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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Snow Leopard
- The snow leopard inhabits the higher Himalayan and trans-Himalayan landscape.
- It is categorized as Endangered by IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
First National Protocol to Enumerate Snow Leopard Population in India Launched.
It was launched on the occasion of International Snow Leopard Day.
Key facts:
- Listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
- Inhabit alpine and subalpine zones at elevations from 3,000 to 4,500 m (9,800 to 14,800 ft).
- State animal of Himachal Pradesh and the National Heritage Animal of Pakistan.
- Habitat extends through twelve countries: Afghanistan, Bhutan, China, India, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Mongolia, Nepal, Pakistan, Russia, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan. China contains as much as 60% of all snow leopard habitat areas.
- Listed on Appendix I of the Convention on International Trade of Endangered Species (CITES).
- Global Snow Leopard Forum, 2013:12 countries encompassing the snow leopard’s range (Afghanistan, Bhutan, China, India, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyz Republic, Mongolia, Nepal, Pakistan, Russia, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan).
- Bishkek Declaration: To protect the species and its environment.
- Global Snow Leopard and Eco-system Protection Program: It is a joint initiative of range country governments, international agencies, civil society, and the private sector. Goal — secure the long-term survival of the snow leopard in its natural ecosystem.
- The snow leopard inhabits the higher Himalayan and trans-Himalayan landscape in Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, and Arunachal Pradesh.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/10/24/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-24-october-2019/
Incorrect
Solution: A
First National Protocol to Enumerate Snow Leopard Population in India Launched.
It was launched on the occasion of International Snow Leopard Day.
Key facts:
- Listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
- Inhabit alpine and subalpine zones at elevations from 3,000 to 4,500 m (9,800 to 14,800 ft).
- State animal of Himachal Pradesh and the National Heritage Animal of Pakistan.
- Habitat extends through twelve countries: Afghanistan, Bhutan, China, India, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Mongolia, Nepal, Pakistan, Russia, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan. China contains as much as 60% of all snow leopard habitat areas.
- Listed on Appendix I of the Convention on International Trade of Endangered Species (CITES).
- Global Snow Leopard Forum, 2013:12 countries encompassing the snow leopard’s range (Afghanistan, Bhutan, China, India, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyz Republic, Mongolia, Nepal, Pakistan, Russia, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan).
- Bishkek Declaration: To protect the species and its environment.
- Global Snow Leopard and Eco-system Protection Program: It is a joint initiative of range country governments, international agencies, civil society, and the private sector. Goal — secure the long-term survival of the snow leopard in its natural ecosystem.
- The snow leopard inhabits the higher Himalayan and trans-Himalayan landscape in Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, and Arunachal Pradesh.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/10/24/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-24-october-2019/
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Financial Emergency
- A proclamation declaring financial emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within one month from the date of its issue.
- Once approved by Parliament, the Financial Emergency continues indefinitely till it is revoked.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Grounds of Declaration
Article 360 empowers the president to proclaim a Financial Emergency if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen due to which the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened.
The 38th Amendment Act of 1975 made the satisfaction of the president in declaring a Financial Emergency final and conclusive and not questionable in any court on any ground. But this provision was subsequently deleted by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 implying that the satisfaction of the president is not beyond judicial review.
Parliamentary Approval and Duration
A proclamation declaring financial emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue. However, if the proclamation of Financial Emergency is issued at a time when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved or the dissolution of the Lok Sabha takes place during the period of two months without approving the proclamation, then the proclamation survives until 30 days from the first sitting of the Lok Sabha after its reconstitution, provided the Rajya Sabha has in the meantime approved it.
Once approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the Financial Emergency continues indefinitely till it is revoked. This implies two things:
- there is no maximum period prescribed for its operation; and
- repeated parliamentary approval is not required for its continuation.
A resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency can be passed by either House of Parliament only by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of that house present and voting.
While the proclamation of financial emergency (under Article 360) is in operation, the Centre can give directions to the states:
(i) to observe the specified canons of financial propriety;
(ii) to reduce the salaries and allowances of all class of persons serving in the state (including the high court judges); and
(iii) to reserve all money bills and other financial bills for the consideration of the President.
No Financial Emergency has been declared so far, though there was a
financial crisis in 1991.Incorrect
Solution: B
Grounds of Declaration
Article 360 empowers the president to proclaim a Financial Emergency if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen due to which the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened.
The 38th Amendment Act of 1975 made the satisfaction of the president in declaring a Financial Emergency final and conclusive and not questionable in any court on any ground. But this provision was subsequently deleted by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 implying that the satisfaction of the president is not beyond judicial review.
Parliamentary Approval and Duration
A proclamation declaring financial emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue. However, if the proclamation of Financial Emergency is issued at a time when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved or the dissolution of the Lok Sabha takes place during the period of two months without approving the proclamation, then the proclamation survives until 30 days from the first sitting of the Lok Sabha after its reconstitution, provided the Rajya Sabha has in the meantime approved it.
Once approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the Financial Emergency continues indefinitely till it is revoked. This implies two things:
- there is no maximum period prescribed for its operation; and
- repeated parliamentary approval is not required for its continuation.
A resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency can be passed by either House of Parliament only by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of that house present and voting.
While the proclamation of financial emergency (under Article 360) is in operation, the Centre can give directions to the states:
(i) to observe the specified canons of financial propriety;
(ii) to reduce the salaries and allowances of all class of persons serving in the state (including the high court judges); and
(iii) to reserve all money bills and other financial bills for the consideration of the President.
No Financial Emergency has been declared so far, though there was a
financial crisis in 1991. -
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the election of the President of India
- The President is elected by an Electoral College in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.
- Members of the Electoral College are bound by party whips.
- Electoral College consists of all the members of both Houses of Parliament and all the members of the Legislative Assemblies of all the States and also of NCT of Delhi and the Union Territory of Puducherry
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The President is elected by an Electoral College, which consists of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of all the States and also of NCT of Delhi and the Union Territory of Puducherry. [Article 54 of the Constitution of India]
The President shall hold office for a term of 5 years from the date on which he enters upon his office. He shall, however, continue to hold office notwithstanding the expiry of his term, until his successor enters upon his office. [Article 56 of the Constitution of India]
Under the provisions of sub-section (3) of Section 4 of the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952, the notification calling the election to the office of the President can be issued by the Election Commission on any day within the period of sixty days before the expiry of the term of office of the outgoing President. The election schedule shall be so fixed, that the President-elect is able to enter upon his office on the day following the expiry of the term of the outgoing President.
As per Article 55(3) of the Constitution of India, the election of the President shall be held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote and the voting at such election shall be by secret ballot.
Are the provisions of the Anti-Defection Law applicable in Presidential elections?
No. Members of the Electoral College can vote according to their wish and are not bound by any party whips. The voting is by secret ballot. Therefore, Party whip does not apply in this election.
All doubts and disputes in connection with election of the President are
inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court whose decision is final. The
election of a person as President cannot be challenged on the ground that the
electoral college was incomplete (ie, existence of any vacancy among the
members of electoral college). If the election of a person as President is
declared void by the Supreme Court, acts done by him before the date of such
declaration of the Supreme Court are not invalidated and continue to remain
in force.Incorrect
Solution: A
The President is elected by an Electoral College, which consists of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of all the States and also of NCT of Delhi and the Union Territory of Puducherry. [Article 54 of the Constitution of India]
The President shall hold office for a term of 5 years from the date on which he enters upon his office. He shall, however, continue to hold office notwithstanding the expiry of his term, until his successor enters upon his office. [Article 56 of the Constitution of India]
Under the provisions of sub-section (3) of Section 4 of the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952, the notification calling the election to the office of the President can be issued by the Election Commission on any day within the period of sixty days before the expiry of the term of office of the outgoing President. The election schedule shall be so fixed, that the President-elect is able to enter upon his office on the day following the expiry of the term of the outgoing President.
As per Article 55(3) of the Constitution of India, the election of the President shall be held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote and the voting at such election shall be by secret ballot.
Are the provisions of the Anti-Defection Law applicable in Presidential elections?
No. Members of the Electoral College can vote according to their wish and are not bound by any party whips. The voting is by secret ballot. Therefore, Party whip does not apply in this election.
All doubts and disputes in connection with election of the President are
inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court whose decision is final. The
election of a person as President cannot be challenged on the ground that the
electoral college was incomplete (ie, existence of any vacancy among the
members of electoral college). If the election of a person as President is
declared void by the Supreme Court, acts done by him before the date of such
declaration of the Supreme Court are not invalidated and continue to remain
in force. -
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Siachen Glacier
- It Lies in the Pir Panjal Range.
- It is the Second-Longest glacier in the World’s Non-Polar areas.
- It forms the source of Nubra River.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Siachen Glacier:
Context: The Siachen glacier is “now open” for tourists and tourism.
Key facts:
- Lies in the Karakoram Range system which is a part of western Himalayas.
- Lies to the south of the zone that separates Eurasion Plate with the Indian Plate, which is the result of convergence boundary interaction in geographical terms.
- It is the highest battle field in the world and lies on LoC (Line of Control) between India and Pakistan. It has been continuously contested by Pakistan as its own part which has led to militarisation of the glacier.
- After the Indo-Pakistan war in 1971, an agreement was signed between the two countries in 1972, which came to be known as the Shimla Agreement, but it failed to clearly mention who controls the glacier.
- However, in 1984, the Pakistan army tried to enter the glacier, forcing India to launch a military operation known as “Operation Meghdoot” and since then we have control over the glacier. A ceasefire agreement was signed between India and Pakistan in 2003
- The glacier is the source of many rivers including Nubra River, a tributary of Shyok, which is a part of the Indus River System.
- Siachen Glacier also boasts of the world’s highest helipad built by India at Point Sonam, to supply its troops. India also installed the world’s highest telephone booth on the glacier.
- The region is also a home to rare species of snow leopard, brown bear etc which may be affected by military presence. This has led to talks in international forums about creating a “Peace Park” in the area and demilitarise it.
- It is the Second-Longest glacier in the World’s Non-Polar areas after Fedchenko glacier (Tajakistan).
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/10/22/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-22-october-2019/
Incorrect
Solution: C
Siachen Glacier:
Context: The Siachen glacier is “now open” for tourists and tourism.
Key facts:
- Lies in the Karakoram Range system which is a part of western Himalayas.
- Lies to the south of the zone that separates Eurasion Plate with the Indian Plate, which is the result of convergence boundary interaction in geographical terms.
- It is the highest battle field in the world and lies on LoC (Line of Control) between India and Pakistan. It has been continuously contested by Pakistan as its own part which has led to militarisation of the glacier.
- After the Indo-Pakistan war in 1971, an agreement was signed between the two countries in 1972, which came to be known as the Shimla Agreement, but it failed to clearly mention who controls the glacier.
- However, in 1984, the Pakistan army tried to enter the glacier, forcing India to launch a military operation known as “Operation Meghdoot” and since then we have control over the glacier. A ceasefire agreement was signed between India and Pakistan in 2003
- The glacier is the source of many rivers including Nubra River, a tributary of Shyok, which is a part of the Indus River System.
- Siachen Glacier also boasts of the world’s highest helipad built by India at Point Sonam, to supply its troops. India also installed the world’s highest telephone booth on the glacier.
- The region is also a home to rare species of snow leopard, brown bear etc which may be affected by military presence. This has led to talks in international forums about creating a “Peace Park” in the area and demilitarise it.
- It is the Second-Longest glacier in the World’s Non-Polar areas after Fedchenko glacier (Tajakistan).
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/10/22/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-22-october-2019/
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following veto powers is/are vested with President of India?
- Qualified veto
- Suspensive veto
- Absolute veto
- Pocket veto
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: B
A bill passed by the Parliament can become an act only if it receives the
assent of the President. When such a bill is presented to the President for his
assent, he has three alternatives (under Article 111 of the Constitution):- He may give his assent to the bill, or
- He may withhold his assent to the bill, or
- He may return the bill (if it is not a Money bill) for reconsideration of the
Parliament. However, if the bill is passed again by the Parliament with or
without amendments and again presented to the President, the President
must give his assent to the bill.
Thus, the President has the veto power over the bills passed by the
Parliament, that is, he can withhold his assent to the bills. The object of
conferring this power on the President is two-fold—(a) to prevent hasty and
ill-considered legislation by the Parliament; and (b) to prevent a legislation
which may be unconstitutional.The veto power enjoyed by the executive in modern states can be classified into the following four types:
- Absolute veto, that is, withholding of assent to the bill passed by the legislature.
- Qualified veto, which can be overridden by the legislature with a higher majority.
- Suspensive veto, which can be overridden by the legislature with an ordinary majority.
- Pocket veto, that is, taking no action on the bill passed by the legislature.
Of the above four, the President of India is vested with three– absolute veto, suspensive veto and pocket veto. There is no qualified veto in the case of Indian President; it is possessed by the American President.
Extra Learning:
Veto Powers of the President of India:
Comparing Veto Powers of President and Governor:
Incorrect
Solution: B
A bill passed by the Parliament can become an act only if it receives the
assent of the President. When such a bill is presented to the President for his
assent, he has three alternatives (under Article 111 of the Constitution):- He may give his assent to the bill, or
- He may withhold his assent to the bill, or
- He may return the bill (if it is not a Money bill) for reconsideration of the
Parliament. However, if the bill is passed again by the Parliament with or
without amendments and again presented to the President, the President
must give his assent to the bill.
Thus, the President has the veto power over the bills passed by the
Parliament, that is, he can withhold his assent to the bills. The object of
conferring this power on the President is two-fold—(a) to prevent hasty and
ill-considered legislation by the Parliament; and (b) to prevent a legislation
which may be unconstitutional.The veto power enjoyed by the executive in modern states can be classified into the following four types:
- Absolute veto, that is, withholding of assent to the bill passed by the legislature.
- Qualified veto, which can be overridden by the legislature with a higher majority.
- Suspensive veto, which can be overridden by the legislature with an ordinary majority.
- Pocket veto, that is, taking no action on the bill passed by the legislature.
Of the above four, the President of India is vested with three– absolute veto, suspensive veto and pocket veto. There is no qualified veto in the case of Indian President; it is possessed by the American President.
Extra Learning:
Veto Powers of the President of India:
Comparing Veto Powers of President and Governor:
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Qualifications of High court Judge
- He should have held a judicial office in the territory of India for ten years.
- He should have been an advocate of a high court (or high courts in succession) for seven years.
- The Constitution has prescribed a minimum age of 35 years for appointment as a judge of a high court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Every high court (whether exclusive or common) consists of a chief justice
and such other judges as the president may from time to time deem necessary
to appoint. Thus, the Constitution does not specify the strength of a high
court and leaves it to the discretion of the president. Accordingly, the
President determines the strength of a high court from time to time depending
upon its workload.The judges of a high court are appointed by the President. The chief justice is appointed by the President after consultation with the chief justice of India and the governor of the state concerned. For appointment of other judges, the chief justice of the concerned high court is also consulted. In case of a common high court for two or more states, the governors of all the states concerned are consulted by the president
Qualifications of Judges
A person to be appointed as a judge of a high court, should have the following qualifications:
- He should be a citizen of India.
- (a) He should have held a judicial office in the territory of India for ten years; or
(b) He should have been an advocate of a high court (or high courts in succession) for ten years.
From the above, it is clear that the Constitution has not prescribed a minimum age for appointment as a judge of a high court. Moreover, unlike in the case of the Supreme Court, the Constitution makes no provision for appointment of a distinguished jurist as a judge of a high court.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Every high court (whether exclusive or common) consists of a chief justice
and such other judges as the president may from time to time deem necessary
to appoint. Thus, the Constitution does not specify the strength of a high
court and leaves it to the discretion of the president. Accordingly, the
President determines the strength of a high court from time to time depending
upon its workload.The judges of a high court are appointed by the President. The chief justice is appointed by the President after consultation with the chief justice of India and the governor of the state concerned. For appointment of other judges, the chief justice of the concerned high court is also consulted. In case of a common high court for two or more states, the governors of all the states concerned are consulted by the president
Qualifications of Judges
A person to be appointed as a judge of a high court, should have the following qualifications:
- He should be a citizen of India.
- (a) He should have held a judicial office in the territory of India for ten years; or
(b) He should have been an advocate of a high court (or high courts in succession) for ten years.
From the above, it is clear that the Constitution has not prescribed a minimum age for appointment as a judge of a high court. Moreover, unlike in the case of the Supreme Court, the Constitution makes no provision for appointment of a distinguished jurist as a judge of a high court.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC)
- It is the highest decision making body for capital acquisition proposals forwarded by the Indian armed forces.
- It is headed by Chief of Defence Staff.
- It was set up in 2019 post- Pulwama attack.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Defence Acquisition Council (DAC):
- It was set up in 2001 as part of the post-Kargil reforms in defence sector
- It is headed by the Defence Minister.
- The DAC is Defence Ministry’s highest decision making body for capital acquisition proposals forwarded by the Indian armed forces.
- It aims to counter corruption and speed up decision- making in military procurement, the government of India in 2001 decided to set up an integrated DAC.
- Objective: The objective of the DAC is to ensure expeditious procurement of the approved requirements of the Armed Forces, in terms of capabilities sought, and time frame prescribed, by optimally utilizing the allocated budgetary resources.
- Functions: The DAC is responsible to give policy guidelines to acquisitions, based on long-term procurement plans. It also clears all acquisitions, which includes both imported and those produced indigenously or under a foreign license.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/10/22/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-22-october-2019/
Incorrect
Solution: B
Defence Acquisition Council (DAC):
- It was set up in 2001 as part of the post-Kargil reforms in defence sector
- It is headed by the Defence Minister.
- The DAC is Defence Ministry’s highest decision making body for capital acquisition proposals forwarded by the Indian armed forces.
- It aims to counter corruption and speed up decision- making in military procurement, the government of India in 2001 decided to set up an integrated DAC.
- Objective: The objective of the DAC is to ensure expeditious procurement of the approved requirements of the Armed Forces, in terms of capabilities sought, and time frame prescribed, by optimally utilizing the allocated budgetary resources.
- Functions: The DAC is responsible to give policy guidelines to acquisitions, based on long-term procurement plans. It also clears all acquisitions, which includes both imported and those produced indigenously or under a foreign license.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/10/22/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-22-october-2019/
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding appointment of the Chief Minister.
- The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister.
- The governor may first appoint him as the Chief Minister and then ask him to prove his majority in the legislative assembly within a reasonable period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister. Article 164 only says that the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the governor. However, this does not imply that the governor is free to appoint any one as the Chief Minister.
The governor may have to exercise his individual judgment in the selection and appointement of the Chief Minister when the Chief Minister in office dies suddenly and there is no obvious successor.
However, on the death of a Chief Minister, the ruling party usually elects a new leader and the governor has no choice but to appoint him as Chief Minister.
The Constitution does not require that a person must prove his majority in the legislative assembly before he is appointed as the Chief Minister. The governor may first appoint him as the Chief Minister and then ask him to prove his majority in the legislative assembly within a reasonable period. This is what has been done in a number of cases.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister. Article 164 only says that the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the governor. However, this does not imply that the governor is free to appoint any one as the Chief Minister.
The governor may have to exercise his individual judgment in the selection and appointement of the Chief Minister when the Chief Minister in office dies suddenly and there is no obvious successor.
However, on the death of a Chief Minister, the ruling party usually elects a new leader and the governor has no choice but to appoint him as Chief Minister.
The Constitution does not require that a person must prove his majority in the legislative assembly before he is appointed as the Chief Minister. The governor may first appoint him as the Chief Minister and then ask him to prove his majority in the legislative assembly within a reasonable period. This is what has been done in a number of cases.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Judicial Review
- The phrase ‘Judicial Review’ is mentioned under Article 13 of the Indian Constitution.
- The power of judicial review is exercised by both the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Judicial Review can be understood as a form of court proceeding, usually in the Administrative Court where the lawfulness of a decision or action is reviewed by the judge. Where there is no effective means of challenge, judicial review is available. The concern behind Judicial Review is that whether the law has been correctly applied with and right procedures have been followed.
Though the phrase ‘Judicial Review’ has nowhere been used in the Constitution, the provisions of several Articles explicitly confer the power of judicial review on the Supreme Court and the High Courts. These provisions are explained below:
- Article 13 declares that all laws that are inconsistent with or in derogation of the Fundamental Rights shall be null and void.
- Article 32 guarantees the right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights and empowers the Supreme Court to issue directions or orders or writs for that purpose.
- Article 131 provides for the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in center-state and inter-state disputes.
- Article 132 provides for the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in constitutional cases.
- Article 136 authorizes the Supreme Court to grant special leave to appeal from any court or tribunal (except military tribunal and court martial).
- Article 226 empowers the High Courts to issue directions or orders or writs for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights and for any other purpose etc
Incorrect
Solution: B
Judicial Review can be understood as a form of court proceeding, usually in the Administrative Court where the lawfulness of a decision or action is reviewed by the judge. Where there is no effective means of challenge, judicial review is available. The concern behind Judicial Review is that whether the law has been correctly applied with and right procedures have been followed.
Though the phrase ‘Judicial Review’ has nowhere been used in the Constitution, the provisions of several Articles explicitly confer the power of judicial review on the Supreme Court and the High Courts. These provisions are explained below:
- Article 13 declares that all laws that are inconsistent with or in derogation of the Fundamental Rights shall be null and void.
- Article 32 guarantees the right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights and empowers the Supreme Court to issue directions or orders or writs for that purpose.
- Article 131 provides for the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in center-state and inter-state disputes.
- Article 132 provides for the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in constitutional cases.
- Article 136 authorizes the Supreme Court to grant special leave to appeal from any court or tribunal (except military tribunal and court martial).
- Article 226 empowers the High Courts to issue directions or orders or writs for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights and for any other purpose etc
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsThe Asia Environmental Enforcement Award has been given by
Correct
Solution: C
Asia Environmental Enforcement Award:
- Senior Indian Forest Service (IFS) officer Ramesh Pandey has been selected by United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) for prestigious Asia Environmental Enforcement Award.
- Ramesh Pandey is recognised for combating trans-boundary environmental crime.
- Pandey also introduced M-Stripes (Monitoring System for Tigers Intensive Protection & Ecological Status), a novel software-based patrolling in Dudhwa Tiger Reserve on the recommendation of National Tiger Conservation Authority.
About the award:
- The purpose of the Awards are to publicly recognise outstanding achievements by public organisations and individuals in Asia to combat transboundary environmental crime.
The 5 categories in which award will be given are:
- Collaboration.
- Impact.
- Innovation.
- Integrity.
- Gender leadership.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/10/11/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-11-october-2019/
Incorrect
Solution: C
Asia Environmental Enforcement Award:
- Senior Indian Forest Service (IFS) officer Ramesh Pandey has been selected by United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) for prestigious Asia Environmental Enforcement Award.
- Ramesh Pandey is recognised for combating trans-boundary environmental crime.
- Pandey also introduced M-Stripes (Monitoring System for Tigers Intensive Protection & Ecological Status), a novel software-based patrolling in Dudhwa Tiger Reserve on the recommendation of National Tiger Conservation Authority.
About the award:
- The purpose of the Awards are to publicly recognise outstanding achievements by public organisations and individuals in Asia to combat transboundary environmental crime.
The 5 categories in which award will be given are:
- Collaboration.
- Impact.
- Innovation.
- Integrity.
- Gender leadership.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/10/11/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-11-october-2019/
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Estimates Committee
- The origin of this committee can be traced to the standing financial committee set up in 1921 based on the recommendation of John Mathai.
- The term of office of members is one year.
- The Rajya Sabha has no representation in this committee.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Estimates Committee
The origin of this committee can be traced to the standing financial committee set up in 1921. The first Estimates Committee in the post-independence era was constituted in 1950 on the recommendation of John Mathai, the then finance minister.
Originally, it had 25 members but in 1956 its membership was raised to 30. All the thirty members are from Lok Sabha only. The Rajya Sabha has no representation in this committee. These members are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from amongst its own members, according to the principles of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. Thus, all parties get due representation in it. The term of office is one year.
A minister cannot be elected as a member of the committee. The chairman of the committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members and he is invariably from the ruling party.
The function of the committee is to examine the estimates included in the
budget and suggest ‘economies’ in public expenditure. Hence, it has been
described as a ‘continuous economy committee’.In more detail, the functions of the committee are:
- To report what economies, improvements in organisation, efficiency and administrative reform consistent with the policy underlying the estimates,
can be affected - To suggest alternative policies in order to bring about efficiency and
economy in administration - To examine whether the money is well laid out within the limits of the
policy implied in the estimates - To suggest the forth in which the estimates are to be presented to
Parliament
The Committee shall not exercise its functions in relation to such public
undertakings as are allotted to the Committee on Public Undertakings. The
Committee may continue the examination of the estimates from time to time,
throughout the financial year and report to the House as its examination
proceeds. It shall not be incumbent on the Committee to examine the entire
estimates of any one year. The demands for grants may be finally voted
despite the fact that the Committee has made no report.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Estimates Committee
The origin of this committee can be traced to the standing financial committee set up in 1921. The first Estimates Committee in the post-independence era was constituted in 1950 on the recommendation of John Mathai, the then finance minister.
Originally, it had 25 members but in 1956 its membership was raised to 30. All the thirty members are from Lok Sabha only. The Rajya Sabha has no representation in this committee. These members are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from amongst its own members, according to the principles of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. Thus, all parties get due representation in it. The term of office is one year.
A minister cannot be elected as a member of the committee. The chairman of the committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members and he is invariably from the ruling party.
The function of the committee is to examine the estimates included in the
budget and suggest ‘economies’ in public expenditure. Hence, it has been
described as a ‘continuous economy committee’.In more detail, the functions of the committee are:
- To report what economies, improvements in organisation, efficiency and administrative reform consistent with the policy underlying the estimates,
can be affected - To suggest alternative policies in order to bring about efficiency and
economy in administration - To examine whether the money is well laid out within the limits of the
policy implied in the estimates - To suggest the forth in which the estimates are to be presented to
Parliament
The Committee shall not exercise its functions in relation to such public
undertakings as are allotted to the Committee on Public Undertakings. The
Committee may continue the examination of the estimates from time to time,
throughout the financial year and report to the House as its examination
proceeds. It shall not be incumbent on the Committee to examine the entire
estimates of any one year. The demands for grants may be finally voted
despite the fact that the Committee has made no report.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following disputes/suits fall under the matters of original jurisdiction of Supreme Court?
- Dispute between the Centre and one or more states
- Dispute between the Centre and any state or states on one side and one or more other states on the other side
- Dispute between two or more states
- Any suit brought before the Supreme Court by a private citizen against the Centre.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: A
The jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court can be classified into the following:
- Original Jurisdiction.
- Writ Jurisdiction.
- Appellate Jurisdiction.
- Advisory Jurisdiction.
- A Court of Record.
- Power of Judicial Review.
- Other Powers.
Original Jurisdiction
As a federal court, the Supreme Court decides the disputes between different units of the Indian Federation. More elaborately, any dispute:
(a) Between the Centre and one or more states; or
(b) Between the Centre and any state or states on one side and one or more other states on the other side; or
(c) Between two or more states.
In the above federal disputes, the Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction. Exclusive means, no other court can decide such disputes and original means, the power to hear such disputes in the first instance, not by way of appeal.
With regard to the exclusive original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, two points should be noted. One, the dispute must involve a question (whether of law or fact) on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends. Thus, the questions of political nature are excluded from it. Two, any suit brought before the Supreme Court by a private citizen against the Centre or a state cannot be entertained under this.
Further, this jurisdiction of the Supreme Court does not extend to the
following:
(a) A dispute arising out of any pre-Constitution treaty, agreement, covenant,
engagement, sanad or other similar instrument.
(b) A dispute arising out of any treaty, agreement, etc., which specifically
provides that the said jurisdiction does not extend to such a dispute.
(c) Inter-state water disputes.
(d) Matters referred to the Finance Commission.
(e) Adjustment of certain expenses and pensions between the Centre and the
states.
(f) Ordinary dispute of Commercial nature between the Centre and the states.
(g) Recovery of damages by a state against the CentreIncorrect
Solution: A
The jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court can be classified into the following:
- Original Jurisdiction.
- Writ Jurisdiction.
- Appellate Jurisdiction.
- Advisory Jurisdiction.
- A Court of Record.
- Power of Judicial Review.
- Other Powers.
Original Jurisdiction
As a federal court, the Supreme Court decides the disputes between different units of the Indian Federation. More elaborately, any dispute:
(a) Between the Centre and one or more states; or
(b) Between the Centre and any state or states on one side and one or more other states on the other side; or
(c) Between two or more states.
In the above federal disputes, the Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction. Exclusive means, no other court can decide such disputes and original means, the power to hear such disputes in the first instance, not by way of appeal.
With regard to the exclusive original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, two points should be noted. One, the dispute must involve a question (whether of law or fact) on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends. Thus, the questions of political nature are excluded from it. Two, any suit brought before the Supreme Court by a private citizen against the Centre or a state cannot be entertained under this.
Further, this jurisdiction of the Supreme Court does not extend to the
following:
(a) A dispute arising out of any pre-Constitution treaty, agreement, covenant,
engagement, sanad or other similar instrument.
(b) A dispute arising out of any treaty, agreement, etc., which specifically
provides that the said jurisdiction does not extend to such a dispute.
(c) Inter-state water disputes.
(d) Matters referred to the Finance Commission.
(e) Adjustment of certain expenses and pensions between the Centre and the
states.
(f) Ordinary dispute of Commercial nature between the Centre and the states.
(g) Recovery of damages by a state against the Centre -
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Danx- 19
- It is a joint services exercise held by Andaman and Nicobar Command (ANC).
- It is carried out by Indian Army, Navy, Air Force and Coast Guard.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Danx- 19:
- Second edition of Defence of Andaman & Nicobar Islands 2019 (DANX-19), a large scale joint services exercise, was recently conducted by Andaman and Nicobar Command (ANC).
- Carried out by Indian Army, Navy, Air Force and Coast Guard.
- Objective: to validate defensive plans of Headquarters ANC towards pursuance of the Command’s responsibility, namely ensuring territorial integrity of the A&N Islands.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/10/19/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-19-october-2019/
Incorrect
Solution: C
Danx- 19:
- Second edition of Defence of Andaman & Nicobar Islands 2019 (DANX-19), a large scale joint services exercise, was recently conducted by Andaman and Nicobar Command (ANC).
- Carried out by Indian Army, Navy, Air Force and Coast Guard.
- Objective: to validate defensive plans of Headquarters ANC towards pursuance of the Command’s responsibility, namely ensuring territorial integrity of the A&N Islands.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/10/19/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-19-october-2019/
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Review Petition
- Under Article 137, the Supreme Court has the power to review any of its judgments or orders.
- Any person aggrieved by a ruling can seek a review.
- The Supreme Court exercises its discretion to allow a review petition only when it shows the grounds for seeking the review.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Review Petition
Under Article 137, the Supreme Court has the power to review any of its judgments or orders.
Scope for review:
When a review takes place, the law is that it is allowed not to take fresh stock of the case but to correct grave errors that have resulted in the miscarriage of justice.
The court has the power to review its rulings to correct a “patent error” and not “minor mistakes of inconsequential import”.
- In a 1975 ruling, Justice Krishna Iyer said a review can be accepted “only where a glaring omission or patent mistake or like grave error has crept in earlier by judicial fallibility”.
In a 2013 ruling, the Supreme Court has laid down three grounds for seeking a review of a verdict it has delivered:
- The discovery of new and important matter or evidence which, after the exercise of due diligence, was not within the knowledge of the petitioner or could not be produced by him.
- Mistake or error apparent on the face of the record.
- Any other sufficient reason. It means a reason that is analogous to the other two grounds.
Who can file a review petition?
As per the Civil Procedure Code and the Supreme Court Rules, any person aggrieved by a ruling can seek a review. However, the court exercises its discretion to allow a review petition only when it shows the grounds for seeking the review.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Review Petition
Under Article 137, the Supreme Court has the power to review any of its judgments or orders.
Scope for review:
When a review takes place, the law is that it is allowed not to take fresh stock of the case but to correct grave errors that have resulted in the miscarriage of justice.
The court has the power to review its rulings to correct a “patent error” and not “minor mistakes of inconsequential import”.
- In a 1975 ruling, Justice Krishna Iyer said a review can be accepted “only where a glaring omission or patent mistake or like grave error has crept in earlier by judicial fallibility”.
In a 2013 ruling, the Supreme Court has laid down three grounds for seeking a review of a verdict it has delivered:
- The discovery of new and important matter or evidence which, after the exercise of due diligence, was not within the knowledge of the petitioner or could not be produced by him.
- Mistake or error apparent on the face of the record.
- Any other sufficient reason. It means a reason that is analogous to the other two grounds.
Who can file a review petition?
As per the Civil Procedure Code and the Supreme Court Rules, any person aggrieved by a ruling can seek a review. However, the court exercises its discretion to allow a review petition only when it shows the grounds for seeking the review.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Leader of the Opposition
- The LoP is leader of the largest party that has not less than one-tenth of the total strength of the house.
- It is a statutory post, defined in the Salaries and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Leader of the Opposition
- The LOP is leader of the largest party that has not less than one-tenth of the total strength of the house.
- It is a statutory post defined in the Salaries and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977.
- As per the Salary and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977, the majority required is decided by the heads of the houses, that is speaker and chairman as the case may be.
- Significance of the office: o LoP is referred to as the ‘shadow Prime Minister’.
- She/he is expected to be ready to take over if the government falls.
- The LoP also plays an important role in bringing cohesiveness and effectiveness to the opposition’s functioning in policy and legislative work.
- o LoP plays a crucial role in bringing bipartisanship and neutrality to the appointments in institutions of accountability and transparency – CVC, CBI, CIC, Lokpal etc.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Leader of the Opposition
- The LOP is leader of the largest party that has not less than one-tenth of the total strength of the house.
- It is a statutory post defined in the Salaries and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977.
- As per the Salary and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977, the majority required is decided by the heads of the houses, that is speaker and chairman as the case may be.
- Significance of the office: o LoP is referred to as the ‘shadow Prime Minister’.
- She/he is expected to be ready to take over if the government falls.
- The LoP also plays an important role in bringing cohesiveness and effectiveness to the opposition’s functioning in policy and legislative work.
- o LoP plays a crucial role in bringing bipartisanship and neutrality to the appointments in institutions of accountability and transparency – CVC, CBI, CIC, Lokpal etc.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following countries is/are part of Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership (CPTPP)
- India
- Japan
- China
- Australia
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: B
The Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership (CPTPP) is a free trade agreement between Canada and 10 other countries in the Asia-Pacific region: Australia, Brunei, Chile, Japan, Malaysia, Mexico, New Zealand, Peru, Singapore and Vietnam.
Once fully implemented, the 11 countries will form a trading bloc representing 495 million consumers and 13.5% of global GDP, providing Canada with preferential access to key markets in Asia and Latin America.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership (CPTPP) is a free trade agreement between Canada and 10 other countries in the Asia-Pacific region: Australia, Brunei, Chile, Japan, Malaysia, Mexico, New Zealand, Peru, Singapore and Vietnam.
Once fully implemented, the 11 countries will form a trading bloc representing 495 million consumers and 13.5% of global GDP, providing Canada with preferential access to key markets in Asia and Latin America.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Private member’s Bill
- Any MP who is not a member of ruling party is referred to as a private member.
- The Member must give at least a month’s notice before the Bill can be listed for introduction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Private member’s Bill
Who is a Private Member?
Any MP who is not a Minister is referred to as a private member.
Admissibility of a private member’s Bill:
The admissibility is decided by the Chairman for Rajya Sabha and Speaker in the case of Lok Sabha.
The procedure is roughly the same for both Houses:
- The Member must give at least a month’s notice before the Bill can be listed for introduction.
- The House secretariat examines it for compliance with constitutional provisions and rules on legislation before listing.
Is there any exception?
While government Bills can be introduced and discussed on any day, private member’s Bills can be introduced and discussed only on Fridays.
To date, Parliament has passed 15 such Bills, six of them in 1956.
In the 14th Lok Sabha, of the over 300 private member’s Bills introduced, roughly four per cent were discussed, the remaining 96 per cent lapsed without a single dialogue.
Extra Learning:
Incorrect
Solution: B
Private member’s Bill
Who is a Private Member?
Any MP who is not a Minister is referred to as a private member.
Admissibility of a private member’s Bill:
The admissibility is decided by the Chairman for Rajya Sabha and Speaker in the case of Lok Sabha.
The procedure is roughly the same for both Houses:
- The Member must give at least a month’s notice before the Bill can be listed for introduction.
- The House secretariat examines it for compliance with constitutional provisions and rules on legislation before listing.
Is there any exception?
While government Bills can be introduced and discussed on any day, private member’s Bills can be introduced and discussed only on Fridays.
To date, Parliament has passed 15 such Bills, six of them in 1956.
In the 14th Lok Sabha, of the over 300 private member’s Bills introduced, roughly four per cent were discussed, the remaining 96 per cent lapsed without a single dialogue.
Extra Learning:
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Elections to Rajya Sabha
- Members representing States are elected by all members of state legislature.
- No members represent from Union Territories.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Elections to Rajya Sabha
The Constitution provides that the Rajya Sabha shall consist of 250 members, of which 12 members shall be nominated by the President from amongst persons having special knowledge or practical experience in respect of such matters as literature, science, art and social service; and not more than 238 representatives of the States and of the Union Territories.
How are the members elected?
Elections to the Rajya Sabha are indirect.
- Members representing States are elected by elected members of legislative assemblies of the States in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
- Members representing Union Territories are chosen in such manner as Parliament may by law prescribe.
Related facts:
- The Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution; one-third of its members retire every second year.
- According to Section 154 of the Representation of the People Act 1951, a member chosen to fill a casual vacancy will serve for the remainder of his predecessor’s term of office.
- Members of a state’s Legislative Assembly vote in the Rajya Sabha elections in what is called proportional representation with the single transferable vote (STV) system. Each MLA’s vote is counted only once.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Elections to Rajya Sabha
The Constitution provides that the Rajya Sabha shall consist of 250 members, of which 12 members shall be nominated by the President from amongst persons having special knowledge or practical experience in respect of such matters as literature, science, art and social service; and not more than 238 representatives of the States and of the Union Territories.
How are the members elected?
Elections to the Rajya Sabha are indirect.
- Members representing States are elected by elected members of legislative assemblies of the States in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
- Members representing Union Territories are chosen in such manner as Parliament may by law prescribe.
Related facts:
- The Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution; one-third of its members retire every second year.
- According to Section 154 of the Representation of the People Act 1951, a member chosen to fill a casual vacancy will serve for the remainder of his predecessor’s term of office.
- Members of a state’s Legislative Assembly vote in the Rajya Sabha elections in what is called proportional representation with the single transferable vote (STV) system. Each MLA’s vote is counted only once.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Debentures
- It is a type of bond that is secured by physical assets or collateral
- An entity which needs to raise money for itself can issue debentures
promising a fixed rate of interest - Treasury Bills issued by governments are a type of Debentures
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
A debenture is a type of debt instrument unsecured by collateral. Since debentures have no collateral backing, debentures must rely on the creditworthiness and reputation of the issuer for support.
Both corporations and governments frequently issue debentures to raise capital or funds.
An entity which needs to raise money for itself can issue debentures
promising a fixed rate of interest and return of the principal at a certain date known as Debenture RedemptionTreasury Bills issued by governments are a type of Debentures.
Incorrect
Solution: D
A debenture is a type of debt instrument unsecured by collateral. Since debentures have no collateral backing, debentures must rely on the creditworthiness and reputation of the issuer for support.
Both corporations and governments frequently issue debentures to raise capital or funds.
An entity which needs to raise money for itself can issue debentures
promising a fixed rate of interest and return of the principal at a certain date known as Debenture RedemptionTreasury Bills issued by governments are a type of Debentures.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Zero Hour
- It starts immediately after the question hour
- The zero hour is not mentioned in the constitution but mentioned in the Rules of Procedure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
What is ‘Zero Hour’ ?
The time immediately following the Question Hour and laying of papers and before any listed business is taken up in the House has come to be popularly known as the `Zero Hour’. As it starts around 12 noon, this period is euphemistically termed as `Zero Hour’. For raising matters during the ‘Zero Hour’ in Lok Sabha, Members give notice between 8.30 a.m. and 9.00 a.m. every day to the Speaker stating clearly the subject which they consider to be important and wish to raise in the House. It is, of course, for the Speaker to allow or not to allow for raising such matters in the House. The term `Zero Hour’ is not formally recognised in our parliamentary procedure.
Unlike the question hour, the zero hour is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure. Thus it is an informal device available to the members of the
Parliament to raise matters without any prior notice.Incorrect
Solution: A
What is ‘Zero Hour’ ?
The time immediately following the Question Hour and laying of papers and before any listed business is taken up in the House has come to be popularly known as the `Zero Hour’. As it starts around 12 noon, this period is euphemistically termed as `Zero Hour’. For raising matters during the ‘Zero Hour’ in Lok Sabha, Members give notice between 8.30 a.m. and 9.00 a.m. every day to the Speaker stating clearly the subject which they consider to be important and wish to raise in the House. It is, of course, for the Speaker to allow or not to allow for raising such matters in the House. The term `Zero Hour’ is not formally recognised in our parliamentary procedure.
Unlike the question hour, the zero hour is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure. Thus it is an informal device available to the members of the
Parliament to raise matters without any prior notice. -
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Celiac Disease
- It is a communicable disease
- It may lead to ailments like anemia, infertility and miscarriage.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Celiac disease is a serious autoimmune disease that occurs in genetically predisposed people where the ingestion of gluten leads to damage in the small intestine. It is estimated to affect 1 in 100 people worldwide.
When people with celiac disease eat gluten (a protein found in wheat, rye and barley), their body mounts an immune response that attacks the small intestine. These attacks lead to damage on the villi, small fingerlike projections that line the small intestine, that promote nutrient absorption. When the villi get damaged, nutrients cannot be absorbed properly into the body.
Celiac disease is hereditary, meaning that it runs in families. People with a first-degree relative with celiac disease (parent, child, sibling) have a 1 in 10 risk of developing celiac disease.
https://celiac.org/about-celiac-disease/what-is-celiac-disease/
Incorrect
Solution: B
Celiac disease is a serious autoimmune disease that occurs in genetically predisposed people where the ingestion of gluten leads to damage in the small intestine. It is estimated to affect 1 in 100 people worldwide.
When people with celiac disease eat gluten (a protein found in wheat, rye and barley), their body mounts an immune response that attacks the small intestine. These attacks lead to damage on the villi, small fingerlike projections that line the small intestine, that promote nutrient absorption. When the villi get damaged, nutrients cannot be absorbed properly into the body.
Celiac disease is hereditary, meaning that it runs in families. People with a first-degree relative with celiac disease (parent, child, sibling) have a 1 in 10 risk of developing celiac disease.
https://celiac.org/about-celiac-disease/what-is-celiac-disease/
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- The Constitution has empowered the President to prescribe the manner of choosing the representatives of the union territories in the Lok Sabha.
- The Constitution has fixed six years as the term of office for members of the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
The Constitution has empowered the Parliament to prescribe the manner of choosing the representatives of the union territories in the Lok Sabha.
Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted the Union Territories (Direct Election to the House of the People) Act, 1965, by which the members of Lok Sabha from the union territories are also chosen by direct election. Unlike the Rajya Sabha, the Lok Sabha is not a continuing chamber. Its normal term is five years from the date of its first meeting after the general elections, after which it automatically dissolves. However, the President is authorised to dissolve the Lok Sabha at any time even before the completion of five years and this cannot be challenged in a court of law.The Constitution has not fixed the term of office of members of the Rajya Sabha and left it to the Parliament. Accordingly, the Parliament in the Representation of the People Act (1951) provided that the term of office of a member of the Rajya Sabha shall be six years.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The Constitution has empowered the Parliament to prescribe the manner of choosing the representatives of the union territories in the Lok Sabha.
Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted the Union Territories (Direct Election to the House of the People) Act, 1965, by which the members of Lok Sabha from the union territories are also chosen by direct election. Unlike the Rajya Sabha, the Lok Sabha is not a continuing chamber. Its normal term is five years from the date of its first meeting after the general elections, after which it automatically dissolves. However, the President is authorised to dissolve the Lok Sabha at any time even before the completion of five years and this cannot be challenged in a court of law.The Constitution has not fixed the term of office of members of the Rajya Sabha and left it to the Parliament. Accordingly, the Parliament in the Representation of the People Act (1951) provided that the term of office of a member of the Rajya Sabha shall be six years.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Alliance to End Plastic Waste (AEPW),
- t is a non-profit organization.
- The aim of the alliance is to develop solutions to mitigate plastic pollution.
- It promotes circular economy by utilising used plastics.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
The Alliance to End Plastic Waste is made up of over 40 companies that have committed more than $1 billion, with the goal of investing $1.5 billion over the next 5 years, to help end plastic waste in the environment.
The alliance is designed as a non-profit organization. It includes companies from across North and South America, Europe, Asia, Southeast Asia, Africa as well as the Middle East are part of the Alliance.
The aim is to develop solutions to mitigate plastic pollution and promote a circular economy by utilising used plastics.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The Alliance to End Plastic Waste is made up of over 40 companies that have committed more than $1 billion, with the goal of investing $1.5 billion over the next 5 years, to help end plastic waste in the environment.
The alliance is designed as a non-profit organization. It includes companies from across North and South America, Europe, Asia, Southeast Asia, Africa as well as the Middle East are part of the Alliance.
The aim is to develop solutions to mitigate plastic pollution and promote a circular economy by utilising used plastics.
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding substitute motion
- A substitute motion is moved in substitution of the original motion for taking into consideration a policy or situation or statement or any other matter.
- Amendments to substitute motions are not permissible.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
What are the different types of Motions?
Motions may be classified into three broad categories, namely, substantive motions, substitute motions and subsidiary motions.
A substantive motion is a self-contained, independent proposal made in reference to a subject which the mover wishes to bring forward. All Resolutions, Motions for election of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker, and Motion of Thanks on the Address by the President, etc. are examples of substantive motions.
A substitute motion, as its name suggests, is moved in substitution of the original motion for taking into consideration a policy or situation or statement or any other matter. Amendments to substitute motions are not permissible.
Subsidiary motions depend upon or relate to other motions or follow up on some proceedings in the House. By itself, a subsidiary motion has no meaning and is not capable of stating the decision of the House without reference to the original motion or the proceedings of the House.
Incorrect
Solution: C
What are the different types of Motions?
Motions may be classified into three broad categories, namely, substantive motions, substitute motions and subsidiary motions.
A substantive motion is a self-contained, independent proposal made in reference to a subject which the mover wishes to bring forward. All Resolutions, Motions for election of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker, and Motion of Thanks on the Address by the President, etc. are examples of substantive motions.
A substitute motion, as its name suggests, is moved in substitution of the original motion for taking into consideration a policy or situation or statement or any other matter. Amendments to substitute motions are not permissible.
Subsidiary motions depend upon or relate to other motions or follow up on some proceedings in the House. By itself, a subsidiary motion has no meaning and is not capable of stating the decision of the House without reference to the original motion or the proceedings of the House.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsLake Urmia, which has been shrinking for a long time, is located in which of the following countries?
Correct
Solution: C
Iran’s Lake Urmia was once the second-largest saltwater lake in the world, covering more than 2,000 square miles at its deepest in the 1990s.
In the past two decades, the lake has dried out, shrinking at times to less than 20% of its average size. It’s not a story of climate change, though that certainly contributed. It’s a case of water mismanagement.
Scientists call it a “contemporary environmental catastrophe” and a “tragic wake-up call” to rethink how the resource is managed in water-scarce countries.
https://www.npr.org/sections/pictureshow/2019/11/12/751360322/the-death-and-life-of-irans-lake-urmia
Incorrect
Solution: C
Iran’s Lake Urmia was once the second-largest saltwater lake in the world, covering more than 2,000 square miles at its deepest in the 1990s.
In the past two decades, the lake has dried out, shrinking at times to less than 20% of its average size. It’s not a story of climate change, though that certainly contributed. It’s a case of water mismanagement.
Scientists call it a “contemporary environmental catastrophe” and a “tragic wake-up call” to rethink how the resource is managed in water-scarce countries.
https://www.npr.org/sections/pictureshow/2019/11/12/751360322/the-death-and-life-of-irans-lake-urmia
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsIf the cost price of 16 pens is equal to the selling price of 12 pens, what is the profit in percentage?
Correct
Solution: B
It can be clearly seen from the given data that selling 12 pens equals to cost price of 16 pens.
Therefore, selling 3 pens = cost price of 4 pens.
So, profit in percentage = [(4-3)/3] * 100 = 33.33 %
Incorrect
Solution: B
It can be clearly seen from the given data that selling 12 pens equals to cost price of 16 pens.
Therefore, selling 3 pens = cost price of 4 pens.
So, profit in percentage = [(4-3)/3] * 100 = 33.33 %
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsA trader allows two successive discounts of 10% and 20%. If he sells the article for Rs. 144, then what is the marked price of the article?
Correct
Solution: B
Always the discount is provided on marked price. Here 2 successive discounts are given.
Let us assume that marked price is M.
So first discount is 10%. Thus the price becomes 9/10 th. Andsecond discount is 20 %. Thus, price becomes 8/10.
After allowing these two discounts price comes out to be 144.
Now representing this mathematically:
M × 9/10 × 8/10 = 144
M × 72/100 =144
M= 144 ×100/72
M= 200Incorrect
Solution: B
Always the discount is provided on marked price. Here 2 successive discounts are given.
Let us assume that marked price is M.
So first discount is 10%. Thus the price becomes 9/10 th. Andsecond discount is 20 %. Thus, price becomes 8/10.
After allowing these two discounts price comes out to be 144.
Now representing this mathematically:
M × 9/10 × 8/10 = 144
M × 72/100 =144
M= 144 ×100/72
M= 200 -
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsAjay decides to sell milk at cost price. In what ratio should he mix water and milk so that he can earn 20% profit?
Correct
Solution: C
Let cost price of pure milk = Rs 1 per litre.
Now he adds some water in this milk.
Then selling price of mixture of milk and water is also = Rs 1 per litre
Suppose he had only 1 litre milk costing Rs 1.
To earn profit of 20 % he has to earn Rs 1.2
As mixture also costs Rs 1 per litre means to earn Rs 1.2 he has sold total 1.2 litre of mixture .
That means he added 0.2 litre of milk in 1 litre.
Thus, ratio is 0.2: 1 = 1:5 .Incorrect
Solution: C
Let cost price of pure milk = Rs 1 per litre.
Now he adds some water in this milk.
Then selling price of mixture of milk and water is also = Rs 1 per litre
Suppose he had only 1 litre milk costing Rs 1.
To earn profit of 20 % he has to earn Rs 1.2
As mixture also costs Rs 1 per litre means to earn Rs 1.2 he has sold total 1.2 litre of mixture .
That means he added 0.2 litre of milk in 1 litre.
Thus, ratio is 0.2: 1 = 1:5 . -
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsTen days ago, price of gold was Rs 21,000 per 10 gms. Due to a slump in the market last week, the price of gold decreases by 10%. What shall be the cost of 50 gm gold now?
Correct
Solution: D
Original price of 10 gms of gold = Rs. 21,000.
Reduction in price = 10% of 21000 = (10/100) × 21000 = Rs 2,100.
New price of 10 gms of gold = Rs. 21000 – Rs 2100 = Rs 18,900.
So, cost of 50 gm gold = Rs 18900 × (50 /10) = Rs. 94,500Incorrect
Solution: D
Original price of 10 gms of gold = Rs. 21,000.
Reduction in price = 10% of 21000 = (10/100) × 21000 = Rs 2,100.
New price of 10 gms of gold = Rs. 21000 – Rs 2100 = Rs 18,900.
So, cost of 50 gm gold = Rs 18900 × (50 /10) = Rs. 94,500 -
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsDirections for the following (one) item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follow. Your answer to this item should be based on the passage only.
Indian elections have become less violent over the last three decades. The credit for this must go not only to institutions such as the Election Commission but also to the political class. Yet there is another disturbing tendency, potentially replete with violence, that has been growing during the same period: to view political opponents as enemies to be annihilated.
Which one of the following is the most logical and rational corollary to the above passage?
Correct
Solution: C
The problem highlighted in the passage is that political opponents are being seen as enemies. This is a potentially violent problem that can ultimately lead to a threat to democracy and hence needs to be nipped in the bud. Hence C is the right answer.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The problem highlighted in the passage is that political opponents are being seen as enemies. This is a potentially violent problem that can ultimately lead to a threat to democracy and hence needs to be nipped in the bud. Hence C is the right answer.