DAY – 16(InstaTest-16): Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2020: Topic – Polity, Subject-wise Test 7, Text book based Test 7 to Test 12 revision, October-2019 CA

Solution: C

The Corruption Perceptions Index is an index published annually by Transparency International since 1995 which ranks countries “by their perceived levels of public sector corruption, as determined by expert assessments and opinion surveys.

India has been ranked at the 80th position among 180 countries and territories in the Corruption Perception Index (CPI) prepared by Transparency International.

Denmark and New Zealand have cornered the top spot, followed by Finland, Singapore, Sweden and Switzerland in the top ten.

Solution: A

Inner Line Permit (ILP)

• It is a document required by non- natives to visit or stay in a state that is protected under the ILP system.
• At present, four Northeastern states are covered, namely, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Manipur and Nagaland. (The inclusion of Manipur in Inner Line Permit was announced on 10 December 2019)
• Both the duration of stay and the areas allowed to be accessed for any non-native are determined by the ILP.
• The ILP is issued by the concerned state government and can be availed both by applying online or in person.

Extra Learning:

HISTORY of ILP:

• The Inner Line Permit is an extension of the Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation Act 1873. The Britishers framed regulations restricting entry in certain designated areas. This was done to protect the Crown’s interest in certain states by preventing “British subjects” (Indians) from trading within these regions.
• In 1950, the term ‘British subjects’ was replaced with ‘Citizens of India’. Today, all nonnatives require the permit. This was done to protect the indigenous tribal communities of these states from exploitation.

What about foreigners?

An ILP is only valid for domestic tourists. For foreign tourists in:

Manipur: No permit is required. But, have to register themselves.

Mizoram: No permit is required. But, need to register.

Nagaland: No permit is required. However, they need to register.

Arunachal Pradesh: Tourists need a Protected Area Permit (PAP) or Restricted Area Permit (RAP) from the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/02/inner-line-permit-ilp-2/

Solution: A

About National Anthem :

• On December 27, 1911, the National Anthem was first sung at the Calcutta session of the Congress. In 1912, the song was published under the title Bharat Bidhata in the Tatwabodhini Patrika, which was the official publication of the Brahmo Samaj and of which Tagore was the Editor.
• ‘Jana Gana Mana’ was adopted as the country’s National Anthem by the Constituent Assembly of India on January 24, 1950, the last day of its last session.

Extra Learning:

Reverence to the National Anthem is a Fundamental duty as per Article 51A (a) of the Constitution.

Originally written in Bengali, it is the first of five stanzas of a poem written and later set to notations by Rabindranath Tagore.

The members of the Indian Delegation to the General Assembly of the United Nations held at New York in 1947 gave a recording of Jana Gana Mana as the country’s national anthem.

The full version of the Anthem shall be played on the following occasions: –

i) Civil and Military investitures;

ii) When National Salute (which means the Command “Rashtriya Salute – Salami Shastr” to the accompaniment of the National Anthem is given on ceremonial occasions to the President or to the Governor/Lieutenant Governor within their respective States/ Union Territories;

iii) During parades – irrespective of whether any of the dignitaries referred to in (ii) above is present or not;

iv) On arrival of the President at formal State functions and other functions organized by the Government and mass functions and on his departure from such functions;

v) Immediately before and after the President addresses the Nation over All India Radio;

vi) On arrival of the Governor/Lieutenant Governor at formal State functions within his State/Union Territory and on his departure from such functions;

vii) When the National Flag is brought on parade;

viii) When the Regimental Colours are presented;

ix) For hoisting of colours in the Navy.

(2) The short version of the Anthem shall be played when drinking toasts in Messes.

(3) The Anthem shall be played on any other occasion for which special orders have been issued by the Government of India.

(4) Normally the Anthem shall not be played for the Prime Minister, though there may be special occasions when it may be played.

(5) When the National Anthem is played by a band, the Anthem will be preceded by a roll of drums to assist the audience to know that the National Anthem is going to be played

A specific set of rules and regulations have been set by the Government of India to oversee the proper and correct rendition of the National Anthem. The Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971, was penned down by the Government of India to prevent any intentional disrespect or insult towards the National Anthem of the country. Offenders are punishable with up to three years of imprisonment as well as monetary fine.

https://mha.gov.in/sites/default/files/NationalAnthem%28E%29_2.pdf

Solution: D

Artificial intelligence (AI) is the ability of a computer program or a machine to think and learn. It is also a field of study which tries to make computers “smart”.

They work on their own without being encoded with commands.John McCarthy came up with the name “artificial intelligence” in 1955.

The term may also be applied to any machine that exhibits traits associated with a human mind such as learning and problem-solving.

It has lot of applications in different fields like

• Financial Reporting
• Personalized shopping
• Assistance in surgeries
• Deep Learning
• Cyber Security
• Intelligence Gathering etc.

https://becominghuman.ai/10-powerful-examples-of-ai-applications-553f7f062d9f

Extra Reading:

Solution: D

Central Waqf Council (CWC)

Central Waqf Council is a statutory body under the administrative control of the Ministry of Minority Affairs was set up in 1964 as per the provision given in the Waqf Act, 1954 as Advisory Body to the Central Government on matters concerning the working of the Waqf Boards and the due administration of Auqaf.

However, the role of the Council was expanded significantly under the provisions of the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2013. The Council has been empowered to advise the Central Government, State Governments and State Waqf Boards.

It will now issue directives to the boards/ State Government to furnish information to the Council on the performance of the board particularly on their financial performance, survey, revenue records, encroachment of Waqf properties, Annual and Audit report etc under section 9 (4) of the act.

• It is a permanent dedication of movable or immovable properties for religious, pious or charitable purposes as recognized by Muslim Law, given by philanthropists.
• The Council is headed by a Chairperson, who is the Union Minister in charge of Wakfs and there are maximum 20 other members, appointed by Government of India as stipulated in the Wakf Act.

Extra Learning:

Major Functions of Central Waqf Council

• To advise Central Government, State Governments, State Waqf Boards on matters concerning the working of the Boards and due administration of Auqaf.
• To monitor the implementation of the provisions of Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2013 in States and UTs.
• To render legal advice on protection and retrieval of the Waqf Properties and for removal of encroachment etc.
• To implement the Scheme for Development of Urban Waqf Properties & Identification of potential Waqf land for development by National Waqf Development Corporation Ltd.
• To implement Educational and Women Welfare Schemes for skill development and to empower the poor, especially Women.
• To implement the Scheme of Computerization of the State Waqf Boards records, a Central sector scheme of   Ministry of Minority Affairs.
• To seek necessary information from the State Government/Boards on the performance of the State Waqf Boards as per the provision given in the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2013.
• To take up the Waqf matters with various departments of Central and State Governments such as ASI, Railways, Revenue and Forest etc.
• To undertake awareness programmes to promote the interest of the Council and to sensitize the Waqf institutions about their new roles and responsibilities.

Solution: B

Reservation in promotion in public posts not a fundamental right: SC.

The Supreme Court has recently ruled that the states are not bound to provide reservation in appointments and promotions and that there is no fundamental right to reservation in promotions.

What has the court said?

1. Reservation in promotion in public posts cannot be claimed as a fundamental right.
2. Articles 16 (4) and 16 (4-A) of the Constitution does not confer individuals with a fundamental right to claim reservation in promotion. It only empowers the State to make a reservation in matters of appointment and promotion in favour of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes, only if in the opinion of the State they are not adequately represented in the services of the State.
3. State governments are not bound to make a reservation and have discretion in providing reservations.
4. The judgment also noted that even the courts could not issue a mandamus directing the States to provide reservation.

Article 335 recognizes that special measures need to be adopted for considering the claims of SCs and STs in order to bring them to a level-playing field.

In its landmark 1992 decision in Indra Sawhney vs Union of India, the Supreme Court had held that reservations under Article 16(4) could only be provided at the time of entry into government service but not in matters of promotion.

Supreme Court added that the principle would operate only prospectively and not affect promotions already made and that reservation already provided in promotions shall continue in operation for a period of five years from the date of the judgment. It also ruled that the creamy layer can be and must be excluded.

1. On June 17, 1995, Parliament, acting in its constituent capacity, adopted the seventy-seventh amendment by which clause (4A) was inserted into Article 16 to enable reservation to be made in promotion for SCs and STs. The validity of the seventy-seventh and eighty-fifth amendments to the Constitution and of the legislation enacted in pursuance of those amendments was challenged before the Supreme Court in the Nagaraj case.
2. Upholding the validity of Article 16 (4A), the court then said that it is an enabling provision. “The State is not bound to make reservation for the SCs and STs in promotions. But, if it seeks to do so, it must collect quantifiable data on three facets — the backwardness of the class; the inadequacy of the representation of that class in public employment; and the general efficiency of service as mandated by Article 335 would not be affected”.
3. The court ruled that the constitutional amendments do not abrogate the fundamentals of equality.

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/02/10/reservation-in-promotion-in-public-posts-not-a-fundamental-right-sc/

Solution: B

Manipur became the first to pass a remarkable law against lynching. The Manipur law closely follows the Supreme Court’s prescriptions, creating a nodal officer to control such crimes in every State, special courts and enhanced punishments.

What is Lynching?

Lynching is a premeditated extrajudicial killing by a group. It is most often used to characterize informal public executions by a mob in order to punish an alleged transgressor, punish a convicted transgressor, or intimidate a group.

https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/manipur-shows-the-way/article26007016.ece

Solution: B

National Security Act

It is a stringent law that allows preventive detention for months, if authorities are satisfied that a person is a threat to national security or law and order.

The person does not need to be charged during this period of detention.

The goal is to prevent the individual from committing a crime.

It was promulgated on September 23, 1980, during the Indira Gandhi government.

As per the National Security Act, the grounds for preventive detention of a person include:

1. acting in any manner prejudicial to the defense of India, the relations of India with foreign powers, or the security of India.
2. regulating the continued presence of any foreigner in India or with a view to making arrangements for his expulsion from India.
3. preventing them from acting in any manner prejudicial to the security of the State or from acting in any manner prejudicial to the maintenance of public order or from acting in any manner prejudicial to the maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community it is necessary so to do.

Duration:

Under the National Security Act, an individual can be detained without a charge for up to 12 months; the state government needs to be intimated that a person has been detained under the NSA.

A person detained under the National Security Act can be held for 10 days without being told the charges against them.

Appeal: The detained person can appeal before a high court advisory board but they are not allowed a lawyer during the trial.

Extra Learning:

Public Safety Act of Jammu and Kashmir:

The Jammu and Kashmir Public Safety Act, 1978 (PSA) is a preventive detention law under which a person is taken into custody to prevent them from acting harmfully against “the security of the state or the maintenance of the public order” in the Indian state of Jammu and Kashmir (now a union territory). Whereas PSA applies only to Jammu and Kashmir, it is very similar to the National Security Act that is used by the central and other state governments of India for preventive detention

Within four weeks of passing the detention order, the government has to refer the case to an Advisory Board. This Advisory Board will have to give its recommendations within eight weeks of the order. If the Board thinks that there is cause for preventive detention, the government can hold the person up to two years.

Usually when a person is arrested, they have the right to legal representation and can challenge the arrest. But, when a person is arrested under the PSA, they do not have these rights before the Advisory Board unless sufficient grounds can be established that the detention is illegal. There have been cases where the High Court has interfered and quashed the detention.

According to Section 13(2), the detaining authority need not even inform the detained individual as to the reason for the action, if it decides that it goes against public interest.

The Jammu and Kashmir Public Safety Act (PSA) received the assent of the J&K Governor on April 8, 1978.

The Act was introduced as a tough law to prevent the smuggling of timber and keep the smugglers “out of circulation”.

The law allows the government to detain any person above the age of 16 without trial for a period of two years.

The PSA allows for administrative detention for up to two years “in the case of persons acting in any manner prejudicial to the security of the State”, and for administrative detention up to one year where “any person is acting in any manner prejudicial to the maintenance of public order”.

Detention orders under PSA can be issued by Divisional Commissioners or District Magistrates.

Section 22 of the Act provides protection for any action taken “in good faith” under the Act: “No suit, prosecution or any other legal proceeding shall lie against any person for anything done or intended to be done in good faith in pursuance of the provisions of this Act.”

Under Section 23 of the Act, the government is empowered to “make such Rules consistent with the provisions of this Act, as may be necessary for carrying out the objects of this Act”.

In August 2018, the Act was amended to allow individuals to be detained under the PSA outside the state as well.

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/02/07/public-safety-act/

Solution: C

Section 144 of the Criminal Procedure Code (Cr.PC):

It gives power to a District Magistrate, a sub- divisional Magistrate or any other Executive Magistrate on behalf of the State Government to issue an order to an individual or the general public in a particular place or area to “abstain from a certain act” or “to take certain order with respect to certain property in his possession or under his management”.

This order can be passed against a particular individual or general public. The order can be passed even ex-parte.

As held by the Supreme Court, mere apprehension of danger is not a sufficient ground to curb citizens’ rights by invoking Section 144 CrPC.

Section 144 also empowers the authorities to block the internet access. In the Anuradha Bhasin case (Kashmir Internet case- Bhasin Doctrine) and many other cases, the court allowed an internet ban with constant examination and review.

Even Social Media activity can be monitored, or it can even be restricted. Communication blockage can also be imposed, if it will strongly affect public order.

Duration of Section 144 order:

No order under Section 144 shall remain in force for more than two months but the state government can extent the validity for two months and maximum up to six months. It can be withdrawn at any point of time if situation becomes normal.

Solution: D

The Reserve Bank of India performs the supervisory function under the guidance of the Board for Financial Supervision (BFS). The Board was constituted in November 1994 as a committee of the Central Board of Directors of the Reserve Bank of India under the Reserve Bank of India (Board for Financial Supervision) Regulations, 1994.

Objective

The primary objective of BFS is to undertake consolidated supervision of the financial sector comprising Scheduled Commercial and Co-operative Banks, All India Financial Institutions, Local Area Banks, Small Finance Banks, Payments Banks, Credit Information Companies, Non-Banking Finance Companies and Primary Dealers.

Constitution

The Board is constituted by co-opting four Directors from the Central Board as Members and is chaired by the Governor. The Deputy Governors of the Reserve Bank are ex-officio members. One Deputy Governor, traditionally, the Deputy Governor in charge of supervision, is nominated as the Vice-Chairman of the Board.

In April 2018, a Sub-committee of the Board for Financial Supervision was constituted, under Para 11 & 12 of the Reserve Bank of India (Board for Financial Supervision) Regulations, 1994. The Sub-committee performs the functions and exercises the powers of supervision and inspection under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 and the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, in relation to Payments Banks, Small Finance Banks, Local Area Banks, small Foreign Banks, select scheduled Urban Co-operative Banks, select Non-Banking Financial Companies and Credit Information Companies.

The Sub-committee is chaired by the Deputy Governor in charge of supervision and includes the three Deputy Governors and two Directors of the Central Board as Members.

BFS Meetings

The Board is required to meet normally once every month. It deliberates on inspection reports, periodic reviews related to banking and non-banking sectors and policy matters arising out of or having relevance to the supervisory functions of the Reserve Bank.

The BFS oversees the functioning of Department of Banking Supervision (DBS), Department of Non-Banking Supervision (DNBS) and Department of Co-operative Bank Supervision (DCBS) and gives directions on regulatory and supervisory issues.

Functions

Some of the initiatives taken by the BFS include:

1. Fine-tuning the supervisory processes adopted by the Bank for regulated entities;
2. Introduction of off-site surveillance system to complement the on-site supervision of regulated entities;
3. Strengthening the statutory audit processes of banks and enlarging the role of auditors in the supervisory process;
4. Strengthening the internal defences within supervised institutions such as corporate governance, internal control and audit functions, management information and risk control systems, review of housekeeping in banks;
5. Introduction of supervisory rating system for banks and financial institutions;
6. Supervision of overseas operations of Indian banks, consolidated supervision of banks;
7. Technical assistance programme for cooperative banks;
8. Introduction of scheme of Prompt Corrective Action Framework for weak banks;
9. Guidance regarding fraud risk management framework in banks;
10. Introduction of risk based supervision of banks;
11. Introduction of an enforcement framework in respect of banks;
12. Establishment of a credit registry in respect of large borrowers of supervised institutions; and
13. Setting up a subsidiary of RBI to take care of the IT requirements, including the cyber security needs of the Reserve Bank and its regulated entities, etc.

https://www.rbi.org.in/Scripts/AboutusDisplay.aspx#FS

Solution: B

Amending Act of 1781

In a bid to rectify the defects of the Regulating Act of 1773, the British Parliament passed the Amending Act of 1781, also known as the Act of Settlement.

The features of this Act were as follows:

1. It exempted the Governor-General and the Council from the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court for the acts done by them in their official capacity. Similarly, it also exempted the servants of the company from the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court for their official actions.
2. It excluded the revenue matters and the matters arising in the collection of revenue from the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
3. It provided that the Supreme Court was to have jurisdiction over all the inhabitants of Calcutta. It also required the court to administer the personal law of the defendants i.e., Hindus were to be tried according to the Hindu law and Muslims were to be tried according to the Mohammedan law.
4. It laid down that the appeals from the Provincial Courts could be taken to the Governor-General-in-Council and not to the Supreme Court.
5.  It empowered the Governor-General-in Council to frame regulations for the Provincial Courts and Councils.

Solution: A

The Constituent Assembly appointed a number of committees to deal with
different tasks of constitution-making. Out of these, eight were major
committees and the others were minor committees. The names of these
committees and their chairmen are given below:
Major Committees
1. Union Powers Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru
2. Union Constitution Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru
3. Provincial Constitution Committee – Sardar Patel
4. Drafting Committee – Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
5. Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and
Excluded Areas – Sardar Patel.

This committee had the following five sub-committees:

(a) Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee – J.B. Kripalani
(b) Minorities Sub-Committee – H.C. Mukherjee
(c) North-East Frontier Tribal Areas and Assam Excluded & Partially
Excluded Areas Sub-Committee – Gopinath Bardoloi
(d) Excluded and Partially Excluded Areas (Other than those in Assam)
Sub-Committee – A.V. Thakkar
(e) North-West Frontier Tribal Areas Sub-Committee

6. Rules of Procedure Committee – Dr. Rajendra Prasad
7. States Committee (Committee for Negotiating with States) – Jawaharlal
   Nehru
8. Steering Committee – Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Minor Committees
1. Finance and Staff Committee – Dr. Rajendra Prasad
2. Credentials Committee – Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
3. House Committee – B. Pattabhi Sitaramayya
4. Order of Business Committee – Dr. K.M. Munshi
5. Ad-hoc Committee on the National Flag – Dr. Rajendra Prasad
6. Committee on the Functions of the Constituent Assembly – G.V.
Mavalankar
7. Ad-hoc Committee on the Supreme Court – S. Varadachari (Not an
Assembly Member)
8. Committee on Chief Commissioners’ Provinces – B. Pattabhi
Sitaramayya
9. Expert Committee on the Financial Provisions of the Union Constitution –
Nalini Ranjan Sarkar (Not an Assembly Member)
10. Linguistic Provinces Commission – S.K. Dar (Not an Assembly Member)
11. Special Committee to Examine the Draft Constitution – Jawaharlal Nehru
12. Press Gallery Committee – Usha Nath Sen
13. Ad-hoc Committee on Citizenship – S. Varadachari

Solution: B

Spirulina is an organism that grows in both fresh and salt water.

• It is a type of cyanobacteria, which is a family of single-celled microbes that are often referred to as blue-green algae.
• Just like plants, cyanobacteria can produce energy from sunlight via a process called photosynthesis.
• Spirulina was consumed by the ancient Aztecs but became popular again when NASA proposed that it could be grown in space for use by astronauts
• A standard daily dose of spirulina is 1–3 grams, but doses of up to 10 grams per day have been used effectively.

This tiny alga is packed with nutrients. Namely

Protein: 4 grams

Vitamin B1 (thiamine):

Vitamin B2 (riboflavin):

Vitamin B3 (niacin):

Copper:

Iron:

It also contains decent amounts of magnesium, potassium and manganese and small amounts of almost every other nutrient that you need.

Spirulina is a fantastic source of antioxidants, which can protect against oxidative damage.

Its main active component is called phycocyanin. This antioxidant substance also gives spirulina its unique blue-green color.

Phycocyanin can fight free radicals and inhibit production of inflammatory signaling molecules, providing impressive antioxidant and anti-inflammatory effects.

https://www.healthline.com/nutrition/10-proven-benefits-of-spirulina#section2

https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Vijayawada/spirulina-to-fight-malnutrition-in-kids/article19738184.ece

Solution: C

The Constitution of India establishes a federal system of Government. It contains all the usual features of a federation, viz., two Government, division of powers, written Constitution, supremacy of Constitution, rigidity of Constitution, independent judiciary and bicameralism.

However, the Indian Constitution also contains a large number of unitary or non-federal features, viz., a strong Centre, single Constitution, single citizenship, flexibility of Constitution, integrated judiciary, appointment of state governor by the Centre, all-India services, emergency provisions and so on.

Extra Learning:

The Constitution of India provides for a federal system of government in
the country.

The framers adopted the federal system due to two main reasons : the large size of the country and its socio-cultural diversity. They realised
that the federal system not only ensures the efficient governance of the
country but also reconciles national unity with regional autonomy.
However, the term ‘federation’ has nowhere been used in the Constitution. Instead, Article 1 of the Constitution describes India as a ‘Union of States’.
According to Dr B R Ambedkar, the phrase ‘Union of States’ has been
preferred to ‘Federation of States’ to indicate two things:

(i) the Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among the states like the American federation; and

(ii) the states have no right to secede from the federation. The federation is union because it is indestructible.
The Indian federal system is based on the ‘Canadian model’ and not on the
‘American model’. The ‘Canadian model’ differs fundamentally from the
‘American model’ in so far as it establishes a very strong centre.

The Indian federation resembles the Canadian federation

(i) in its formation (i.e., by way of disintegration);

(ii) in its preference to the term ‘Union’ (the Canadian federation is also called a ‘Union’); and

(iii) in its centralising tendency (i.e., vesting more powers in the centre vis-a-vis the states).

Solution: A

The Western concept of secularism connotes a complete separation between the religion (the church) and the state (the politics). This negative concept of secularism is inapplicable in the Indian situation where the society is multi-religious.

Hence, the Indian Constitution embodies the positive concept of secularism, i.e., giving equal respect to all religions or protecting all religions equally. The Western concept of secularism connotes a complete separation between the religion (the church) and the state (the politics). This negative concept of secularism is inapplicable in the Indian situation where the society is multi-religious. Hence, the Indian Constitution embodies the positive concept of secularism, i.e., giving equal respect to all religions or protecting all religions equally.

Solution: D

Article 3 authorizes the Parliament to:

(a) form a new state by separation of territory from any state or by uniting two or more states or parts of states or by uniting any territory to a part of any state;

(b) increase the area of any state;

(c) diminish the area of any state;

(d) alter the boundaries of any state; and

(e) alter the name of any state.

However, Article 3 lays down two conditions in this regard: one, a bill contemplating the above changes can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President; and two, before recommending the bill, the President has to refer the same to the state legislature concerned for expressing its views within a specified period.

Article 2 empowers the Parliament to ‘admit into the Union of India, or establish, new states on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit’.

Notably, Article 2 relates to the admission or establishment of new states that are not part of the Union of India. Article 3, on the other hand, relates to the formation of or changes in the existing states of the Union of India. In other words, Article 3 deals with the internal re-adjustment inter se of the territories of the constituent states of the Union of India.

The President (or Parliament) is not bound by the views of the state legislature and may either accept or reject them, even if the views are received in time.

Solution: C

Government of India, in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India, has decided to issue Sovereign Gold Bonds. The Bonds will be sold through Scheduled Commercial banks (except Small Finance Banks and Payment Banks), Stock Holding Corporation of India Limited (SHCIL), designated post offices, and recognized stock exchanges viz., National Stock Exchange of India Limited and Bombay Stock Exchange Limited.

About the Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme:

• The sovereign gold bond was introduced by the Government in 2015.
• Government introduced these bonds to help reduce India’s over dependence on gold imports.
• The move was also aimed at changing the habits of Indians from saving in physical form of gold to a paper form with Sovereign backing.

Key facts:

• Eligibility: The bonds will be restricted for sale to resident Indian entities, including individuals, HUFs, trusts, universities and charitable institutions.
• Denomination and tenor: The bonds will be denominated in multiples of gram(s) of gold with a basic unit of 1 gram. The tenor will be for a period of 8 years with exit option from the 5th year to be exercised on the interest payment dates.
• Minimum and Maximum limit: The minimum permissible investment limit will be 1 gram of gold, while the maximum limit will be 4 kg for individual, 4 kg for HUF and 20 kg for trusts and similar entities per fiscal (April-March) notified by the government from time to time.
• Joint Holder: In case of joint holding, the investment limit of 4 kg will be applied to the first applicant only.
• Collateral: Bonds can be used as collateral for loans. The loan-to-value (LTV) ratio is to be set equal to ordinary gold loan mandated by the Reserve Bank from time to time.
• Tenor: The tenor of the Bond will be for a period of 8 years with exit option after 5th year to be exercised on the interest payment dates.
• Interest rate: The investors will be compensated at a fixed rate of 2.50 percent per annum payable semi-annually on the nominal value.

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/10/01/sovereign-gold-bond-scheme/

Solution: D

Like any other modern state, India has two kinds of people—citizens and
aliens. Citizens are full members of the Indian State and owe allegiance
to it. They enjoy all civil and political rights. Aliens, on the other hand, are
the citizens of some other state and hence, do not enjoy all the civil and
political rights.

They are of two categories—friendly aliens or enemy aliens.
Friendly aliens are the subjects of those countries that have cordial relations
with India. Enemy aliens, on the other hand, are the subjects of that country
that is at war with India. They enjoy lesser rights than the friendly aliens, eg,
they do not enjoy protection against arrest and detention (Article 22).

The Constitution confers the following rights and privileges on the citizens of India (and denies the same to aliens):

1. Right against discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth (Article 15).
2. Right to equality of opportunity in the matter of public employment (Article 16).
3. Right to freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence and profession (Article 19).
4. Cultural and educational rights (Articles 29 and 30).
5. Right to vote in elections to the Lok Sabha and state legislative assembly.
6. Right to contest for the membership of the Parliament and the state legislature.
7. Eligibility to hold certain public offices, that is, President of India, Vice-President of India, judges of the Supreme Court and the high courts, Governor of states, Attorney General of India and Advocate General of states.

Solution: A

Rule of Law The concept of ‘equality before law’ is an element of the concept of ‘Rule of Law’, propounded by A.V. Dicey, the British jurist.

His concept has the following three elements or aspects:

(i) Absence of arbitrary power, that is, no man can be punished except for a breach of law.

(ii) Equality before the law, that is, equal subjection of all citizens (rich or poor, high or low, official or non-official) to the ordinary law of the land administered by the ordinary law courts.

(iii) The primacy of the rights of the individual, that is, the constitution is the result of the rights of the individual as defined and enforced by the courts of law rather than the constitution being the source of the individual rights.

The first and the second elements are applicable to the Indian System and not the third one. In the Indian System, the constitution is the source of the individual rights.

The Supreme Court held that the ‘Rule of Law’ as embodied in Article 14 is a ‘basic feature’ of the constitution. Hence, it cannot be destroyed even by an amendment.

Solution: D

NITI Aayog releases the first edition of School Education Quality Index (SEQI).

About the School Education Quality Index (SEQI):

• Developed by NITI Aayog to evaluate the performance of States and Union Territories (UTs) in the school education sector.
• Aim: To bring an ‘outcomes’ focus to education policy by providing States and UTs with a platform to identify their strengths and weaknesses and undertake requisite course corrections or policy interventions.
• The index is developed through a collaborative process, including key stakeholders such as Ministry of Human Resource and Development (MHRD), the World Bank and sector experts.

It consists of 30 critical indicators that assess the delivery of quality education. These indicators are categorized as below:

• Category 1: Outcomes;
• Domain 1: Learning outcomes
• Domain 2: Access outcomes
• Domain 3: Infrastructure and facilities for outcomes
• Domain 4: Equity outcomes
• Category 2: Governance processes aiding outcomes.

Significance of the index:

• Schooling should result in successful learning outcomes. In this regard, SEQI acts as a credible system of assessment and helps to design necessary remedial actions.

How are they ranked?

• To facilitate a like-for-like comparison, States and UTs have been grouped as Large States, Small States and UTs.
• States’ and UTs’ performance on Learning Outcomes is driven by their results on the National Achievement Survey (NAS) 2017.
• Their performance on Access Outcomes is primarily driven by enrolment ratios at the secondary level and transition rates from upper-primary to secondary level.
• In terms of Infrastructure & Facilities for Outcomes, States’ and UTs’ performance is strongly linked to the presence of Computer Aided-Learning (CAL) at the elementary level and vocational education at the secondary and senior-secondary level.

Performance of various states:

• Kerala has emerged on top among 20 large states in terms of quality of school education, followed by Rajasthan and Karnataka, while the most-populous Uttar Pradesh was ranked at the bottom position during 2016-17.
• Among 20 large states in the country 18 have improved their overall performance between 2015-2016 and 2016-2017, which is otherwise referred to as the incremental performance in the report.
• The highest incremental performance has been recorded in Kerala. As against 77.6% score in 2015-2016, the state has recorded 82.2% in 2016-2017.
• The overall performance has declined in Karnataka and Uttarakhand.
• All seven union territories have shown an improvement in their overall performance scores.
• The performance and ranks have decreased in Mizoram, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh.

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/10/01/school-education-quality-index-seqi/

Solution: C

Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) has now permitted Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) to enroll in National Pension Scheme (NPS) at par with Non-Resident Indians.

What is National Pension System (NPS)?

• It is a government-sponsored pension scheme. It was launched in January 2004 for government employees. However, in 2009, it was opened to all sections.
• The scheme allows subscribers to contribute regularly in a pension account during their working life. On retirement, subscribers can withdraw a part of the corpus in a lumpsum and use the remaining corpus to buy an annuity to secure a regular income after retirement.
• This system is managed by PFRDA (Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority).

Who can join NPS?

• Any Indian citizen between 18 and 65 years can join NPS.
• An NRI can join NPS. However, the account will be closed if there is a change in the citizenship status of the NRI.
• Now, any Indian citizen, resident or non-resident and OCIs are eligible to join NPS till the age of 65 years.

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/10/31/national-pension-scheme-2/

Solution: D

The Directive Principles resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935. In the words of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, ‘the Directive Principles are like the instrument of instructions, which were issued to the Governor-General and to the Governors of the colonies of India by the British Government under the Government of India Act of 1935.

The Directive Principles are non-justiciable in nature, that is, they are not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation.

The Directive Principles, though non-justiciable in nature, help the courts in examining and determining the constitutional validity of a law. The Supreme Court has ruled many a times that in determining the constitutionality of any law, if a court finds that the law in question seeks to give effect to a Directive Principle, it may consider such law to be ‘reasonable’ in relation to Article 14 (equality before law) or Article 19 (six freedoms) and thus save such law from unconstitutionality.

Extra Learning:

Difference between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles:

Solution: A

The President has commuted death sentences to life imprisonment in at least 20 cases over the past nine years, based on the recommendations received from the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).

Clemency powers of the President under article 72:

It says that the President shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence.

• Pardon –A pardon completely absolves the offender from all sentences and punishment and disqualifications and places him in the same position as if he had never committed the offence.
• Commutation– Commutation means exchange of one thing for another. In simple words to replace the punishment with less severe punishment. For example for Rigorous imprisonment-simple imprisonment.
• Reprieve– Reprieve means temporary suspension of death sentence. For example-  pending a proceeding for pardon or commutation.
• Respite – Respite means awarding a lesser punishment on some special grounds. For example- the Pregnancy of women offender.
• Remissions– Remission means the reduction of the amount of sentence without changing its character, for example, a sentence of 1 year may be remitted to 6 months.

The President can exercise these powers:

• In all cases where the punishment or sentence is by a court martial;
• In all cases where the punishment or sentence is for an offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the Union extends;
• In all cases where the sentence is a sentence of death.

The pardoning power of President is wider than the governor and it differs in the following two ways:

• The power of the President to grant pardon extends in cases where the punishment or sentence is by a Court Martial but Article 161 does not provide any such power to the Governor.
• The President can grant pardon in all cases where the sentence given is sentence of death but pardoning power of Governor does not extend to death sentence cases.

Key facts:

• This power of pardon shall be exercised by the President on the advice of Council of Ministers.
• Further, the constitution does not provide for any mechanism to question the legality of decisions of President or governors exercising mercy jurisdiction.
• But the SC in Epuru Sudhakar case has given a small window for judicial review of the pardon powers of President and governors for the purpose of ruling out any arbitrariness.
• The court has earlier held that court has retained the power of judicial review even on a matter which has been vested by the Constitution solely in the Executive.

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/10/05/pardoning-powers-of-president/

Solution: A

Article 368 provides for two types of amendments, that is, by a special
majority of Parliament and also through the ratification of half of the states by a simple majority. But, some other articles provide for the amendment of certain provisions of the Constitution by a simple majority of Parliament, that is, a majority of the members of each House present and voting (similar to the ordinary legislative process). Notably, these amendments are not deemed to be amendments of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368.
Therefore, the Constitution can be amended in three ways:
(a) Amendment by simple majority of the Parliament,
(b) Amendment by special majority of the Parliament, and
(c) Amendment by special majority of the Parliament and the ratification of
half of the state legislatures.

By Special Majority of Parliament and Consent of States

1. Election of the President and its manner.
2. Extent of the executive power of the Union and the states.
3. Supreme Court and high courts.
4. Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the states.
5. Goods and Services Tax Council.
6. Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule.
7. Representation of states in Parliament.
8. Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure (Article 368 itself).

Extra Learning:

By Simple Majority of Parliament
A number of provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple
majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368.
These provisions include:
1. Admission or establishment of new states.
2. Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of
existing states.
3. Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
4. Second Schedule—emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of the
president, the governors, the Speakers, judges, etc.
5. Quorum in Parliament.
6. Salaries and allowances of the members of Parliament.
7. Rules of procedure in Parliament.
8. Privileges of the Parliament, its members and its committees.
9. Use of English language in Parliament.
10. Number of puisne judges in the Supreme Court.
11. Conferment of more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court.
12. Use of official language.
13. Citizenship—acquisition and termination.
14. Elections to Parliament and state legislatures.
15. Delimitation of constituencies.
16. Union territories.
17. Fifth Schedule—administration of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
18. Sixth Schedule—administration of tribal areas.

By Special Majority of Parliament

The provisions which can be amended by this way includes:

(i) Fundamental Rights;

(ii) Directive Principles of State Policy; and

(iii) All other provisions which are not covered by the first and third categories.

Solution: C

Context: Kanya Sumangala Yojana to be launched for girl child in UP.

Key features:

• It will provide a fund worth Rs 15000 to every family where a girl child is born. The amount will be released to the family in a phased manner.
• The scheme has been designed in a way that the parents will have to take proper care of the girl child with respect to her health and education and other aspects, in order to get the benefit.

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/10/25/kanya-sumangala-yojana/

Solution: D

Let the cost price = x

Therefore selling price with 60% profit = 160/100 x =8/5 x

It is given that selling price is 38 more than one-third of cost price

(8/5) * x = x/3 + 38

• (8/5 – 1/3) * x = 38
• ((24 – 5)/15) * x = 38
• x = 38 * 15/19
• x = 30

Therefore, cost price = Rs 30

Solution: C

Ratio of capital invested by each partner.
i.e Ramya and Bharathi for one year in order to get same profit.

Ramya invested for 12 months whereas Bharathi invested for 4 months. Therefore,
= 12 * 60000 : 4 * 30000
= 720000 : 120000
= 6 : 1
Share of Bharathi out of Rs .24500
= 1/7 * 24500
= Rs. 3500

Solution: A

Multiples of 3 between 100 and 200 are 102, 105, 108,.. 198.
Here, the first term = 102
last term = 198
Let the number of Multiples of 3 between 100 and 200 = n

Arithmetic Progression Formula:
a_n = a₁ + (n – 1)d
Where, a_n = last term = 198
a₁ = first term = 102
d = common difference = 105 – 102 = 3
—> 198 = 102 + (n – 1) * 3
—> 198 – 102 = (n – 1) * 3
—> 96 = (n – 1) * 3
—> (n – 1) = 96/3 = 32
—> n = 32 + 1
—> n = 33

Formula:
Sum of n terms = S_n = (n/2) * (a1 + an )
where n = number of elements = 33
a1 = first term = 102
an= last term = 198
Thus, using the above formula, Sum of all natural numbers between 100 and 200 which are multiples of 3 = (33/2) * (102 + 198)
= (33/2) * 300
= 33 * 150
= 4950

Solution: B

Let the given number be : x

It is given that x/2 – x/3 = 6

Or x/6 =6 or x =36

Therefore, sum of the digits 3+6 = 9

Solution: A

The most crucial and critical inference that can be drawn from the passage is A as the passage does give example of jobs involving routine work which are more at threat due to automation. Hence A is the correct answer.