DAY – 19(InstaTest-19): Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2020: Topic – Polity, Subject-wise Test 18, Text book based Test 15, November-2019 CA

Solution: B

The Eurasian Economic Union (EAEU) was established in January 2015 and was aimed at creating a shared economic space with a single customs union and integrating states into a new cohesive economic entity. A more advanced iteration of the Eurasian Customs Union, founded in 2010 with Russia, Belarus, and Kazakhstan, the EAEU was established when Armenia and Kyrgyzstan joined on January 2, 2015 and August 6, 2015, respectively. 

While the EAEU is the first such economic union in the post-Soviet space, countries outside the region, such as Iran and Mongolia, are also being courted to join.

While Russia’s primary aim of Eurasian integration has been to more effectively project its power globally, other member states have been less interested in pursuing deep integration. This is evident from the significant institutional deficiencies within the EAEU, most notably, the lack of common Eurasian Economic institutions which render the organization ineffective in the medium to long term.

https://www.evnreport.com/understanding-the-region/fact-sheet-what-is-the-eurasian-economic-union

Solution: D

Law commission of India

The Union Cabinet has approved the creation of the 22nd Law Commission. The law ministry will now notify the new panel, which will have a term of three years.

Composition:

1. Apart from having a full-time chairperson, the commission will have four full-time members, including a member-secretary.
2. Law and Legislative Secretaries in the Law Ministry will be the ex-officio members of the commission.
3. It will also have not more than five part-time members.
4. A retired Supreme Court judge or Chief Justice of a High Court will head the Commission.

Roles and functions:

1. The Law Commission shall, on a reference made to it by the Central Government or suo motu, undertake research in law and review of existing laws in India for making reforms and enacting new legislation.
2. It shall also undertake studies and research for bringing reforms in the justice delivery systems for elimination of delay in procedures, speedy disposal of cases, reduction in cost of litigation, etc.

About the law commission of India:

It is an executive body established by an order of the Government of India.

• Originally formed in 1955, the commission is reconstituted every three years and so far, 277 reports have been submitted to the government.
• The last Law Commission, under Justice B.S. Chauhan (retd.), had submitted reports and working papers on key issues such as simultaneous elections to the Lok Sabha and the Assemblies and a uniform civil code.

Prior to independence, the First Law Commission was established in 1834 by the British Government under the Chairmanship of Lord Macaulay.

It suggested various enactments to the British Government, most of which were passed and enacted and are still in force in India. Few of the most important recommendations made by this First Law Commission was on Indian Penal Code (first submitted in 1837 but enacted in 1860 and still in force).

Thereafter three more Law Commissions were established which made a number of other recommendations the Indian Evidence Act (1872) and Indian Contract Act (1872), etc. being some of the significant ones.

Solution: A

Central Consumer Protection Authority

The government is all set to establish a Central Consumer Protection Authority.

What is the Central Consumer Protection Authority?

The authority is being constituted under Section 10(1) of The Consumer Protection Act, 2019.

Aim: To protect the rights of the consumer by cracking down on unfair trade practices, and false and misleading advertisements that are detrimental to the interests of the public and consumers.

It will be headquartered in the National Capital Region of Delhi but the central government may set up regional offices in other parts of the country.

Powers and Functions:

• Inquire or investigate into matters relating to violations of consumer rights or unfair trade practices suo motu, or on a complaint received, or on a direction from the central government.
• Recall goods or withdrawal of services that are “dangerous, hazardous or unsafe.
• Pass an order for refund the prices of goods or services so recalled to purchasers of such goods or services; discontinuation of practices which are unfair and prejudicial to consumer’s interest”.
• Impose a penalty up to Rs 10 lakh, with imprisonment up to two years, on the manufacturer or endorser of false and misleading advertisements. The penalty may go up to Rs 50 lakh, with imprisonment up to five years, for every subsequent offence committed by the same manufacturer or endorser.
• Ban the endorser of a false or misleading advertisement from making endorsement of any products or services in the future, for a period that may extend to one year. The ban may extend up to three years in every subsequent violation of the Act.
• File complaints of violation of consumer rights or unfair trade practices before the District Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission, State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission, and the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission.

Composition:

• It will have a Chief Commissioner as head, and only two other commissioners as members — one of whom will deal with matters relating to goods while the other will look into cases relating to services.
• The CCPA will have an Investigation Wing that will be headed by a Director General.
• District Collectors too, will have the power to investigate complaints of violations of consumer rights, unfair trade practices, and false or misleading advertisements.

Solution: D

Concessional Finance Scheme (CFS)

Under it, government has been supporting Indian Entities bidding for strategically important infrastructure projects abroad since 2015-16. Since the objectives of the Scheme continue to be relevant, it is proposed to extend the Scheme for another five years from 2018 to 2023.

Implementation Strategy and Targets:

Under the Scheme, MEA selects the specific projects keeping in view strategic interest of India and sends the same to Department of Economic Affairs (DEA).

The strategic importance of a project to deserve financing under this Scheme, is decided, on a case to case basis, by a Committee chaired by Secretary, DEA and with members from Department of Expenditure, Ministry of External Affairs, Department of Industrial Promotion and Policy (DIPP), Department of Commerce, Department of Financial Services and Ministry of Home Affairs. The Deputy National Security Adviser is also a member of this Committee. Once approved by the Committee, DEA issues a formal letter to EXIM Bank conveying approval for financing of the project under CFS.

The Scheme is presently being operated through the Export-Import Bank of India, which raises resources from the market to provide concessional finance. Government of India (GoI) provides counter guarantee and interest equalization support of 2% to the EXIM Bank.

https://pib.gov.in/Pressreleaseshare.aspx?PRID=1541088

Solution: C

North Eastern Council

The North Eastern Council is the nodal agency for the economic and social development of the North Eastern Region which consists of the eight States of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim and Tripura.

• NEC was established under the North Eastern Council Act, 1971 as an apex level body for securing balanced and coordinated development and facilitating coordination with the States.

The NEC Act was amended by the Parliament in 2002 (Act No. 68 of 2002). The ‘North Eastern Areas’ now means the area comprising the States of Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Tripura, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Mizoram. The Council now has as its members the Governors of the States mentioned above, the Chief Ministers of the said States and three Members nominated by the President.

• Subsequent to the Amendment of 2002, NEC has been mandated to function as a regional planning body for the North Eastern Area and while formulating a regional plan for this area, shall give priority to the schemes and projects benefiting two or more states provided that in the case of Sikkim, the Council shall formulate specific projects and schemes for that State.
• The Union Cabinet, in June 2018, approved the proposal of Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER) for the nomination of the Union Home Minister as ex-officio Chairman of North Eastern Council (NEC). The Cabinet also approved that Minister of State (Independent Charge), Ministry of DoNER would serve as Vice Chairman of the Council.
• NEC and all the Governors and Chief Ministers of North Eastern States will be Members.

Extra Learning:

The North Eastern Region Vision 2020 Document was brought out by NEC and accepted and signed by all the Members of the Council in the 56th Plenary of the NEC on 13th May 2008 at Agartala, Tripura. It was later unveiled by the Government in July, 2008 at New Delhi. Subsequently, seventeen thematic groups incorporating sector experts were constituted by this Ministry to develop specific action plans to operationalize the Vision 2020 Document.

The North Eastern Region Community Resource Management Project (NERCORMP) a sustainable Livelihood Project is the Flagship Programme of NEC, with support from International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD).

Solution: B

Office of Profit

If an MLA or an MP holds a government office and receives benefits from it, then that office is termed as an “office of profit”.

A person will be disqualified if he holds an office of profit under the central or state government, other than an office declared not to disqualify its holder by a law passed by Parliament or state legislature.

What are the basic criteria to disqualify an MP or MLA?

Basic disqualification criteria for an MP are laid down in Article 102 of the Constitution, and for an MLA in Article 191.

They can be disqualified for: a) Holding an office of profit under government of India or state government; b) Being of unsound mind; c) Being an undischarged insolvent; d) Not being an Indian citizen or for acquiring citizenship of another country.

What is the underlying principle for including ‘office of profit’ as criterion for disqualification?

Makers of the Constitution wanted that legislators should not feel obligated to the Executive in any way, which could influence them while discharging legislative functions. In other words, an MP or MLA should be free to carry out her duties without any kind of governmental pressure. The intent is that there should be no conflict between the duties and interests of an elected member.

The office of profit law simply seeks to enforce a basic feature of the Constitution- the principle of separation of power between the legislature and the executive.

Reason for controversies:

1. The expression “office of profit” has not been defined in the Constitution or in the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
2. It is for the courts to explain the significance and meaning of this concept. Over the years, courts have decided this issue in the context of specific factual situations.

Extra Learning:

According to the definition, what constitutes an ‘office of profit’?

The law does not clearly define what constitutes an office of profit but the definition has evolved over the years with interpretations made in various court judgments. An office of profit has been interpreted to be a position that brings to the office-holder some financial gain, or advantage, or benefit. The amount of such profit is immaterial.

In 1964, the Supreme Court ruled that the test for determining whether a person holds an office of profit is the test of appointment. Several factors are considered in this determination including factors such as: (i) whether the government is the appointing authority, (ii) whether the government has the power to terminate the appointment, (iii) whether the government determines the remuneration, (iv) what is the source of remuneration, and (v) the power that comes with the position.

https://www.prsindia.org/theprsblog/explained-law-holding-%E2%80%98office-profit%E2%80%99

Solution: C

Bishnoi tribe present in Rajasthan and consider trees as sacred and protect the entire ecosystem.

Chechu tribe lives in Andhra Pradesh involved in tiger conservation at Nagarjunasagar Srisailam Tiger Reserve (NSTR).
Maldhari Tribe lives in Gujarat and the success of lion conservation in Gir forest area is due to
peaceful coexistence of tribe with lions
Bugun Tribe lives in Arunachal Pradesh. The tribe using Community-led conservation initiatives and traditional knowledge helped to protect the critically endangered bird
Nyishi tribe lives in Arunachal Pradesh and known for conserving hornbills in the Pakke/Pakhui Tiger Reserve.

Solution: D

The Election Commission is a permanent and an independent body
established by the Constitution of India directly to ensure free and fair
elections in the country. Article 324 of the Constitution provides that the
power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to parliament,
state legislatures, the office of president of India and the office of vice president of India shall be vested in the election commission. Thus, the Election Commission is an all-India body in the sense that it is common to
both the Central government and the state governments.

It must be noted here that the election commission is not concerned with
the elections to panchayats and muncipalities in the states. For this, the
Constitution of India provides for a separate State Election Commission

Article 324 of the Constitution has made the following provisions with regard to the composition of election commission:

• The Election Commission shall consist of the chief election commissioner and such number of other election commissioners, if any, as the president may from time to time fix.
• The conditions of service and tenure of office of the election commissioners and the regional commissioners shall be determined by the president.
• The chief election commissioner and the two other election commissioners have equal powers and receive equal salary, allowances and other perquisites, which are similar to those of a judge of the Supreme Court. In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and/or two other election commissioners, the matter is decided by the Commission by majority.
• They hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. They can resign at any time or can also be removed before the expiry of their term.

Solution: D

The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is the central recruiting
agency in India. It is an independent constitutional body in the sense that
it has been directly created by the Constitution. Articles 315 to 323 in Part
XIV of the Constitution contain elaborate provisions regarding the
composition, appointment and removal of members along with the
independence, powers and functions of the UPSC

Independence

The Constitution has made the following provisions to safeguard and ensure the independent and impartial functioning of the UPSC:

(a) The chairman or a member of the UPSC can be removed from office by the president only in the manner and on the grounds mentioned in the Constitution. Therefore, they enjoy security of tenure.

(b) The conditions of service of the chairman or a member, though determined by the president, cannot be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment.

(c) The entire expenses including the salaries, allowances and pensions of the chairman and members of the UPSC are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. Thus, they are not subject to vote of Parliament.

(d) The chairman of UPSC (on ceasing to hold office) is not eligible for further employment in the Government of India or a state.

(e) A member of UPSC (on ceasing to hold office) is eligible for appointment as the chairman of UPSC or a State Public Service Commission (SPSC), but not for any other employment in the Government of India or a state.

(f) The chairman or a member of UPSC is (after having completed his first term) not eligible for reappointment to that office (i.e., not eligible for second term).

Solution: D

The Bharat Ratna is the highest civilian award of the Republic of India. Instituted in 2 January 1954, the award is conferred “in recognition of exceptional service/performance of the highest order”, without distinction of race, occupation, position, or sex.

The award was originally limited to achievements in the arts, literature, science, and public services, but the government expanded the criteria to include “any field of human endeavour” in December 2011.

The recommendations for the Bharat Ratna are made by the Prime Minister to the President, with a maximum of three nominees being awarded per year.

Recipients receive a Sanad (certificate) signed by the President and a peepal-leaf–shaped medallion; there is no monetary grant associated with the award. Bharat Ratna recipients rank seventh in the Indian order of precedence.

Though usually conferred on India-born citizens, the Bharat Ratna has been awarded to one naturalised citizen, Mother Teresa, and to two non-Indians, Pakistan national Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan and former South African President Nelson Mandela.

On 25 January 2019, the government announced the award to social activist Nanaji Deshmukh (posthumously), singer-music director Bhupen Hazarika (posthumously) and to former President of India Pranab Mukherjee.

Solution: D

Article 280 of the Constitution of India provides for a Finance
Commission as a quasi-judicial body. It is constituted by the president
of India every fifth year or at such earlier time as he considers necessary.

The Finance Commission consists of a chairman and four other members to be appointed by the president. They hold office for such period as specified by the president in his order. They are eligible for reappointment.

The Constitution authorizes the Parliament to determine the qualifications of members of the commission and the manner in which they should be selected. Accordingly, the Parliament has specified the qualifications of the chairman and members of the commission. The chairman should be a person having experience in public affairs and the four other members should be selected from amongst the following:

1. A judge of high court or one qualified to be appointed as one.
2. A person who has specialized knowledge of finance and accounts of the government.
3. A person who has wide experience in financial matters and in administration.
4. A person who has special knowledge of economics.

Solution: B

The 101st Amendment Act of 2016 paved the way for the introduction of a new tax regime (i.e. goods and services tax – GST) in the country. The smooth and efficient administration of this tax requires co-operation and coordination between the center and the states. In order to facilitate this consultation process, the amendment provided for the establishment of a Goods and Services Tax Council or the GST Council.

The amendment inserted a new Article 279-A in the Constitution. This Article empowered the President to constitute a GST Council by an order. Accordingly, the President issued the order in 2016 and constituted the Council.

The Secretariat of the Council is located at New Delhi. The Union Revenue Secretary acts as the ex-officio Secretary to the Council.

Solution: C

Union Human Resource Development Minister recently reviewed preparations for PISA 2021. He instructed all the Deputy Commissioners to work hard to make India successful in this examination.

Background:

Cabinet has already given ex-post facto approval to the Agreement between India and the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) for participating in the Programme for International Students Assessment (PISA), which will be conducted by the OECD in 2021. The Agreement was signed on 28th January 2019.

India’s participation in PISA:

• India had taken part in Programme for International Student Assessment (PISA) in 2009 and bagged the 72nd rank among 74 participating countries.
• Then UPA government had boycotted PISA, blaming “out of context” questions for India’s dismal performance.
• Later, the HRD Ministry, under the NDA-II government, revisited this decision in 2016 and the Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan (KVS) had set up a committee to review the matter and submitted its report in December 2016.
• The report recommended for participation in test in 2018. However, India missed the application deadline for the 2018 cycle.

About the Program for International Student Assessment (PISA):

• It is an international assessment that measures 15-year-old students’ reading, mathematics, and science literacy every three years.
• First conducted in 2000, the major domain of study rotates between reading, mathematics, and science in each cycle.
• PISA also includes measures of general or cross-curricular competencies, such as collaborative problem solving.
• PISA is coordinated by the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD), an intergovernmental organization of industrialized countries, and is conducted in the United States by NCES.

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/11/01/programme-for-international-students-assessment-pisa/

Solution: A

National Commission for Scheduled Castes (SCs):

The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (SCs) is a constitutional
body in the sense that it is directly established by Article 338 of the
Constitution.

The Commission is also required to discharge similar functions with regard to the Anglo-Indian Community as it does with respect to the SCs. In other words, the Commission has to investigate all matters relating to the constitutional and other legal safeguards for the Anglo-Indian Community and report to the President upon their working.

Till 2018, the commission was also required to discharge similar functions with regard to the other backward classes (OBCs). It was relieved from this responsibility by the 102^nd Amendment Act of 2018.

Solution: A

Originally, the Constitution of India did not make any provision with
respect to the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. Later, the
States Reorganisation Commission (1953-55) made a recommendation in this
regard. Accordingly, the Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956
inserted a new Article 350-B in Part XVII of the Constitution. This article
contains the following provisions:
1. There should be a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. He is to be
appointed by the President of India.
2. It would be the duty of the Special Officer to investigate all matters
relating to the safeguards provided for linguistic minorities under the
Constitution3. He would report to the President upon those matters at such
intervals as the President may direct. The President should place all such
reports before each House of Parliament and send to the governments of
the states concerned.

The Constitution does not specify the qualifications, tenure, salaries and allowances, service conditions and procedure for removal of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities

Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities

The Commissioner takes up all the matters pertaining to the grievances arising out of the non-implementation of the Constitutional and Nationally Agreed Scheme of Safeguards provided to linguistic minorities that come to its notice or are brought to its knowledge by the linguistic minority individuals, groups, associations or organizations at the highest political and administrative levels of the state governments and UT administrations and recommends remedial actions to be taken.

To promote and preserve linguistic minority groups, the Ministry of Minority Affairs has requested the State Governments / Union Territories to give wide publicity to the constitutional safeguards provided to linguistic minorities and to take necessary administrative measures. The state governments and UT Administrations were urged to accord priority to the implementation of the scheme of safeguards for linguistic minorities. The Commissioner launched a 10-point programme to lend fresh impetus to Governmental efforts towards the preservation of the language and culture of linguistic minorities.

Solution: B

Electoral bonds worth ₹232 crore were sold in October, taking the total number of bonds sold from March 2018 till October 2019 to 12,313 and the total value to ₹6,128 crore, according to data shared by the Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR). Mumbai had the highest amount of bonds at ₹1,880 crore, followed by Kolkata at ₹1,440 crore, Delhi at ₹919 crore and Hyderabad at ₹838 crore, while all other cities accounted for ₹1,051 crore from March 2018 till October 2019.

About Electoral bonds:

What are electoral bonds? Bonds that allow donors to pay political parties using banks as an intermediary.

Key features:

• Although called a bond, the banking instrument resembling promissory notes will not carry any interest.
• It will be a bearer instrument.
• It will not carry the name of the payee.
• It can be bought for any value, in multiples of Rs 1,000, Rs 10,000, Rs 1 lakh, Rs 10 lakh or Rs 1 crore.

Eligibility:

• May be purchased by a citizen of India, or entities incorporated or established in India.
• A person being an individual can buy electoral bonds, either singly or jointly with other individuals.
• Only the registered Political Parties which have secured not less than one per cent of the votes polled in the last Lok Sabha elections or the State Legislative Assembly are eligible to receive the Electoral Bonds.

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/11/02/electoral-bond-scheme-7/

Solution: B

Article 350 B of the Constitution provides for the appointment by President of a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.

It shall be the duty of the Special Officer to investigate all matters relating to the safeguards provided for linguistic minorities under this Constitution and report to the President upon those matters at such intervals as the President may direct, and the President shall cause all such reports to be laid before each House of Parliament, and sent to the Governments of the States concerned. Hence, Option B is correct.

Solution: A

National Human Rights Commission

The National Human Rights Commission is a statutory body. It was established in 1993 under a legislation enacted by the Parliament, namely, the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. This Act was amended in 2006.

The commission is the watchdog of human rights in the country, that is, the
rights relating to life, liberty, equality and dignity of the individual
guaranteed by the Constitution or embodied in the international covenants
and enforceable by courts in India.

The commission is not empowered to inquire into any matter after the expiry of one year from the date on which the act constituting violation of human rights is alleged to have been committed. In other words, it can look into a matter within one year of its occurrence.

The functions of the commission are mainly recommendatory in nature. It has no power to punish the violators of human rights, nor to award any relief including monetary relief to the victim. Notably, its recommendations are not binding on the concerned government or authority. But, it should be informed about the action taken on its recommendations within one month.

Solution: C

Ugadi – The festival is celebrated in the state of Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh, in the month of March-April

Gudi Padwa          – Maharashtra

Baisakhi – Baisakhi is the harvest festival, celebrated by people of Punjab. Baisakhi also stands as the day of the formation of the Sikh Khalsa.

Bohag Bihu – Assamese New Year

Puthandu – Tamil Nadu

Pohela Boishakh – Bengali New Year Pohela Boishakh is also celebrated by tribal people in hilly regions of Tripura and also in cities of other countries.

Solution: A

The Central Information Commission was established by the Central
Government in 2005. It was constituted through an Official Gazette
Notification under the provisions of the Right to Information Act (2005).
Hence, it is not a constitutional body.

The Central Information Commission is a high-powered independent body
which inter alia looks into the complaints made to it and decides the appeals. It
entertains complaints and appeals pertaining to offices, financial institutions,
public sector undertakings, etc., under the Central Government and the Union
Territories.

The Commission consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than ten Information Commissioners. The Commission, when constituted initially, had five commissioners including the Chief Information Commissioner. At present (2019), the Commission has six Information Commissioners apart from the Chief Information Commissioner.

They are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister. They should be persons of eminence in public life with wide knowledge and experience in law, science and technology, social service, management, journalism, mass media or administration and governance.

They should not be a Member of Parliament or Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory. They should not hold any other office of profit or connected with any political party or carrying on any business or pursuing any profession.

Solution: A

SATAT initiative has the potential of addressing environmental problems arising from stubble burning. The viability is based on techno commercial factors.

About the initiative:

• Petroleum Ministry has launched SATAT initiative to promote Compressed Bio-Gas (CBG) as an alternative, green transport fuel
• The initiative is aimed at providing a Sustainable Alternative towards Affordable Transportation (SATAT) as a developmental effort that would benefit both vehicle-users as well as farmers and entrepreneurs.
• Compressed Bio-Gas plants are proposed to be set up mainly through independent entrepreneurs.
• The programme will be funded under Solid and Liquid Waste Management (SLWM) component of Swachh Bharat Mission-Gramin (SBM-G) to benefit households in identified villages through Gram Panchayats.

How it works?

• CBG produced at these plants will be transported through cascades of cylinders to the fuel station networks of OMCs for marketing as a green transport fuel alternative.
• The entrepreneurs would be able to separately market the other by-products from these plants, including bio-manure, carbon-dioxide, etc., to enhance returns on investment.
• This initiative is expected to generate direct employment for 75,000 people and produce 50 million tonnes of bio-manure for crops.

What is Bio- Gas?

Bio-gas is produced naturally through a process of anaerobic decomposition from waste / bio-mass sources like agriculture residue, cattle dung, sugarcane press mud, municipal solid waste, sewage treatment plant waste, etc. After purification, it is compressed and called CBG, which has pure methane content of over 95%.

What is CBG?

Compressed Bio-Gas is exactly similar to the commercially available natural gas in its composition and energy potential. With calorific value (~52,000 KJ/kg) and other properties similar to CNG, Compressed Bio-Gas can be used as an alternative, renewable automotive fuel.

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/11/28/sustainable-alternative-towards-affordable-transportation-satat-initiative-3/

Solution: A

The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was set up in 1963 by a resolution of the Ministry of Home Affairs. Later, it was transferred to the Ministry of Personnel and now it enjoys the status of an attached office. The Special Police Establishment (which looked into vigilance cases) setup in 1941 was also merged with the CBI.

The establishment of the CBI was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–1964).

The CBI is not a statutory body. It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.

Solution: D

Context: RBI Deputy Governor MK Jain has expressed concerns over growing non- performing assets (NPAs) in Mudra category.

Why the concern?

Non-performing assets ratio or bad loans as a percentage of MUDRA loans were at 2.68% in 2018-19, up 16 basis points from 2.52% in the previous year. These loan NPAs were at 2.89% in 2016-17. Of the 182.60 million MUDRA loans sanctioned, 3.63 million accounts defaulted as on 31 March.

About the Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY) scheme:

The PMMY Scheme was launched in April, 2015. The scheme’s objective is to refinance collateral-free loans given by the lenders to small borrowers.

• The scheme, which has a corpus of Rs 20,000 crore, can lend between Rs 50,000 and Rs 10 lakh to small entrepreneurs.
• Banks and MFIs can draw refinance under the MUDRA Scheme after becoming member-lending institutions of MUDRA.
• Mudra Loans are available for non-agricultural activities upto Rs. 10 lakh and activities allied to agriculture such as Dairy, Poultry, Bee Keeping etc, are also covered.
• Mudra’s unique features include a Mudra Card which permits access to Working Capital through ATMs and Card Machines.
• All commercial banks (Private or Public), RRB, Cooperative Bank or other Micro Finance Institutions are eligible for refinance under PM Mudra Yojana.

There are three types of loans under PMMY:

Shishu (up to Rs.50,000).

Kishore (from Rs.50,001 to Rs.5 lakh).

Tarun (from Rs.500,001 to Rs.10,00,000).

Objectives of the scheme:

• Fund the unfunded: Those who have a business plan to generate income from a non-farm activity like manufacturing, processing, trading or service sector but don’t have enough capital to invest can take loans up to Rs 10 lakh.
• Micro finance institutions (MFI) monitoring and regulation: With the help of MUDRA bank, the network of microfinance institutions will be monitored. New registration will also be done.
• Promote financial inclusion: With the aim to reach Last mile credit delivery to micro businesses taking help of technology solutions, it further adds to the vision of financial inclusion.
• Reduce jobless economic growth: Providing micro enterprises with credit facility will help generate employment sources and an overall increase in GDP.
• Integration of Informal economy into Formal sector: It will help India also grow its tax base as incomes from the informal sector are non-taxed.

Solution: A

The salient features of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act (2013) are as follows.

1. It seeks to establish the institution of the Lokpal at the Centre and the Lokayukta at the level of the State and thus seeks to provide a uniform vigilance and anti-corruption road map for the nation both at the Centre and at the States. The jurisdiction of Lokpal includes the Prime Minister, Ministers, Members of Parliament and Groups A, B, C and D officers and officials of the Central Government.
2. The Lokpal to consist of a Chairperson with a maximum of 8 members of which 50% shall be judicial members.
3. 50% of the members of the Lokpal shall come from amongst the SCs, the STs, the OBCs, minorities and women.
4. The selection of the Chairperson and the members of Lokpal shall be through a Selection Committee consisting of the Prime Minister, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, the Chief Justice of India or a sitting Supreme Court Judge nominated by the Chief Justice of India and an eminent jurist to be nominated by the President of India on the basis of recommendations of the first four members of the selection committee.
5. A Search Committee will assist the Selection Committee in the process of selection. 50% of the members of the Search Committee shall also be from amongst the SCs, the STs, the OBCs, minorities and women.
6. The Prime Minister has been brought under the purview of the Lokpal with subject matter exclusions and specific process for handling complaints against the Prime Minister.

Solution: C

Epidemic Disease Act, 1897:

The Epidemic Diseases Act is routinely enforced across the country for dealing with outbreaks of diseases such as swine flu, dengue, and cholera.

Provisions of the 1897 Epidemic Diseases Act

• The act aims to provide “for the better prevention of the spread of Dangerous Epidemic Diseases.”
• The act empowers state governments/UTs to take special measures and formulate regulations for containing the outbreak.

Section 2 of the Act empowers state governments/UTs to take special measures and formulate regulations to contain any outbreak. The Section says:

(1) When at any time the state government is satisfied that the state or any part thereof is visited by, or threatened with, an outbreak of any dangerous epidemic disease, the state government, if it thinks that the ordinary provisions of the law for the time being in force are insufficient for the purpose, may take, or require or empower any person to take, such measures and, by public notice, prescribe such temporary regulations to be observed by the public or by any person or class of persons as it shall deem necessary to prevent the outbreak of such disease or the spread thereof, and may determine in what manner and by whom any expenses incurred (including compensation if any) shall be defrayed.

(2) In particular and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing provisions, the state government may take measures and prescribe regulations for the inspection of persons travelling by railway or otherwise, and the segregation, in hospital, temporary accommodation or otherwise, of persons suspected by the inspecting officer of being infected with any such disease.

Section 3 is on penalty: “Any person disobeying any regulation or order made under this Act shall be deemed to have committed an offence punishable under section 188 of the Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860);

Section 4; Protection to persons acting under Act: “No suit or other legal proceeding shall lie against any person for anything done or in good faith intended to be done under this Act (legal protection to implement the Act).

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Solution: C

Let Cost Price = Rs. 100.
Then, Profit = Rs 150
Therefore, Selling Price = Rs. 250.
New Cost Price = 125% of Rs. 100 = Rs. 125
Since, Selling price remains same at Rs. 250
New Profit = Rs (250 – 125) = Rs. 125
Required percentage = (125/250) * 100
= 50 %

Solution: A

Cost Price of book = Rs 150

With 20 % profit, selling price = 120 * 150/100 = Rs 180.

Cost Price of new book will be Rs 180

With 5 % loss, selling price = (95/100) * 180 = (19/20) * 180

= 19 * 9 = Rs 171

Therefore, overall profit amount = New Selling price – original cost price

= 171 – 150 =  Rs 21.

Solution: C

It is given that, the Cost Price of 15 bananas = Rs. 12
Cost Price of 1 banana = Rs. 12/15
Cost Price of 12 bananas = Rs. (12 /15)* 12
= Rs. 144/15
= Rs. 48/ 5
Thus, Cost Price of 12 bananas = Rs. 48/ 5
It is given that, Selling Price of 12 bananas = Rs. 15
Therefore, Profit = (S.P – C.P) of 12 bananas
= 15- (48/5)
= (75- 48) / 5
= 27/ 5
Profit = Rs. 27/ 5
Profit Percent = (Profit/Cost Price of 12 bananas) * 100%
= (27/5) / (48/5) * 100%
= (27/48) * 100%
= 56.25%
Thus, profit percentage = 56.25%

Solution: D

Let the marked price be x.

It is given that, (70/100) * (80/100) * (90/100) * x = 2520 ( As there is successive discounts of 30%, 20% and 10%)

Or  7 * 8 * 9 * x/1000 =2520

Or x = (2520 * 1000)/(7 * 8 *  9)

Or x = (2520 * 1000) /(504)

Or x = 5 * 1000 = Rs 5000

Solution: B

Explanation:

A is wrong as it is a general statement and does present the crux of the passage.
C is wrong as the opening line of the passage says that people talk about democracy (or understand democracy) but they have a weakness favoring their caste or community or religion. D is wrong as it projects an extreme situation which is out of the scope of the passage.