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Welcome to Insights IAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam – 2020.
If you are wondering why these questions are posted, please refer to the detailed Timetable provided HERE.
These InstaQuestions are carefully framed to help you improve various skills and knowledge necessary to face uncertain, unpredictable and difficult questions in real prelims exam. This InstaTest is NOT about your scores. It’s about an opportunity to make mistakes and learn from these mistakes now itself. Also, these tests are NOT meant to give you EXPECTED questions for the upcoming prelims. These are meant for practice and to help you fine-tune your skills. To do really well in these InstaTests, REVISION is the KEY. Do follow our Revision Timetable religiously. It WILL help you clear Prelims – 2020, and do well in mains – 2020 as well.
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Dwarf Planet
- It is aplanetary-mass object that is neither a planet nor a natural satellite.
- Dwarf planets are generally smaller than the planet Mercury.
- Ceres is the largest dwarf planet.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
A dwarf planet is a planetary-mass object that is neither a planet nor a natural satellite.
According to the International Astronomical Union, a dwarf planet is a celestial body that:
- Orbits the sun.
- Has enough mass to assume a nearly round shape.
- Has not cleared the neighborhood around its orbit.
- Is not a moon.
- The main distinction between a dwarf planet and a planet is that planets have cleared the path around the sun while dwarf planets tend to orbit in zones of similar objects that can cross their path around the sun, such as the asteroid and Kuiper belts.
- Dwarf planets also are generally smaller than the planet Mercury.
- The first five recognized dwarf planets are Ceres, Pluto, Eris, Makemake and Haumea.
- Pluto is the largest dwarf planet.
Incorrect
Solution: A
A dwarf planet is a planetary-mass object that is neither a planet nor a natural satellite.
According to the International Astronomical Union, a dwarf planet is a celestial body that:
- Orbits the sun.
- Has enough mass to assume a nearly round shape.
- Has not cleared the neighborhood around its orbit.
- Is not a moon.
- The main distinction between a dwarf planet and a planet is that planets have cleared the path around the sun while dwarf planets tend to orbit in zones of similar objects that can cross their path around the sun, such as the asteroid and Kuiper belts.
- Dwarf planets also are generally smaller than the planet Mercury.
- The first five recognized dwarf planets are Ceres, Pluto, Eris, Makemake and Haumea.
- Pluto is the largest dwarf planet.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding GEMINI device
- It is a device for dissemination of emergency information and communication on disaster warnings, Potential Fishing Zones (PFZ) and Ocean States Forecasts (OSF) to fishermen.
- It has been developed by ISRO.
- The GEMINI device receives and transfers the data received from GAGAN satellite/s to a mobile through Bluetooth communication.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Gagan Enabled Mariner’s Instrument for Navigation and Information (GEMINI) device:
- It is a device that used for seamless and effective dissemination of emergency information and communication on disaster warnings, Potential Fishing Zones (PFZ) and Ocean States Forecasts (OSF) to fishermen.
- The device will help to provide information related to disaster warnings when fishermen move away from the coast beyond 10 to 12 kilometres.
- The GEMINI device receives and transfers the data received from GAGAN satellite/s to a mobile through Bluetooth communication. A mobile application developed by INCOIS decodes and displays the information in nine regional languages.
- It has been developed by Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS), and Airports Authority of India (AAI).
- It is electronically designed and manufactured by a private industry M/S Acord, Bangalore under Make in India Program.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Gagan Enabled Mariner’s Instrument for Navigation and Information (GEMINI) device:
- It is a device that used for seamless and effective dissemination of emergency information and communication on disaster warnings, Potential Fishing Zones (PFZ) and Ocean States Forecasts (OSF) to fishermen.
- The device will help to provide information related to disaster warnings when fishermen move away from the coast beyond 10 to 12 kilometres.
- The GEMINI device receives and transfers the data received from GAGAN satellite/s to a mobile through Bluetooth communication. A mobile application developed by INCOIS decodes and displays the information in nine regional languages.
- It has been developed by Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS), and Airports Authority of India (AAI).
- It is electronically designed and manufactured by a private industry M/S Acord, Bangalore under Make in India Program.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding CARTOSAT-3
- It is the third in the series and launched by PSLV-C47
- The Cartosat satellites are earth observation satellites, used mainly for large-scale mapping of the Earth through high-resolution cameras.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
CARTOSAT-3, which is the ninth in the series, was launched from the second launch pad at Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) SHAR, Sriharikota at the scheduled time of 9.28 am. This was the 74th launch vehicle mission from Sriharikota.
The Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle PSLV-C47 carried the CARTOSAT-3 satellite along with the other commercial nano-satellites for the US.
Cartosat Satellites:
The Cartosat satellites are earth observation satellites, used mainly for large-scale mapping of the Earth through high-resolution cameras.
It also helps to detect changes in natural geographical or man-made features. As their cameras can `look back and forth’ in an angle to generate continuous spot images.
The Earth-observation satellites also include the Resourcesat and RISAT series, the Oceansat series.
The Resourcesat and RISAT series of satellites, for example, provide images and data that are needed for land and water resources applications.
The Oceansat series and the SARAL satellite, meanwhile, produce data on the oceans.
The satellites like INSAT 3D, INSAT-VRR or Megha Tropiques study the atmosphere.
What is Cartosat-3?
Cartosat-3 is a third-generation agile advanced earth observation satellite with high-resolution imaging capability. Developed by the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO), it will replace the IRS series.
Cartosat-3 has a panchromatic resolution of 0.25 metres making it the imaging satellite with highest resolution and Mx of 1 metre with a high-quality resolution, which is a major improvement from the previous payloads in the Cartosat series.
Cartosat-2 was used to plan and execute military operations such as ‘surgical strikes’ across the Line of Control in 2016 and the operations across Manipur-Myanmar border in 2015. Cartosat-2 has got resolution of 65 cm.
Incorrect
Solution: B
CARTOSAT-3, which is the ninth in the series, was launched from the second launch pad at Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) SHAR, Sriharikota at the scheduled time of 9.28 am. This was the 74th launch vehicle mission from Sriharikota.
The Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle PSLV-C47 carried the CARTOSAT-3 satellite along with the other commercial nano-satellites for the US.
Cartosat Satellites:
The Cartosat satellites are earth observation satellites, used mainly for large-scale mapping of the Earth through high-resolution cameras.
It also helps to detect changes in natural geographical or man-made features. As their cameras can `look back and forth’ in an angle to generate continuous spot images.
The Earth-observation satellites also include the Resourcesat and RISAT series, the Oceansat series.
The Resourcesat and RISAT series of satellites, for example, provide images and data that are needed for land and water resources applications.
The Oceansat series and the SARAL satellite, meanwhile, produce data on the oceans.
The satellites like INSAT 3D, INSAT-VRR or Megha Tropiques study the atmosphere.
What is Cartosat-3?
Cartosat-3 is a third-generation agile advanced earth observation satellite with high-resolution imaging capability. Developed by the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO), it will replace the IRS series.
Cartosat-3 has a panchromatic resolution of 0.25 metres making it the imaging satellite with highest resolution and Mx of 1 metre with a high-quality resolution, which is a major improvement from the previous payloads in the Cartosat series.
Cartosat-2 was used to plan and execute military operations such as ‘surgical strikes’ across the Line of Control in 2016 and the operations across Manipur-Myanmar border in 2015. Cartosat-2 has got resolution of 65 cm.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Dark Matter and Dark Energy
- Dark energy is a mysterious force that drives the accelerating expansion of the universe.
- Dark matter only interacts with the rest of the universe through its gravity.
- Dark Energy constitutes roughly 27% and Dark matter makes up about 68% of the universe.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Most of the universe is made up of dark energy, a mysterious force that drives the accelerating expansion of the universe.
The next largest ingredient is dark matter, which only interacts with the rest of the universe through its gravity.
Normal matter, including all the visible stars, planets and galaxies, makes up less than 5 percent of the total mass of the universe.
Dark Energy constitutes roughly 68% of the universe. Dark matter makes up about 27%.
Extra Reading:
Dark Matter
Dark matter is dark: It emits no light and cannot be seen directly, so it cannot be stars or planets.
Dark matter is not clouds of normal matter: Normal matter particles are called baryons. If dark matter were composed of baryons it would be detectable through reflected light.
Dark matter is not antimatter: Antimatter annihilates matter on contact, producing gamma rays. Astronomers do not detect them.
Dark matter is not black holes: Black holes are gravity lenses that bend light. Astronomers do not see enough lensing events to account for the amount of dark matter that must exist
Incorrect
Solution: C
Most of the universe is made up of dark energy, a mysterious force that drives the accelerating expansion of the universe.
The next largest ingredient is dark matter, which only interacts with the rest of the universe through its gravity.
Normal matter, including all the visible stars, planets and galaxies, makes up less than 5 percent of the total mass of the universe.
Dark Energy constitutes roughly 68% of the universe. Dark matter makes up about 27%.
Extra Reading:
Dark Matter
Dark matter is dark: It emits no light and cannot be seen directly, so it cannot be stars or planets.
Dark matter is not clouds of normal matter: Normal matter particles are called baryons. If dark matter were composed of baryons it would be detectable through reflected light.
Dark matter is not antimatter: Antimatter annihilates matter on contact, producing gamma rays. Astronomers do not detect them.
Dark matter is not black holes: Black holes are gravity lenses that bend light. Astronomers do not see enough lensing events to account for the amount of dark matter that must exist
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding NewSpace India Limited
- It is a wholly-owned Government of India Company, under the administrative control of Department of Space (DOS).
- NSIL is the commercial arm of Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
- It will be nodal agency for carrying out PSLV production through Indian Industry under consortium route.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
In order to commercially exploit the products and services emanating from the Indian Space Programme, the “NewSpace India Limited (NSIL)” has been incorporated in March 2019, as a wholly-owned Government of India Company, under the administrative control of Department of Space (DOS). NSIL currently has an authorized share capital of ₹ 100 crore and paid-up capital of ₹ 10 crore. NSIL is the commercial arm of Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) Production
NewSpace India Limited (NSIL) will be nodal agency for carrying out PSLV production through Indian Industry under consortium route. The industry consortium will be responsible for producing, assembling and integrating the launch vehicle, by making use of the existing ISRO facilities under GOCO model.
Incorrect
Solution: D
In order to commercially exploit the products and services emanating from the Indian Space Programme, the “NewSpace India Limited (NSIL)” has been incorporated in March 2019, as a wholly-owned Government of India Company, under the administrative control of Department of Space (DOS). NSIL currently has an authorized share capital of ₹ 100 crore and paid-up capital of ₹ 10 crore. NSIL is the commercial arm of Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) Production
NewSpace India Limited (NSIL) will be nodal agency for carrying out PSLV production through Indian Industry under consortium route. The industry consortium will be responsible for producing, assembling and integrating the launch vehicle, by making use of the existing ISRO facilities under GOCO model.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Akash Missile
- This is surface to air anti-aircraft missile
- The missile is guided by a phased array fire control radar called Rajendra.
- It has a strike range of 250 km and capability to carry warhead of 60 kilogram.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Akash Missile:
Context: Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has successfully test fired AKASH-MK-1S missile.
Key facts:
- This is surface to air anti-aircraft missile with a strike range of 25 km and capability to carry warhead of 60 kilogram.
- It can reach an altitude of 18 km and can be fired from both tracked and wheeled platforms.
- The missile is guided by a phased array fire control radar called ‘Rajendra’ which is termed as Battery Level Radar (BLR) with a tracking range of about 60 km.
- The Akash-MK-1S is capable of striking down enemy fighter jets and drones very effectively and accurately.
- The Akash surface-to-air missile was designed to intercept enemy aircraft and missiles from a distance of 18 to 30 km.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Akash Missile:
Context: Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has successfully test fired AKASH-MK-1S missile.
Key facts:
- This is surface to air anti-aircraft missile with a strike range of 25 km and capability to carry warhead of 60 kilogram.
- It can reach an altitude of 18 km and can be fired from both tracked and wheeled platforms.
- The missile is guided by a phased array fire control radar called ‘Rajendra’ which is termed as Battery Level Radar (BLR) with a tracking range of about 60 km.
- The Akash-MK-1S is capable of striking down enemy fighter jets and drones very effectively and accurately.
- The Akash surface-to-air missile was designed to intercept enemy aircraft and missiles from a distance of 18 to 30 km.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Gravitational Waves
- Any object with mass that accelerates produces gravitational waves including humans, cars and airplanes.
- Gravitational waves interact very strongly with the matter
- Albert Einstein predicted the existence of gravitational waves
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: A
Gravitational waves are ‘ripples’ in the fabric of space-time caused by some of the most violent and energetic processes in the Universe like colliding black holes, the collapse of stellar cores (supernovae), coalescing neutron stars or white dwarf stars, remnants of gravitational radiation created by the birth of the Universe itself.
Sources of G waves
Any object with mass that accelerates (which in science means changes position at a variable rate, and includes spinning and orbiting objects) produces gravitational waves, including humans and cars and airplanes etc.
But the gravitational waves made by us here on Earth are much too small to detect.
In fact, it isn’t even remotely possible to build a machine that can spin an object fast enough to produce a detectible gravitational wave – even the world’s strongest materials would fly apart at the rotation speeds such a machine would require.
Since we can’t generate detectable gravitational waves on Earth, the only way to study them is to look to the places in the Universe where they are generated by nature.
Gravitational waves interact very weakly with matter (unlike electromagnetic radiation), they travel through the Universe virtually unimpeded giving us a clear view of the gravitational-wave Universe.
Albert Einstein predicted the existence of gravitational waves in 1916 in his general theory of relativity.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Gravitational waves are ‘ripples’ in the fabric of space-time caused by some of the most violent and energetic processes in the Universe like colliding black holes, the collapse of stellar cores (supernovae), coalescing neutron stars or white dwarf stars, remnants of gravitational radiation created by the birth of the Universe itself.
Sources of G waves
Any object with mass that accelerates (which in science means changes position at a variable rate, and includes spinning and orbiting objects) produces gravitational waves, including humans and cars and airplanes etc.
But the gravitational waves made by us here on Earth are much too small to detect.
In fact, it isn’t even remotely possible to build a machine that can spin an object fast enough to produce a detectible gravitational wave – even the world’s strongest materials would fly apart at the rotation speeds such a machine would require.
Since we can’t generate detectable gravitational waves on Earth, the only way to study them is to look to the places in the Universe where they are generated by nature.
Gravitational waves interact very weakly with matter (unlike electromagnetic radiation), they travel through the Universe virtually unimpeded giving us a clear view of the gravitational-wave Universe.
Albert Einstein predicted the existence of gravitational waves in 1916 in his general theory of relativity.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Avangard system
- It is a new intercontinental strategic system developed by USA.
- It can fly 27 times the speed of sound and a hypersonic boost-glide missile system.
- The Avangard missiles have a range of over 6,000 km and weigh approximately 2,000 kg.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Avangard system:
Context: Starting from next year, in 2019, a new intercontinental strategic system Avangard will enter service in the Russian army and the first regiment in the Strategic Missile Troops will be deployed.
About Avangard system:
- Avangard, also known as “Objekt 4202,” is a hypersonic boost-glide missile system that is supposed to combine a high-performance ballistic missile with an unmanned glider vehicle for significant improvements in maneuverability and sustained top speed.
It is Russian military’s first Avangard hypersonic intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM).
It can fly 27 times the speed of sound.
The missile system is a reentry body carried atop an existing ballistic missile, which has the capability to manoeuvre. It’s manoeuvring capability makes it difficult to predict its trajectory and gives it the ability to protect itself from the air and ballistic missile defences by delivering nuclear warheads to targets
The Avangard missiles have a range of over 6,000 km, weigh approximately 2,000 kg and can withstand temperatures of over 2000-degree celsius.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Avangard system:
Context: Starting from next year, in 2019, a new intercontinental strategic system Avangard will enter service in the Russian army and the first regiment in the Strategic Missile Troops will be deployed.
About Avangard system:
- Avangard, also known as “Objekt 4202,” is a hypersonic boost-glide missile system that is supposed to combine a high-performance ballistic missile with an unmanned glider vehicle for significant improvements in maneuverability and sustained top speed.
It is Russian military’s first Avangard hypersonic intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM).
It can fly 27 times the speed of sound.
The missile system is a reentry body carried atop an existing ballistic missile, which has the capability to manoeuvre. It’s manoeuvring capability makes it difficult to predict its trajectory and gives it the ability to protect itself from the air and ballistic missile defences by delivering nuclear warheads to targets
The Avangard missiles have a range of over 6,000 km, weigh approximately 2,000 kg and can withstand temperatures of over 2000-degree celsius.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding ICGS Varah
- It is a new stealth frigate launched by the Indian Coast Guard (ICG).
- It is designed and built indigenously by Larsen & Toubro (L&T).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
ICGS Varaha:
What is it? It is a new Offshore patrol vessel (OPV) launched by the Indian Coast Guard (ICG). It is fourth in the series of 98 M OPVs designed and built indigenously by Larsen & Toubro (L&T).
Key features:
- It is fitted with advanced technology navigation and communication equipment, sensor and machinery. Its weaponry includes one 30 mm and two 12.7 mm guns with fire control system. It has been designed to attain maximum speed of 26 knots and has endurance of 5,000 nautical miles.
- It also equipped with an Integrated Bridge System (IBS), Automated Power Management System (APMS), Integrated Platform Management System (IPMS), and High-Power External Fire Fighting (EFF) system.
Incorrect
Solution: B
ICGS Varaha:
What is it? It is a new Offshore patrol vessel (OPV) launched by the Indian Coast Guard (ICG). It is fourth in the series of 98 M OPVs designed and built indigenously by Larsen & Toubro (L&T).
Key features:
- It is fitted with advanced technology navigation and communication equipment, sensor and machinery. Its weaponry includes one 30 mm and two 12.7 mm guns with fire control system. It has been designed to attain maximum speed of 26 knots and has endurance of 5,000 nautical miles.
- It also equipped with an Integrated Bridge System (IBS), Automated Power Management System (APMS), Integrated Platform Management System (IPMS), and High-Power External Fire Fighting (EFF) system.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following diseases/disorders is/are genetic disorders?
- Down Syndrome
- Sickle Cell Anemia
- Hemophilia
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: C
A genetic disorder is a disease that is caused by a change, or mutation, in an individual’s DNA sequence.
Incorrect
Solution: C
A genetic disorder is a disease that is caused by a change, or mutation, in an individual’s DNA sequence.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding measles
- Measles is a highly contagious viral disease.
- India is the fifth country in WHO’s Southeast Asia region to eliminate measles.
- It remains an important cause of death among young children globally, despite the availability of a vaccine.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Context: Sri Lanka has made health history after spending three years free of any new measles cases and the World Health Organization (WHO) has declared that the deadly childhood infection has been eliminated in the island nation.
Sri Lanka is the fifth country in WHO’s Southeast Asia region to eliminate measles. The other four countries are Bhutan, Maldives, DPR Korea and Timor-Leste.
About Measles:
What is It? Measles is a highly contagious viral disease. It remains an important cause of death among young children globally, despite the availability of a safe and effective vaccine.
Spread: Measles is transmitted via droplets from the nose, mouth or throat of infected persons.
Initial symptoms, which usually appear 10–12 days after infection, include high fever, a runny nose, bloodshot eyes, and tiny white spots on the inside of the mouth. Several days later, a rash develops, starting on the face and upper neck and gradually spreading downwards.
Vulnerability: Severe measles is more likely among poorly nourished young children, especially those with insufficient vitamin A, or whose immune systems have been weakened by HIV/AIDS or other diseases.
Prevention: Routine measles vaccination for children, combined with mass immunization campaigns in countries with low routine coverage, are key public health strategies to reduce global measles deaths.
Preventive efforts: Under the Global Vaccine Action Plan, measles and rubella are targeted for elimination in five WHO Regions by 2020. WHO is the lead technical agency responsible for coordination of immunization and surveillance activities supporting all countries to achieve this goal.
India, along with ten other WHO South East Asia Region member countries, have resolved to eliminate measles and control rubella/congenital rubella syndrome (CRS) by 2020. In this direction, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare has initiated measles-rubella (MR) vaccination campaign in the age group of 9 months to less than 15 years in a phased manner across the nation. The campaign aims to cover approximately 41 crore children.
The Measles-Rubella campaign is a part of global efforts to reduce illness and deaths due to measles and rubella/CRS in the country. Measles immunization directly contributes to the reduction of under-five child mortality, and in combination with rubella vaccine, it will control rubella and prevent CRS.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Context: Sri Lanka has made health history after spending three years free of any new measles cases and the World Health Organization (WHO) has declared that the deadly childhood infection has been eliminated in the island nation.
Sri Lanka is the fifth country in WHO’s Southeast Asia region to eliminate measles. The other four countries are Bhutan, Maldives, DPR Korea and Timor-Leste.
About Measles:
What is It? Measles is a highly contagious viral disease. It remains an important cause of death among young children globally, despite the availability of a safe and effective vaccine.
Spread: Measles is transmitted via droplets from the nose, mouth or throat of infected persons.
Initial symptoms, which usually appear 10–12 days after infection, include high fever, a runny nose, bloodshot eyes, and tiny white spots on the inside of the mouth. Several days later, a rash develops, starting on the face and upper neck and gradually spreading downwards.
Vulnerability: Severe measles is more likely among poorly nourished young children, especially those with insufficient vitamin A, or whose immune systems have been weakened by HIV/AIDS or other diseases.
Prevention: Routine measles vaccination for children, combined with mass immunization campaigns in countries with low routine coverage, are key public health strategies to reduce global measles deaths.
Preventive efforts: Under the Global Vaccine Action Plan, measles and rubella are targeted for elimination in five WHO Regions by 2020. WHO is the lead technical agency responsible for coordination of immunization and surveillance activities supporting all countries to achieve this goal.
India, along with ten other WHO South East Asia Region member countries, have resolved to eliminate measles and control rubella/congenital rubella syndrome (CRS) by 2020. In this direction, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare has initiated measles-rubella (MR) vaccination campaign in the age group of 9 months to less than 15 years in a phased manner across the nation. The campaign aims to cover approximately 41 crore children.
The Measles-Rubella campaign is a part of global efforts to reduce illness and deaths due to measles and rubella/CRS in the country. Measles immunization directly contributes to the reduction of under-five child mortality, and in combination with rubella vaccine, it will control rubella and prevent CRS.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding BIO International Convention
- It is the largest global event for the biotechnology industry and attracts the biggest names in biotech, offers key networking and partnering opportunities.
- It is hosted by the UN Environment Programme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The BIO International Convention is the largest global event for the biotechnology industry and attracts the biggest names in biotech, offers key networking and partnering opportunities, and provides insights and inspiration on the major trends affecting the industry. The first BIO International Convention was held in 1993 and attracted approximately 1,400 attendees.
- The event features keynotes and sessions from key policymakers, scientists, CEOs, and celebrities. The Convention also features the BIO Business Forum (One-on-One Partnering), hundreds of sessions covering biotech trends, policy issues and technological innovations, and the world’s largest biotechnology exhibition – the BIO Exhibition.
- The BIO International Convention is hosted by the Biotechnology Innovation Organization (BIO). BIO represents more than 1,100 biotechnology companies, academic institutions, state biotechnology centers and related organizations across the United States and in more than 30 other nations. BIO members are involved in the research and development of innovative healthcare, agricultural, industrial and environmental biotechnology products.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The BIO International Convention is the largest global event for the biotechnology industry and attracts the biggest names in biotech, offers key networking and partnering opportunities, and provides insights and inspiration on the major trends affecting the industry. The first BIO International Convention was held in 1993 and attracted approximately 1,400 attendees.
- The event features keynotes and sessions from key policymakers, scientists, CEOs, and celebrities. The Convention also features the BIO Business Forum (One-on-One Partnering), hundreds of sessions covering biotech trends, policy issues and technological innovations, and the world’s largest biotechnology exhibition – the BIO Exhibition.
- The BIO International Convention is hosted by the Biotechnology Innovation Organization (BIO). BIO represents more than 1,100 biotechnology companies, academic institutions, state biotechnology centers and related organizations across the United States and in more than 30 other nations. BIO members are involved in the research and development of innovative healthcare, agricultural, industrial and environmental biotechnology products.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following diseases is/are neglected tropical diseases
- Rabies
- Dengue
- Sleeping sickness
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: D
Neglected tropical diseases (NTDs)– a diverse group of communicable diseases that prevail in tropical and subtropical conditions in 149 countries – affect more than one billion people and cost developing economies billions of dollars every year.
Populations living in poverty, without adequate sanitation and in close contact with infectious vectors and domestic animals and livestock are those worst affected.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Neglected tropical diseases (NTDs)– a diverse group of communicable diseases that prevail in tropical and subtropical conditions in 149 countries – affect more than one billion people and cost developing economies billions of dollars every year.
Populations living in poverty, without adequate sanitation and in close contact with infectious vectors and domestic animals and livestock are those worst affected.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding IndiGen Genome project
- IndiGen Genome project is conducted by CSIR.
- It aims to undertake whole genome sequencing of thousands of individuals representing diverse ethnic groups from India.
- It will help in development of preventive medicine with faster and efficient diagnosis of rare genetic diseases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
IndiGen Genome project
Context: Details of the IndiGen Genome project, conducted by CSIR, were recently announced.
The initiative was implemented by the CSIR-Institute of Genomics and Integrative Biology (IGIB), Delhi and CSIR-Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB), Hyderabad.
Significance, outcomes and benefits of the project:
The outcomes of the IndiGen will have applications in a number of areas including predictive and preventive medicine with faster and efficient diagnosis of rare genetic diseases.
The data will be important for building the knowhow, baseline data and indigenous capacity in the emerging area of Precision Medicine.
About Genomics for Public Health in India (IndiGen) programme:
IndiGen programme aims to undertake whole genome sequencing of thousands of individuals representing diverse ethnic groups from India.
The objective is to enable genetic epidemiology and develop public health technologies applications using population genome data.
Need for genome sequencing:
- Ever since the human genome was first sequenced in 2003, it opened a fresh perspective on the link between disease and the unique genetic make-up of each individual.
- Nearly 10,000 diseases — including cystic fibrosis, thalassemia — are known to be the result of a single gene malfunctioning.
- While genes may render some insensitive to certain drugs, genome sequencing has shown that cancer too can be understood from the viewpoint of genetics, rather than being seen as a disease of certain organs.
Incorrect
Solution: D
IndiGen Genome project
Context: Details of the IndiGen Genome project, conducted by CSIR, were recently announced.
The initiative was implemented by the CSIR-Institute of Genomics and Integrative Biology (IGIB), Delhi and CSIR-Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB), Hyderabad.
Significance, outcomes and benefits of the project:
The outcomes of the IndiGen will have applications in a number of areas including predictive and preventive medicine with faster and efficient diagnosis of rare genetic diseases.
The data will be important for building the knowhow, baseline data and indigenous capacity in the emerging area of Precision Medicine.
About Genomics for Public Health in India (IndiGen) programme:
IndiGen programme aims to undertake whole genome sequencing of thousands of individuals representing diverse ethnic groups from India.
The objective is to enable genetic epidemiology and develop public health technologies applications using population genome data.
Need for genome sequencing:
- Ever since the human genome was first sequenced in 2003, it opened a fresh perspective on the link between disease and the unique genetic make-up of each individual.
- Nearly 10,000 diseases — including cystic fibrosis, thalassemia — are known to be the result of a single gene malfunctioning.
- While genes may render some insensitive to certain drugs, genome sequencing has shown that cancer too can be understood from the viewpoint of genetics, rather than being seen as a disease of certain organs.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding SDG Gender Index
- It is developed by UNDP.
- A score of 100 reflects the achievement of gender equality in relation to the targets set for each indicator.
- India is ranked 95th among 129 countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
SDG Gender Index
About the SDG Gender Index:
- Developed by Equal Measures 2030, a joint effort of regional and global organisations including African Women’s Development and Communication Network, Asian-Pacific Resource and Research Centre for Women, Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation etc.
- It accounts for 14 out of 17 SDGs (sustainable development goals) that cover aspects such as poverty, health, education, literacy, political representation and equality at the workplace.
- A score of 100 reflects the achievement of gender equality in relation to the targets set for each indicator. It means, for example, that 100% of girls complete secondary education, or that there is around 50-50 parity for women and men in Parliament. A score of 50 signifies that a country is about halfway to meeting a goal.
Key findings- India specific:
- India is ranked 95th among 129 countries.
- India’s highest goal scores are on health (79.9), hunger & nutrition (76.2), and energy (71.8).
- Its lowest goal scores are on partnerships (18.3, in the bottom 10 countries worldwide), industry, infrastructure and innovation (38.1), and climate (43.4).
- On indicators that define such goals, India scored 95.3 on the percentage of female students enrolled in primary education who are overage.
- Some of India’s lowest scores on indicators include the proportion of seats held by women in national parliaments. On seats held by women in the Supreme Court (4%), India has a score of 18.2.
- Gender-based violence
- On gender-based violence, indicators include proportion of women aged 20-24 years who were married or in a union before age 18 (27.3%).
Incorrect
Solution: B
SDG Gender Index
About the SDG Gender Index:
- Developed by Equal Measures 2030, a joint effort of regional and global organisations including African Women’s Development and Communication Network, Asian-Pacific Resource and Research Centre for Women, Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation etc.
- It accounts for 14 out of 17 SDGs (sustainable development goals) that cover aspects such as poverty, health, education, literacy, political representation and equality at the workplace.
- A score of 100 reflects the achievement of gender equality in relation to the targets set for each indicator. It means, for example, that 100% of girls complete secondary education, or that there is around 50-50 parity for women and men in Parliament. A score of 50 signifies that a country is about halfway to meeting a goal.
Key findings- India specific:
- India is ranked 95th among 129 countries.
- India’s highest goal scores are on health (79.9), hunger & nutrition (76.2), and energy (71.8).
- Its lowest goal scores are on partnerships (18.3, in the bottom 10 countries worldwide), industry, infrastructure and innovation (38.1), and climate (43.4).
- On indicators that define such goals, India scored 95.3 on the percentage of female students enrolled in primary education who are overage.
- Some of India’s lowest scores on indicators include the proportion of seats held by women in national parliaments. On seats held by women in the Supreme Court (4%), India has a score of 18.2.
- Gender-based violence
- On gender-based violence, indicators include proportion of women aged 20-24 years who were married or in a union before age 18 (27.3%).
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010
- It regulates the receipt and usage of foreign contribution by non-governmental organizations in India.
- It is implemented by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
- If someone violates the FCRA act, he can be sent to jail for up to 5 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 and rules framed under it (the “FCRA” or “Act”) regulate the receipt and usage of foreign contribution by non-governmental organisations (“NGOs”) in India. Since the Act is internal security legislation, despite being a law related to financial legislation, it falls into the purview of Home Ministry and not the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
Scope and objective of FCRA:
- The intent of the Act is to prevent use of foreign contribution or foreign hospitality for any activity detrimental to the national interest.
- It has a very wide scope and is applicable to a natural person, body corporate, all other types of Indian entities (whether incorporated or not) as well as NRIs and overseas branches/subsidiaries of Indian companies and other entities formed or registered in India. It is implemented by the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
- If someone violates the FCRA act, he can be sent to jail for up to 5 years.
- The Acts ensures that the recipients of foreign contributions adhere to the stated purpose for which such contribution has been obtained.
- Under the Act, organisations require to register themselves every five years
Incorrect
Solution: D
The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 and rules framed under it (the “FCRA” or “Act”) regulate the receipt and usage of foreign contribution by non-governmental organisations (“NGOs”) in India. Since the Act is internal security legislation, despite being a law related to financial legislation, it falls into the purview of Home Ministry and not the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
Scope and objective of FCRA:
- The intent of the Act is to prevent use of foreign contribution or foreign hospitality for any activity detrimental to the national interest.
- It has a very wide scope and is applicable to a natural person, body corporate, all other types of Indian entities (whether incorporated or not) as well as NRIs and overseas branches/subsidiaries of Indian companies and other entities formed or registered in India. It is implemented by the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
- If someone violates the FCRA act, he can be sent to jail for up to 5 years.
- The Acts ensures that the recipients of foreign contributions adhere to the stated purpose for which such contribution has been obtained.
- Under the Act, organisations require to register themselves every five years
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Defence Fund (NDF)
- It was set up to take charge of the Voluntary donations in cash and kind received for promotion of the national Defence effort.
- The fund is administered by an Executive Committee with the Defence Minister as the Chairperson.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
National Defence Fund (NDF):
Context: A major change has been brought about in the ‘Prime Minister’s Scholarship Scheme’ under the National Defence Fund.
Key changes:
- Scholarships increase from ₹2,000 to ₹2,500 a month for boys and from ₹2,250 to ₹3,000 a month for girls.
- The ambit of the scheme was widened to cover the wards of State police officials martyred in terror or Naxal attacks.
- new scholarships are given to 5,500 wards of armed forces personnel, 2,000 wards of paramilitary forces personnel and 150 wards of forces under the Railways Ministry every year.
About National Defence Fund (NDF):
- The National Defence Fund (NDF) was set up in 1962 to take charge of the Voluntary donations in cash and kind received for promotion of the national Defence effort, and to decide on their utilisation.
- Currently the fund is being used for the welfare of the members of the Armed Forces, Para Military forces and Railway Protection Force, and their dependents.
- The fund is administered by an Executive Committee with the Prime Minister as the Chairperson and the Defence, Finance and Home Ministers as Members.
- Under National Defence Fund major scheme of ‘Prime Minister’s Scholarship Scheme (PMSS)’ is being implemented to encourage technical and post-graduate education for the widows and wards of the deceased/ex-service personnel.
- Scholarships are available for education at technical institutions (medical, dental, veterinary, engineering, MBA, MCA and other equivalent technical professions with suitable AICTE/UGC approval).
- The National Defence Fund accepts online voluntary contributions through the website.
Incorrect
Solution: A
National Defence Fund (NDF):
Context: A major change has been brought about in the ‘Prime Minister’s Scholarship Scheme’ under the National Defence Fund.
Key changes:
- Scholarships increase from ₹2,000 to ₹2,500 a month for boys and from ₹2,250 to ₹3,000 a month for girls.
- The ambit of the scheme was widened to cover the wards of State police officials martyred in terror or Naxal attacks.
- new scholarships are given to 5,500 wards of armed forces personnel, 2,000 wards of paramilitary forces personnel and 150 wards of forces under the Railways Ministry every year.
About National Defence Fund (NDF):
- The National Defence Fund (NDF) was set up in 1962 to take charge of the Voluntary donations in cash and kind received for promotion of the national Defence effort, and to decide on their utilisation.
- Currently the fund is being used for the welfare of the members of the Armed Forces, Para Military forces and Railway Protection Force, and their dependents.
- The fund is administered by an Executive Committee with the Prime Minister as the Chairperson and the Defence, Finance and Home Ministers as Members.
- Under National Defence Fund major scheme of ‘Prime Minister’s Scholarship Scheme (PMSS)’ is being implemented to encourage technical and post-graduate education for the widows and wards of the deceased/ex-service personnel.
- Scholarships are available for education at technical institutions (medical, dental, veterinary, engineering, MBA, MCA and other equivalent technical professions with suitable AICTE/UGC approval).
- The National Defence Fund accepts online voluntary contributions through the website.
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding AWaRe tool
- It has been developed by Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR).
- It is an online tool aimed at guiding policy-makers and health workers to use antibiotics safely and more effectively.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
AWaRe- a WHO tool for safer use of antibiotics
Context: WHO launches tool for safer use of antibiotics, curb resistance- AWaRe.
About AWaRe:
It is an online tool aimed at guiding policy-makers and health workers to use antibiotics safely and more effectively.
The tool, known as ‘AWaRe’, classifies antibiotics into three groups:
- Access — antibiotics used to treat the most common and serious infections.
- Watch — antibiotics available at all times in the healthcare system.
- Reserve — antibiotics to be used sparingly or preserved and used only as a last resort.
Concerns:
- Antibiotic resistance is already one of the biggest health risks and is estimated to kill 50 million by 2050 worldwide.
- The threat continues to escalate globally because more than 50 per cent of antibiotics in many countries are used inappropriately such as for treatment of viruses when they only treat bacterial infections or use of the wrong (broader spectrum) antibiotic.
- Besides, reduced access to effective and appropriate antibiotics in many low- and middle-income countries contributes to childhood deaths and lack of funding and implementation of national plans to tackle antimicrobial resistance.
Need of the hour:
With the emergence of infections that are untreatable by all classes of antibiotics, antimicrobial resistance has become “an invisible pandemic”.
In the absence of development of new drugs, “we must safeguard these precious last-line antibiotics to ensure we can still treat and prevent serious infections”.
Incorrect
Solution: B
AWaRe- a WHO tool for safer use of antibiotics
Context: WHO launches tool for safer use of antibiotics, curb resistance- AWaRe.
About AWaRe:
It is an online tool aimed at guiding policy-makers and health workers to use antibiotics safely and more effectively.
The tool, known as ‘AWaRe’, classifies antibiotics into three groups:
- Access — antibiotics used to treat the most common and serious infections.
- Watch — antibiotics available at all times in the healthcare system.
- Reserve — antibiotics to be used sparingly or preserved and used only as a last resort.
Concerns:
- Antibiotic resistance is already one of the biggest health risks and is estimated to kill 50 million by 2050 worldwide.
- The threat continues to escalate globally because more than 50 per cent of antibiotics in many countries are used inappropriately such as for treatment of viruses when they only treat bacterial infections or use of the wrong (broader spectrum) antibiotic.
- Besides, reduced access to effective and appropriate antibiotics in many low- and middle-income countries contributes to childhood deaths and lack of funding and implementation of national plans to tackle antimicrobial resistance.
Need of the hour:
With the emergence of infections that are untreatable by all classes of antibiotics, antimicrobial resistance has become “an invisible pandemic”.
In the absence of development of new drugs, “we must safeguard these precious last-line antibiotics to ensure we can still treat and prevent serious infections”.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI):
- Ministry of Food Processing Industries is the Administrative Ministry for the implementation of FSSAI.
- It has been established under the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
- It is responsible for protecting and promoting public health through the regulation and supervision of food safety.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)
The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has been established under Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 which consolidates various acts & orders that have hitherto handled food related issues in various Ministries and Departments.
- It was created for laying down science based standards for articles of food and to regulate their manufacture, storage, distribution, sale and import to ensure availability of safe and wholesome food for human consumption.
- Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India is the Administrative Ministry for the implementation of FSSAI.
- The Chairperson and Chief Executive Officer of Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) are appointed by Government of India.
- The Chairperson is in the rank of Secretary to Government of India.
- FSSAI is responsible for protecting and promoting public health through the regulation and supervision of food safety.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)
The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has been established under Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 which consolidates various acts & orders that have hitherto handled food related issues in various Ministries and Departments.
- It was created for laying down science based standards for articles of food and to regulate their manufacture, storage, distribution, sale and import to ensure availability of safe and wholesome food for human consumption.
- Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India is the Administrative Ministry for the implementation of FSSAI.
- The Chairperson and Chief Executive Officer of Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) are appointed by Government of India.
- The Chairperson is in the rank of Secretary to Government of India.
- FSSAI is responsible for protecting and promoting public health through the regulation and supervision of food safety.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsRecently a tortois, named Impressive tortoise was discovered in
Correct
Solution: C
Impressive tortoise from Arunachal Pradesh:
- A tortoise considered beautiful enough to be named ‘impressed’ has been discovered in Arunachal Pradesh.
- This is the first record of the tortoise in India, taking the count to five and the non-marine chelonian count to 29. Chelonian is an order of reptile that includes turtles, terrapins and tortoises.
- India was known to be the home of only the Asian Forest Tortoise (Manouria emys) until the discovery of the Impressed Tortoise.
- The Asian Forest Tortoise, the largest in mainland Asia, is found only in the northeast, as are 20 of the other 28 species of chelonians.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Impressive tortoise from Arunachal Pradesh:
- A tortoise considered beautiful enough to be named ‘impressed’ has been discovered in Arunachal Pradesh.
- This is the first record of the tortoise in India, taking the count to five and the non-marine chelonian count to 29. Chelonian is an order of reptile that includes turtles, terrapins and tortoises.
- India was known to be the home of only the Asian Forest Tortoise (Manouria emys) until the discovery of the Impressed Tortoise.
- The Asian Forest Tortoise, the largest in mainland Asia, is found only in the northeast, as are 20 of the other 28 species of chelonians.
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR):
- It is the apex body in India for the formulation, coordination and promotion of biomedical research.
- It is funded by the Government of India through the Department of Health Research, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare
- The Governing Body of the Council is presided over by the Union Health Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), New Delhi, the apex body in India for the formulation, coordination and promotion of biomedical research, is one of the oldest medical research bodies in the world.
It was established in 1911 as Indian Research Fund Association (IRFA).
IRFA was redesignated as the Indian Council of Medical Research (with Dr. C.G. Pandit as its first Director).
The ICMR is funded by the Government of India through the Department of Health Research, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare.
The Council’s research priorities coincide with the National health priorities such as control and management of communicable diseases, fertility control, maternal and child health, control of nutritional disorders, developing alternative strategies for health care delivery, containment within safety limits of environmental and occupational health problems; research on major non-communicable diseases like cancer, cardiovascular diseases, blindness, diabetes and other metabolic and haematological disorders; mental health research and drug research (including traditional remedies). All these efforts are undertaken with a view to reduce the total burden of disease and to promote health and well-being of the population.
The Governing Body of the Council is presided over by the Union Health Minister. It is assisted in scientific and technical matters by a Scientific Advisory Board comprising eminent experts in different biomedical disciplines. The Board, in its turn, is assisted by a series of Scientific Advisory Groups, Scientific Advidsory Committees, Expert Groups, Task Forces, Steering Committees etc. which evaluate and moniter different research activities of the Council.
The Council promotes biomedical research in the country through intramural as well as extramural research. Over the decades, the base of extramural research and also its strategies have been expanded by the Council.
It is important for the exam as it is playing pivotal role in testing of Covid-19 pandemic.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), New Delhi, the apex body in India for the formulation, coordination and promotion of biomedical research, is one of the oldest medical research bodies in the world.
It was established in 1911 as Indian Research Fund Association (IRFA).
IRFA was redesignated as the Indian Council of Medical Research (with Dr. C.G. Pandit as its first Director).
The ICMR is funded by the Government of India through the Department of Health Research, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare.
The Council’s research priorities coincide with the National health priorities such as control and management of communicable diseases, fertility control, maternal and child health, control of nutritional disorders, developing alternative strategies for health care delivery, containment within safety limits of environmental and occupational health problems; research on major non-communicable diseases like cancer, cardiovascular diseases, blindness, diabetes and other metabolic and haematological disorders; mental health research and drug research (including traditional remedies). All these efforts are undertaken with a view to reduce the total burden of disease and to promote health and well-being of the population.
The Governing Body of the Council is presided over by the Union Health Minister. It is assisted in scientific and technical matters by a Scientific Advisory Board comprising eminent experts in different biomedical disciplines. The Board, in its turn, is assisted by a series of Scientific Advisory Groups, Scientific Advidsory Committees, Expert Groups, Task Forces, Steering Committees etc. which evaluate and moniter different research activities of the Council.
The Council promotes biomedical research in the country through intramural as well as extramural research. Over the decades, the base of extramural research and also its strategies have been expanded by the Council.
It is important for the exam as it is playing pivotal role in testing of Covid-19 pandemic.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding report: State of India’s Environment 2019
- It is an annual quantified statement of environmental statistics and analysis put together by Down To Earth magazine.
- Air pollution is responsible for 12.5 per cent of all deaths in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
State of India’s Environment 2019
Context: The State of India’s Environment 2019 in Figures is an exclusive data-driven analysis of major developmental and environmental sectors. SoE 2019 in Figures is an annual quantified statement of environmental statistics and analysis put together by Down To Earth magazine, which Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) helps publish.
Usefulness: The datasets can be used by the media to investigate compelling stories, ask better questions to policymakers to drive them to come up with better policies for sustainable development agenda.
Key findings:
State of air – Air pollution is responsible for 12.5 per cent of all deaths in India. Its impact on children is equally worrying. Over 100,000 children below the age of five die due to bad air in the country. While India was one of the first countries to pledge the phasing out of non-electric vehicles, its national scheme to promote the sale of e-vehicles is yet to pick up. Against the target of 15-16 million e-vehicles by 2020, the county had 0.28 million vehicles till May 2019.
State of development – Climate change poses the biggest economic threat in the world today and features prominently in the UN Sustainable Development Goals 2030. With just 10 years to go, India is yet to identify indicators to track its climate change preparedness. Of the 13 SDGs the country is tracking, indicators exist for only a handful of the targets.
State of water – Both surface and groundwater in the country are under stress. 86 water bodies are critically polluted. The bulk of the polluted water bodies are in Karnataka, Telangana and Kerala. One of the reasons is the substantial increase (136 per cent) in the number of grossly polluting industries between 2011 and 2018. Groundwater is also reeling under overexploitation, which is running 94.5 per cent of all minor irrigation schemes in the country. There has been an unsustainable increase in the number of deep tubewells that has gone up by 80 per cent between 2006-07 and 2013-14.
State of land and agriculture – India’s farm sector is under duress. While the input costs for major crops are rising, the average farmland size is shrinking. Even the share of the insured cropped area stands at a dismal 26 per cent.
State of Health – India’s rural health infrastructure is ailing. There is a 35 per cent shortfall in the number of 24×7 public health centres, where 26 per cent of the positions for medical officers are lying vacant. In fact, Kerala does not have a single 24×7 public health centre. Another worrying trend is that the number of new doctors qualifying every year in the country has decreased by 60 per cent between 2013 and 2017. The country also shares the world’s largest absolute burden of at least 11 major neglected tropical diseases, which includes diseases like dengue.
State of cities – By 2050, India is projected to add 416 million urban dwellers to the world’s urban population and will be home to about 58 per cent of the total global population. Keeping this in mind, India in 2015-16 announced its ambitious plan of creating 100 smart cities. Four years later, only 21 per cent of the allocated funds for the smart cities have been spent. In the meanwhile, most urban cities have a sizeable population living in slums, which are unfit for habitation. India has 2,613 towns with slums. Of them, 57 per cent are in Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka and Maharashtra.
State of waste – The burden of solid waste is becoming unmanageable. In fact, 79 major protests against unsanitary landfills and dump yards have been recorded in 22 states in the past three years. Maharashtra, which registered 16 major protests, leaves 43 per cent of its waste unprocessed. While India claims to process 96 per cent of its biomedical waste, eight states and UTs have defaulting hospitals. The country has also recorded a 56 per cent increase in the number of hazardous-waste generating industries between 2009 and 2016-17. At the same time, most of these industries are not properly maintaining their waste inventory, as mandated by the law.
State of energy – India’s natural gas and hydro-based power plants are in shambles. Gas-based plants are running at 24 per cent of their capacity due to the acute shortage of domestic natural gas. Hydropower projects, on the other hand, are running at just 19 per cent of their capacity and their share in total installed capacity has consistently declined since 1962. The country’s progress in renewable energy in 2018-19 has also been dismal. In wind, the country met only 6.3 per cent of the target this year. In solar, it met 5.86 per cent.
State of climate – There has been a 22 per cent increase in India’s greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions between 2010 and 2014. This has been fuelled by the energy sector, which is responsible for 73 per cent of the total GHG emissions. Besides, India phased out ozone depleting substances such as chlorofluorocarbon by 2011, it shifted to substances such as hydrochlorofluorocarbon, which have high globalwarming potential. India continues to bear the brunt of extreme weather events. In 2018, 11 states recorded major extreme weather events that claimed 1,425 lives.
State of forests – India has recently shifted to a powerful forest fire monitoring and alert system, SNPP-VIIRS, which can capture forest fires with better accuracy and precision. In April 2019, the new technology recorded 69,523 forest fires, which was 9.5 times more than that recorded by the earlier technology.
State of wildlife – 37 species were poached or seized in 2018. Of these, 13, including lion, marked an increase over the last year; 161 wild animals were also killed due to road and train accidents
State of employment – India has witnessed a 1.9 times increase in the unemployment rate in the past two years. This has especially affected the youth and the educated. Unemployment rate among people with at least a graduate degree was 13.17 per cent in September-December 2018, up from 10.39 per cent in May-August 2017.
Incorrect
Solution: C
State of India’s Environment 2019
Context: The State of India’s Environment 2019 in Figures is an exclusive data-driven analysis of major developmental and environmental sectors. SoE 2019 in Figures is an annual quantified statement of environmental statistics and analysis put together by Down To Earth magazine, which Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) helps publish.
Usefulness: The datasets can be used by the media to investigate compelling stories, ask better questions to policymakers to drive them to come up with better policies for sustainable development agenda.
Key findings:
State of air – Air pollution is responsible for 12.5 per cent of all deaths in India. Its impact on children is equally worrying. Over 100,000 children below the age of five die due to bad air in the country. While India was one of the first countries to pledge the phasing out of non-electric vehicles, its national scheme to promote the sale of e-vehicles is yet to pick up. Against the target of 15-16 million e-vehicles by 2020, the county had 0.28 million vehicles till May 2019.
State of development – Climate change poses the biggest economic threat in the world today and features prominently in the UN Sustainable Development Goals 2030. With just 10 years to go, India is yet to identify indicators to track its climate change preparedness. Of the 13 SDGs the country is tracking, indicators exist for only a handful of the targets.
State of water – Both surface and groundwater in the country are under stress. 86 water bodies are critically polluted. The bulk of the polluted water bodies are in Karnataka, Telangana and Kerala. One of the reasons is the substantial increase (136 per cent) in the number of grossly polluting industries between 2011 and 2018. Groundwater is also reeling under overexploitation, which is running 94.5 per cent of all minor irrigation schemes in the country. There has been an unsustainable increase in the number of deep tubewells that has gone up by 80 per cent between 2006-07 and 2013-14.
State of land and agriculture – India’s farm sector is under duress. While the input costs for major crops are rising, the average farmland size is shrinking. Even the share of the insured cropped area stands at a dismal 26 per cent.
State of Health – India’s rural health infrastructure is ailing. There is a 35 per cent shortfall in the number of 24×7 public health centres, where 26 per cent of the positions for medical officers are lying vacant. In fact, Kerala does not have a single 24×7 public health centre. Another worrying trend is that the number of new doctors qualifying every year in the country has decreased by 60 per cent between 2013 and 2017. The country also shares the world’s largest absolute burden of at least 11 major neglected tropical diseases, which includes diseases like dengue.
State of cities – By 2050, India is projected to add 416 million urban dwellers to the world’s urban population and will be home to about 58 per cent of the total global population. Keeping this in mind, India in 2015-16 announced its ambitious plan of creating 100 smart cities. Four years later, only 21 per cent of the allocated funds for the smart cities have been spent. In the meanwhile, most urban cities have a sizeable population living in slums, which are unfit for habitation. India has 2,613 towns with slums. Of them, 57 per cent are in Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka and Maharashtra.
State of waste – The burden of solid waste is becoming unmanageable. In fact, 79 major protests against unsanitary landfills and dump yards have been recorded in 22 states in the past three years. Maharashtra, which registered 16 major protests, leaves 43 per cent of its waste unprocessed. While India claims to process 96 per cent of its biomedical waste, eight states and UTs have defaulting hospitals. The country has also recorded a 56 per cent increase in the number of hazardous-waste generating industries between 2009 and 2016-17. At the same time, most of these industries are not properly maintaining their waste inventory, as mandated by the law.
State of energy – India’s natural gas and hydro-based power plants are in shambles. Gas-based plants are running at 24 per cent of their capacity due to the acute shortage of domestic natural gas. Hydropower projects, on the other hand, are running at just 19 per cent of their capacity and their share in total installed capacity has consistently declined since 1962. The country’s progress in renewable energy in 2018-19 has also been dismal. In wind, the country met only 6.3 per cent of the target this year. In solar, it met 5.86 per cent.
State of climate – There has been a 22 per cent increase in India’s greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions between 2010 and 2014. This has been fuelled by the energy sector, which is responsible for 73 per cent of the total GHG emissions. Besides, India phased out ozone depleting substances such as chlorofluorocarbon by 2011, it shifted to substances such as hydrochlorofluorocarbon, which have high globalwarming potential. India continues to bear the brunt of extreme weather events. In 2018, 11 states recorded major extreme weather events that claimed 1,425 lives.
State of forests – India has recently shifted to a powerful forest fire monitoring and alert system, SNPP-VIIRS, which can capture forest fires with better accuracy and precision. In April 2019, the new technology recorded 69,523 forest fires, which was 9.5 times more than that recorded by the earlier technology.
State of wildlife – 37 species were poached or seized in 2018. Of these, 13, including lion, marked an increase over the last year; 161 wild animals were also killed due to road and train accidents
State of employment – India has witnessed a 1.9 times increase in the unemployment rate in the past two years. This has especially affected the youth and the educated. Unemployment rate among people with at least a graduate degree was 13.17 per cent in September-December 2018, up from 10.39 per cent in May-August 2017.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Himalayan Ibex:
- Recently, study by the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) has proved that Himalayan Ibex is a subspecies of the Siberian Ibex
- It is endemic to India
- It is distributed mainly in the trans-Himalayan ranges of the Union Territories of Ladakh and Jammu and Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
A recent study by scientists of the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) has proved that Himalayan Ibex, distributed in the trans-Himalayan ranges of Jammu and Kashmir, Ladakh and Himachal Pradesh, is a distinct species from the Siberian Ibex.
The paper, ‘Genetic evidence for allopatric speciation of the Siberian Ibex (Capra sibirica) in India,’ has recently been published in Endangered Species Research, an international peer-reviewed journal.
They are found in the western Himalaya in Pakistan and India, usually at elevations of 3800m and higher.
Siberian Ibex is a species of wild goat and is distributed in diverse habitats, ranging from cold deserts, rocky outcrops, steep terrain, high-land flats and mountain ridges to low mountains and foothills.
From Mongolia, its distribution extends towards Altai, Hangai, Gobi-Altai, the Hurukh mountain ranges as well as Sayan Mountains near Russia and scattered populations in the small mountains of Trans-Altai Gobi.
In Asia, Ibex is distributed in the Montane habitats, ranging in elevations from 500 m to 6,700 m in countries like India, Kazakhstan, Tajikistan, Mongolia, Pakistan, Southern Siberia and China. In India, the Ibex is distributed mainly in the trans-Himalayan ranges of the Union Territories of Ladakh and Jammu and Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh up to the river Sutlej.
Incorrect
Solution: C
A recent study by scientists of the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) has proved that Himalayan Ibex, distributed in the trans-Himalayan ranges of Jammu and Kashmir, Ladakh and Himachal Pradesh, is a distinct species from the Siberian Ibex.
The paper, ‘Genetic evidence for allopatric speciation of the Siberian Ibex (Capra sibirica) in India,’ has recently been published in Endangered Species Research, an international peer-reviewed journal.
They are found in the western Himalaya in Pakistan and India, usually at elevations of 3800m and higher.
Siberian Ibex is a species of wild goat and is distributed in diverse habitats, ranging from cold deserts, rocky outcrops, steep terrain, high-land flats and mountain ridges to low mountains and foothills.
From Mongolia, its distribution extends towards Altai, Hangai, Gobi-Altai, the Hurukh mountain ranges as well as Sayan Mountains near Russia and scattered populations in the small mountains of Trans-Altai Gobi.
In Asia, Ibex is distributed in the Montane habitats, ranging in elevations from 500 m to 6,700 m in countries like India, Kazakhstan, Tajikistan, Mongolia, Pakistan, Southern Siberia and China. In India, the Ibex is distributed mainly in the trans-Himalayan ranges of the Union Territories of Ladakh and Jammu and Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh up to the river Sutlej.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Renewable Energy Management Centres (REMC):
- They are equipped with artificial intelligence-based Renewable Energy forecasting and scheduling tools.
- REMCs are being managed by the Power Grid Corporation of India Limited (POWERGRID) at the regional and national level
- Union Government had mandated the Power System Operation Corporation of India Ltd (POSOCO) as the implementing agency for setting up of REMCs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The Government of India’s target of 175 GW RE Capacity by 2022 driving accelerated RE penetration poses challenges to the grid management due to intermittent and variable nature of RE generation. The renewable energy management centers are equipped with Artificial Intelligence based RE forecasting and scheduling tools and provide greater visualization and enhanced situational awareness to the grid operators. The Renewable Energy Management Centers (REMCs) are co-located with the State Load DispatchCenters (SLDCs) in Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat & Rajasthan and in RLDCs at Bengaluru, Mumbai and New Delhi and at the NLDC. Presently, 55 GW of Renewable (Solar and Wind) is being monitored through the eleven REMCs.
Government of India had approved the implementation of the REMCs as a Central Scheme and had mandated POWERGRID, a Maharatna CPSE under Ministry of Power as Implementing Agency.
These REMCs are being managed by Power System Operation Corporation of India Ltd. (POSOCO) at Regional and National level and at State level by State Load DespatchCentres (SLDCs).
Incorrect
Solution: A
The Government of India’s target of 175 GW RE Capacity by 2022 driving accelerated RE penetration poses challenges to the grid management due to intermittent and variable nature of RE generation. The renewable energy management centers are equipped with Artificial Intelligence based RE forecasting and scheduling tools and provide greater visualization and enhanced situational awareness to the grid operators. The Renewable Energy Management Centers (REMCs) are co-located with the State Load DispatchCenters (SLDCs) in Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat & Rajasthan and in RLDCs at Bengaluru, Mumbai and New Delhi and at the NLDC. Presently, 55 GW of Renewable (Solar and Wind) is being monitored through the eleven REMCs.
Government of India had approved the implementation of the REMCs as a Central Scheme and had mandated POWERGRID, a Maharatna CPSE under Ministry of Power as Implementing Agency.
These REMCs are being managed by Power System Operation Corporation of India Ltd. (POSOCO) at Regional and National level and at State level by State Load DespatchCentres (SLDCs).
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Geo Imaging Satellite (GISAT-1):
- It is the first state-of-the-art agile Earth observation satellite which will be placed in a Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit.
- Gisat-1 will facilitate near real time observation of the Indian subcontinent, under cloud free condition, at frequent intervals
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The launch of GISAT-1 onboard GSLV-F10, planned for March 05, 2020, is postponed due to technical reasons.
Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV-F10) will launch Geo Imaging Satellite (GISAT-1) from the Second Launch Pad of Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) SHAR, Sriharikota.
Weighing about 2268 kg, GISAT-1 is the first state-of-the-art agile Earth observation satellite which will be placed in a Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit by GSLV-F10. Subsequently, the satellite will reach the final geostationary orbit using its onboard propulsion system.
A 4 metre diameter Ogive shaped payload fairing is being flown for the first time in this GSLV flight. This is the fourteenth flight of the GSLV.
Operating from geostationary orbit, GISAT-1 will facilitate near real time observation of the Indian sub-continent, under cloud free condition, at frequent intervals.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The launch of GISAT-1 onboard GSLV-F10, planned for March 05, 2020, is postponed due to technical reasons.
Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV-F10) will launch Geo Imaging Satellite (GISAT-1) from the Second Launch Pad of Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) SHAR, Sriharikota.
Weighing about 2268 kg, GISAT-1 is the first state-of-the-art agile Earth observation satellite which will be placed in a Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit by GSLV-F10. Subsequently, the satellite will reach the final geostationary orbit using its onboard propulsion system.
A 4 metre diameter Ogive shaped payload fairing is being flown for the first time in this GSLV flight. This is the fourteenth flight of the GSLV.
Operating from geostationary orbit, GISAT-1 will facilitate near real time observation of the Indian sub-continent, under cloud free condition, at frequent intervals.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsSonali deposited Rs.6000 which amounted to Rs.6900 after 3 years at simple interest. Had the interest been 3 % more per annum. She would get how much as interest amount after the end of three years?
Correct
Solution: D
Total interest after 3 years Sonali received = Rs 900
Therefore, interest per year = 300
Therefore, rate of interest = 5 %
Now, if interest 3 % more, then rate of interest = 8 %
Therefore, simple interest earned after three years = (PTR/100)
Where P = Principal, T = Time period, R = Rate of interest
Thus, interest amount = (6000 * 3 * 8)/100
= 60 * 3 * 8
= 180 * 8
= Rs 1440
Incorrect
Solution: D
Total interest after 3 years Sonali received = Rs 900
Therefore, interest per year = 300
Therefore, rate of interest = 5 %
Now, if interest 3 % more, then rate of interest = 8 %
Therefore, simple interest earned after three years = (PTR/100)
Where P = Principal, T = Time period, R = Rate of interest
Thus, interest amount = (6000 * 3 * 8)/100
= 60 * 3 * 8
= 180 * 8
= Rs 1440
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsSharath borrowed Rs. 5 lakh from a bank to purchase one car. If the rate of interest be 6% per annum compounded annually, what payment he will have to make after 2 years 6 months?
Correct
Solution: C
CI for 2 years 6 months at the rate of 6, applying the net% effect for first 2 years
= 6 + 6 + (6 * 6)/100 = 12.36%
Rate of interest for 6 months = (6/12) * 6 = 3%
For next 6 months = 12.36 + 3 + (12.36 * 3) /100 = 15.36 + 0.37% = 15.73%
Here, we can see that in 2 years 6 months the given compound rate of interest is approximate 15.73%.Now, 115.73% of 500000 = (115.73 * 500000)/100 = 578650
Incorrect
Solution: C
CI for 2 years 6 months at the rate of 6, applying the net% effect for first 2 years
= 6 + 6 + (6 * 6)/100 = 12.36%
Rate of interest for 6 months = (6/12) * 6 = 3%
For next 6 months = 12.36 + 3 + (12.36 * 3) /100 = 15.36 + 0.37% = 15.73%
Here, we can see that in 2 years 6 months the given compound rate of interest is approximate 15.73%.Now, 115.73% of 500000 = (115.73 * 500000)/100 = 578650
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsRamya took a loan of Rs. 2400 with simple interest for as many years as the rate of interest. If she paid Rs. 864 as interest at the end of the loan period, what was the rate of interest?
Correct
Solution: C
Let the rate of interest = R% and time period = R years.
Simple Interest, SI = PTR/100Where P = Principal, T = Time period, R = Rate of interest
Then, ( 2400 x R x R / 100 ) = 864
24 R² = 864Or R² = 864/24 = 36
Or R =6
Incorrect
Solution: C
Let the rate of interest = R% and time period = R years.
Simple Interest, SI = PTR/100Where P = Principal, T = Time period, R = Rate of interest
Then, ( 2400 x R x R / 100 ) = 864
24 R² = 864Or R² = 864/24 = 36
Or R =6
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsA sum of money deposited at certain rate of Compound Interest amounts to Rs.5400 in 2 years and to Rs.5940 in 3 years. Find the rate percent?
Correct
Solution: A
As there is difference of time period is one year, we can calculate the compound interest by calculating additional amount incurred in last one year.
The deposit amount after 2 years = Rs.5400
The deposit amount after 3 years = Rs. 5940
The difference amount is Rs 540
Therefore, rate of compound interest = 540/5400 * 100
= 10 %
Incorrect
Solution: A
As there is difference of time period is one year, we can calculate the compound interest by calculating additional amount incurred in last one year.
The deposit amount after 2 years = Rs.5400
The deposit amount after 3 years = Rs. 5940
The difference amount is Rs 540
Therefore, rate of compound interest = 540/5400 * 100
= 10 %
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsDirections for the following (one) item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follow. Your answer to this item should be based on the passage only.
Governments need to be generous in supporting international humanitarian agencies, whether with food or funds. Stepping-up supply of food to countries worst-hit by the hunger crisis is necessary. While this will help ease the symptoms of the crisis, it will not address its underlying causes. The latter is necessary to address the problem of food insecurity in the world. Humanitarian food aid is important but simultaneously, we need to put in place medium and long-term strategies to address conflict and climate shocks.Which of the following is the most logical, critical and rational inference that can be drawn from the above passage?Correct
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The passage states that humanitarian aid is important but other steps are also required for ending hunger. D appears correct but A is the more logical and critical choice because the passage harps on the importance of medium and long term steps required for addressing hunger which is captured by A. Hence A is the correct answer.Incorrect
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The passage states that humanitarian aid is important but other steps are also required for ending hunger. D appears correct but A is the more logical and critical choice because the passage harps on the importance of medium and long term steps required for addressing hunger which is captured by A. Hence A is the correct answer.










