboelectricity/
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements is/are true about Big Bang Nucleosynthesis (BBN)?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation: Big Bang Nucleosynthesis (BBN)
- The Big Bang Nucleosynthesis theory predicts that roughly 25% the mass of the Universe consists of Helium. It also predicts about 0.01% deuterium, and even smaller quantities of lithium.
- BBN is the production of nuclei other than those of the lightest isotope of hydrogen during the early phases of the Universe.
- Essentially all of the elements that are heavier than lithium were created much later, by stellar nucleosynthesis in evolving and exploding stars.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/20/lithium-rich-red-giants/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation: Big Bang Nucleosynthesis (BBN)
- The Big Bang Nucleosynthesis theory predicts that roughly 25% the mass of the Universe consists of Helium. It also predicts about 0.01% deuterium, and even smaller quantities of lithium.
- BBN is the production of nuclei other than those of the lightest isotope of hydrogen during the early phases of the Universe.
- Essentially all of the elements that are heavier than lithium were created much later, by stellar nucleosynthesis in evolving and exploding stars.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/20/lithium-rich-red-giants/
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsRemdesivir, sometimes mentioned in the news, is related to
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- It is a drug with antiviral properties that was manufactured by US-based Biotechnology Company in 2014, to treat Ebola cases. It was also tried in patients of MERS and SARS, both caused by members of the coronavirus family, but experts said it did now show promising results back then. It is now being studied as a COVID-19 treatment.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/20/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-20-april-2020/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- It is a drug with antiviral properties that was manufactured by US-based Biotechnology Company in 2014, to treat Ebola cases. It was also tried in patients of MERS and SARS, both caused by members of the coronavirus family, but experts said it did now show promising results back then. It is now being studied as a COVID-19 treatment.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/20/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-20-april-2020/
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- Quasar and Blazars are not stars
- Quasar is an active galactic nuclei
- Milky Way was a Quasar before become inactive like it is today
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Quasar and Blazars are not stars, they are a type of galaxy.
- A Quasar is an Active Galactic Nuclei, it is the centre of a galaxy that is shooting out a stream of particles from the centre
- The centre of the Milky Way is reputed to be just a supermassive black hole and not a quasar. It is now thought that at one time, the Milky Way was a Quasar before become inactive like it is today.
- The difference between a Quasar and a Blazar is how it is angled towards us.
- The Milky Way was believed to have been a Quasar once but is currently quiet.
- The nearest Quasar to Earth is Markarian 231 in the constellation of Ursa Major.
- Quasars are so far away that they are believed to be the early stages of a galaxy.
- The first Quasar was discovered on August 5th 1962.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/20/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-20-april-2020/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Quasar and Blazars are not stars, they are a type of galaxy.
- A Quasar is an Active Galactic Nuclei, it is the centre of a galaxy that is shooting out a stream of particles from the centre
- The centre of the Milky Way is reputed to be just a supermassive black hole and not a quasar. It is now thought that at one time, the Milky Way was a Quasar before become inactive like it is today.
- The difference between a Quasar and a Blazar is how it is angled towards us.
- The Milky Way was believed to have been a Quasar once but is currently quiet.
- The nearest Quasar to Earth is Markarian 231 in the constellation of Ursa Major.
- Quasars are so far away that they are believed to be the early stages of a galaxy.
- The first Quasar was discovered on August 5th 1962.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/20/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-20-april-2020/
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to Bangalore blue grape:
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- It grows well in red sandy loam soil.
- It received a geographical indication tag from the Government of India in 2013.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Stat1: The ideal conditions needed to grow Bangalore Blue are: soil of red sandy loam type, day temperature of 35 °C to 37 °C and night temperature of 12 °C to 15 °C. As these conditions are found around the Bangalore region, the variety is grown exclusively there.
- Stat2: It is one of the three major varieties of grape in the state of Karnataka (the other two being Thomson seedless and Anab-E-Shahi Dilkush).
- It received a geographical indication tag from the Government of India in 2013.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/20/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-20-april-2020/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Stat1: The ideal conditions needed to grow Bangalore Blue are: soil of red sandy loam type, day temperature of 35 °C to 37 °C and night temperature of 12 °C to 15 °C. As these conditions are found around the Bangalore region, the variety is grown exclusively there.
- Stat2: It is one of the three major varieties of grape in the state of Karnataka (the other two being Thomson seedless and Anab-E-Shahi Dilkush).
- It received a geographical indication tag from the Government of India in 2013.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/20/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-20-april-2020/
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to E-waste (Management) Amendment Rules, 2018:
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- Producer Responsibility Organizations (PROs) shall apply to Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (Meity) for registration to undertake activities prescribed in the Rules.
- Under the Reduction of Hazardous Substances (RoHS) provisions, cost for sampling and testing shall be borne by the producers for conducting the RoHS test.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation: E-waste (Management) Amendment Rules, 2018
- The e-waste collection targets under EPR have been revised and is being applied from October 1, 2017.
- The phase-wise collection targets for e-waste in weight is 10% of the quantity of waste generation as indicated in the EPR Plan during 2017-18, with a 10% increase every year until 2023. The target from 2023 onwards, shall be 70% of the quantity of waste generation as indicated in the EPR Plan.
- The quantity of e-waste collected by producers from the October 1, 2016 to September 30, 2017 shall be accounted for in the revised EPR targets until March 2018.
- Separate e-waste collection targets have been drafted for new producers, i.e. those producers whose number of years of sales operation is less than the average lives of their products.
- Producer Responsibility Organizations (PROs) shall apply to the Central Pollution Control board (CPCB) for registration to undertake activities prescribed in the Rules.
- Under the Reduction of Hazardous Substances (RoHS) provisions, cost for sampling and testing shall be borne by the government for conducting the RoHS test. If the product does not comply with RoHS provisions, then the cost of the test will be borne by the producers.
Refer: E-Waste management: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2018/09/Insights-2018-Mains-Exclusive-Environment.pdf
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation: E-waste (Management) Amendment Rules, 2018
- The e-waste collection targets under EPR have been revised and is being applied from October 1, 2017.
- The phase-wise collection targets for e-waste in weight is 10% of the quantity of waste generation as indicated in the EPR Plan during 2017-18, with a 10% increase every year until 2023. The target from 2023 onwards, shall be 70% of the quantity of waste generation as indicated in the EPR Plan.
- The quantity of e-waste collected by producers from the October 1, 2016 to September 30, 2017 shall be accounted for in the revised EPR targets until March 2018.
- Separate e-waste collection targets have been drafted for new producers, i.e. those producers whose number of years of sales operation is less than the average lives of their products.
- Producer Responsibility Organizations (PROs) shall apply to the Central Pollution Control board (CPCB) for registration to undertake activities prescribed in the Rules.
- Under the Reduction of Hazardous Substances (RoHS) provisions, cost for sampling and testing shall be borne by the government for conducting the RoHS test. If the product does not comply with RoHS provisions, then the cost of the test will be borne by the producers.
Refer: E-Waste management: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2018/09/Insights-2018-Mains-Exclusive-Environment.pdf
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about lion-tailed macaque:
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- Silent Valley has the largest number of lion tailed macaque in South India.
- It is categorised as Endangered by IUCN.
Which of the above given statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Habitat: Mainly diurnal arboreal, it prefers the upper canopy of primary tropical evergreen rainforest but may also be found in monsoon forest in hilly country and in disturbed forest. It can be found in Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Kerala in the western ghat region.
- Unlike other macaques, it avoids humans
- Conservation efforts
- Appendix I of CITES
- Schedule I, Part I, of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
- Protected areas
- From 1977 to 1980, public concern about the endanged status of lion-tailed macaque became the focal point of Save Silent Valley, India’s fiercest environmental debate of the decade. From 1993 to 1996, 14 troops were observed in Silent Valley National Park, Kerala, one of the most undisturbed viable habitats left for them.
- Silent Valley has the largest number of lion tailed macaque in South India.
- Other protected areas in Kerala include Neyyar Wildlife Sanctuary, Peppara Wildlife Sanctuary, Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuary, Periyar Tiger Reserve and its premises (Gavi and Konni), Eravikulam National Park, Pambadum Shola National Park, Parambikulam Tiger Reserve, Annaimalai Tiger Reserve, New Amarambalam Reserved Forest, Aralam Wildlife Sanctuary and Chimmony Wildlife Sanctuary and Wayanad region.
Refer: https://cwsindia.org/the-rediscovery-of-lion-tailed-macaques-in-karnataka/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Habitat: Mainly diurnal arboreal, it prefers the upper canopy of primary tropical evergreen rainforest but may also be found in monsoon forest in hilly country and in disturbed forest. It can be found in Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Kerala in the western ghat region.
- Unlike other macaques, it avoids humans
- Conservation efforts
- Appendix I of CITES
- Schedule I, Part I, of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
- Protected areas
- From 1977 to 1980, public concern about the endanged status of lion-tailed macaque became the focal point of Save Silent Valley, India’s fiercest environmental debate of the decade. From 1993 to 1996, 14 troops were observed in Silent Valley National Park, Kerala, one of the most undisturbed viable habitats left for them.
- Silent Valley has the largest number of lion tailed macaque in South India.
- Other protected areas in Kerala include Neyyar Wildlife Sanctuary, Peppara Wildlife Sanctuary, Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuary, Periyar Tiger Reserve and its premises (Gavi and Konni), Eravikulam National Park, Pambadum Shola National Park, Parambikulam Tiger Reserve, Annaimalai Tiger Reserve, New Amarambalam Reserved Forest, Aralam Wildlife Sanctuary and Chimmony Wildlife Sanctuary and Wayanad region.
Refer: https://cwsindia.org/the-rediscovery-of-lion-tailed-macaques-in-karnataka/
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