GIVE THESE INSTA TESTS NO MATTER WHAT’S GOING TO BE YOUR SCORE OR HOW MUCH UNDER-PREPARED YOU ARE!. DON’T RUN AWAY FROM WHAT’S DIFFICULT!
THERE IS NO SHORTCUT TO SUCCESS
- STRATEGY – Towards smart preparation in Uncertain times – How to Clear UPSC IAS Prelims? Click Here
- MOTIVATION – I am finding InstaTests Difficult and want to quit Click here
- MOTIVATION – How to Stay Consistent? Click Here
- DOWNLOAD – PDF Files of InstaTests for Quick Revision Click Here
- MOTIVATION – Read our latest article written for you! Click Here
- Download CSAT Plan for next 75 Days – It’s part of INSTA Revision Daily InstaTests.Click Here
- Read about InsightsIAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2020HERE
- Know about how to follow INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan – 2020 – Click Here
- Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. Read about it HERE
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
Quiz-summary
0 of 30 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
Information
Welcome to Insights IAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam – 2020.
If you are wondering why these questions are posted, please refer to the detailed Timetable provided HERE.
These InstaQuestions are carefully framed to help you improve various skills and knowledge necessary to face uncertain, unpredictable and difficult questions in real prelims exam. This InstaTest is NOT about your scores. It’s about an opportunity to make mistakes and learn from these mistakes now itself. Also, these tests are NOT meant to give you EXPECTED questions for the upcoming prelims. These are meant for practice and to help you fine-tune your skills. To do really well in these InstaTests, REVISION is the KEY. Do follow our Revision Timetable religiously. It WILL help you clear Prelims – 2020, and do well in mains – 2020 as well.
Once you give this test, record your scores in MITRA book (My InstaTests Revision and Assessment book) and then please POST your scores in the comment box. In the MITRA book you can also write down your observations and daily outcomes and lessons you learnt. It’s designed to help you stay consistent. The MITRA will be your companion who will remind you about your responsibilities as a serious aspirant. Don’t discard MITRA. Keep him beside you while you follow InstaPlan religiously. Post a photo of OMR in comment section, or post just your scores daily to stay motivated and consistent.
Wish you Good Luck! 🙂
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 30 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Average score |
|
Your score |
|
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result |
---|---|---|---|---|
Table is loading | ||||
No data available | ||||
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding ionosphere
- Here, temperature starts decreasing with increasing height.
- It is located immediately above the stratosphere.
- Radio waves transmitted from the earth are reflected back to the earth by this layer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The mesosphere lies above the stratosphere, which extends up to a height of 80 km. In this layer, once again, temperature starts decreasing with the increase in altitude and reaches up to minus 100°C at the height of 80 km. The upper limit of mesosphere is known as the mesopause. The ionosphere is located between 80 and 400 km above the mesopause. It contains electrically charged particles known as ions, and hence, it is known as ionosphere. Radio waves transmitted from the earth are reflected back to the earth by this layer. Temperature here starts increasing with height.
Extra Learning:
Aurora : Multicoloured lights that appear in the upper atmosphere (ionosphere) over the polar regions and visible from locations in the middle and high latitudes. Caused by the interaction of solar wind with oxygen and nitrogen gas in the atmosphere. Aurora in the Northern Hemisphere are called aurora borealis and aurora australis in the Southern Hemisphere.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The mesosphere lies above the stratosphere, which extends up to a height of 80 km. In this layer, once again, temperature starts decreasing with the increase in altitude and reaches up to minus 100°C at the height of 80 km. The upper limit of mesosphere is known as the mesopause. The ionosphere is located between 80 and 400 km above the mesopause. It contains electrically charged particles known as ions, and hence, it is known as ionosphere. Radio waves transmitted from the earth are reflected back to the earth by this layer. Temperature here starts increasing with height.
Extra Learning:
Aurora : Multicoloured lights that appear in the upper atmosphere (ionosphere) over the polar regions and visible from locations in the middle and high latitudes. Caused by the interaction of solar wind with oxygen and nitrogen gas in the atmosphere. Aurora in the Northern Hemisphere are called aurora borealis and aurora australis in the Southern Hemisphere.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Market Intervention Price Scheme
- It is a price support mechanism implemented on the request of State Governments
- The Scheme is implemented when there is at least 10% increase in production or 10% decrease in the ruling rates over the previous normal year
- It is implemented by the Department of Agriculture & Cooperation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
The government is planning to procure almost 12 lakh metric tonnes of apple this season, under the MISP.
About the Market Intervention Price Scheme:
- It is a price support mechanism implemented on the request of State Governments.
- It is for procurement of perishable and horticultural commodities in the event of a fall in market prices.
- The Scheme is implemented when there is at least 10% increase in production or 10% decrease in the ruling rates over the previous normal year.
- Its objective is to protect the growers of these horticultural/agricultural commodities from making distress sale in the event of bumper crop during the peak arrival period when prices fall to very low level.
- The Department of Agriculture & Cooperation is implementing the scheme.
Funding:
- Under MIP, funds are not allocated to the States.
- Instead, central share of losses as per the guidelines of MIP is released to the State Governments/UTs, for which MIP has been approved, based on specific proposals received from them.
- The area of operation is restricted to the concerned state only.
The MIS has been implemented in case of commodities like apples, kinnoo/malta, garlic, oranges, galgal, grapes, mushrooms, clove, black pepper, pineapple, ginger, red-chillies, coriander seed etc.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/09/11/market-intervention-price-scheme/
Incorrect
Solution: D
The government is planning to procure almost 12 lakh metric tonnes of apple this season, under the MISP.
About the Market Intervention Price Scheme:
- It is a price support mechanism implemented on the request of State Governments.
- It is for procurement of perishable and horticultural commodities in the event of a fall in market prices.
- The Scheme is implemented when there is at least 10% increase in production or 10% decrease in the ruling rates over the previous normal year.
- Its objective is to protect the growers of these horticultural/agricultural commodities from making distress sale in the event of bumper crop during the peak arrival period when prices fall to very low level.
- The Department of Agriculture & Cooperation is implementing the scheme.
Funding:
- Under MIP, funds are not allocated to the States.
- Instead, central share of losses as per the guidelines of MIP is released to the State Governments/UTs, for which MIP has been approved, based on specific proposals received from them.
- The area of operation is restricted to the concerned state only.
The MIS has been implemented in case of commodities like apples, kinnoo/malta, garlic, oranges, galgal, grapes, mushrooms, clove, black pepper, pineapple, ginger, red-chillies, coriander seed etc.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/09/11/market-intervention-price-scheme/
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsDirections: In the following question, the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) have been put forward. Read both the statements carefully
Assertion: There is pressure and temperature difference across the earth.
Reason: The earth neither warms up nor does it get cooled over a period of time.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: B
The earth receives almost all of its energy from the sun. The earth in turn radiates back to space the energy received from the sun. As a result, the earth neither warms up nor does it get cooled over a period of time. Thus, the amount of heat received by different parts of the earth is not the same.
This variation causes pressure differences in the atmosphere. This leads to transfer of heat from one region to the other by winds.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The earth receives almost all of its energy from the sun. The earth in turn radiates back to space the energy received from the sun. As a result, the earth neither warms up nor does it get cooled over a period of time. Thus, the amount of heat received by different parts of the earth is not the same.
This variation causes pressure differences in the atmosphere. This leads to transfer of heat from one region to the other by winds.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Inversion of temperature
- Inversion of temperature is a situation where the temperature increases with increasing altitude.
- A long summer night with cloudy skies and moving air is ideal situation for inversion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Inversion of temperature:
Normally, temperature decreases with increase in elevation. It is called normal lapse rate. At times, the situations are reversed and the normal lapse rate is inverted. It is called Inversion of temperature. Inversion is usually of short duration but quite common nonetheless. A long winter night with clear skies and still air is ideal situation for inversion. The heat of the day is radiated off during the night, and by early morning hours, the earth is cooler than the air above. Over polar areas, temperature inversion is normal throughout the year. Surface inversion promotes stability in the lower layers of the atmosphere. Smoke and dust particles get collected beneath the inversion layer and spread horizontally to fill the lower strata of the atmosphere. Dense fogs in mornings are common occurrences especially during winter season. This inversion commonly lasts for few hours until the sun comes up and beings to warm the earth. The inversion takes place in hills and mountains due to air drainage. Cold air at the hills and mountains, produced during night, flows under the influence of gravity. Being heavy and dense, the cold air acts almost like water and moves down the slope to pile up deeply in pockets and valley bottoms with warm air above. This is called air drainage. It protects plants from frost damages.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Inversion of temperature:
Normally, temperature decreases with increase in elevation. It is called normal lapse rate. At times, the situations are reversed and the normal lapse rate is inverted. It is called Inversion of temperature. Inversion is usually of short duration but quite common nonetheless. A long winter night with clear skies and still air is ideal situation for inversion. The heat of the day is radiated off during the night, and by early morning hours, the earth is cooler than the air above. Over polar areas, temperature inversion is normal throughout the year. Surface inversion promotes stability in the lower layers of the atmosphere. Smoke and dust particles get collected beneath the inversion layer and spread horizontally to fill the lower strata of the atmosphere. Dense fogs in mornings are common occurrences especially during winter season. This inversion commonly lasts for few hours until the sun comes up and beings to warm the earth. The inversion takes place in hills and mountains due to air drainage. Cold air at the hills and mountains, produced during night, flows under the influence of gravity. Being heavy and dense, the cold air acts almost like water and moves down the slope to pile up deeply in pockets and valley bottoms with warm air above. This is called air drainage. It protects plants from frost damages.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs regarding wind circulation
- Polar cell : Cell in the polar region
- Hadley Cell : Cell in the middle latitudes
- Ferrel cell : Cell in the tropics
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: A
Circulations from the surface upwards and vice-versa are called cells. Such a cell in the tropics is called Hadley Cell. In the middle latitudes the circulation is that of sinking cold air that comes from the poles and the rising warm air that blows from the subtropical high. At the surface these winds are called westerlies and the cell is known as the Ferrel cell. At polar
latitudes the cold dense air subsides near the poles and blows towards middle latitudes as the polar easterlies. This cell is called the polar cell. These three cells set the pattern for the general circulation of the atmosphere. The transfer of heat energy from lower latitudes to higher latitudes maintains the general circulation.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Circulations from the surface upwards and vice-versa are called cells. Such a cell in the tropics is called Hadley Cell. In the middle latitudes the circulation is that of sinking cold air that comes from the poles and the rising warm air that blows from the subtropical high. At the surface these winds are called westerlies and the cell is known as the Ferrel cell. At polar
latitudes the cold dense air subsides near the poles and blows towards middle latitudes as the polar easterlies. This cell is called the polar cell. These three cells set the pattern for the general circulation of the atmosphere. The transfer of heat energy from lower latitudes to higher latitudes maintains the general circulation.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Zonal Councils
- These are Statutory bodies
- It aims to promote interstate cooperation and coordination.
- Prime Minister is the Chairman of these Councils.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
29th Meeting of the Northern Zonal Council Held recently.
Zonal councils:
- Statutory bodies established under the States Reorganisation Act 1956 and not constitutional bodies. They are only deliberative and advisory bodies.
- Aim: to promote interstate cooperation and coordination.
There are 5 five Zonal councils namely:
- The Northern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, Punjab, Rajasthan, National Capital Territory of Delhi and Union Territory of Chandigarh.
- The Central Zonal Council, comprising the States of Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.
- The Eastern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Bihar, Jharkhand, Orissa, and West Bengal.
- The Western Zonal Council, comprising the States of Goa, Gujarat, Maharashtra and the Union Territories of Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli.
- The Southern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and the Union Territory of Puducherry.
The North Eastern States i.e. (i) Assam (ii) Arunachal Pradesh (iii) Manipur (iv) Tripura (v) Mizoram (vi) Meghalaya (vii) Sikkim and (viii) Nagaland are not included in the Zonal Councils and their special problems are looked after by the North Eastern Council, set up under the North Eastern Council Act, 1972.
Composition:
- Chairman – The Union Home Minister is the Chairman of each of these Councils.
- Vice Chairman – The Chief Ministers of the States included in each zone act as Vice-Chairman of the Zonal Council for that zone by rotation, each holding office for a period of one year at a time.
- Members– Chief Minister and two other Ministers as nominated by the Governor from each of the States and two members from Union Territories included in the zone.
- Advisers– One person nominated by the Planning Commission (which has been replaced by NITI Ayog now) for each of the Zonal Councils, Chief Secretaries and another officer/Development Commissioner nominated by each of the States included in the Zone.
- Union Ministers are also invited to participate in the meetings of Zonal Councils depending upon necessity.
The main objectives of setting up of Zonal Councils are:
- Bringing out national integration.
- Arresting the growth of acute State consciousness, regionalism, linguism and particularistic tendencies.
- Enabling the Centre and the States to co-operate and exchange ideas and experiences.
- Establishing a climate of co-operation amongst the States for successful and speedy execution of development projects.
Incorrect
Solution: C
29th Meeting of the Northern Zonal Council Held recently.
Zonal councils:
- Statutory bodies established under the States Reorganisation Act 1956 and not constitutional bodies. They are only deliberative and advisory bodies.
- Aim: to promote interstate cooperation and coordination.
There are 5 five Zonal councils namely:
- The Northern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, Punjab, Rajasthan, National Capital Territory of Delhi and Union Territory of Chandigarh.
- The Central Zonal Council, comprising the States of Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.
- The Eastern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Bihar, Jharkhand, Orissa, and West Bengal.
- The Western Zonal Council, comprising the States of Goa, Gujarat, Maharashtra and the Union Territories of Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli.
- The Southern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and the Union Territory of Puducherry.
The North Eastern States i.e. (i) Assam (ii) Arunachal Pradesh (iii) Manipur (iv) Tripura (v) Mizoram (vi) Meghalaya (vii) Sikkim and (viii) Nagaland are not included in the Zonal Councils and their special problems are looked after by the North Eastern Council, set up under the North Eastern Council Act, 1972.
Composition:
- Chairman – The Union Home Minister is the Chairman of each of these Councils.
- Vice Chairman – The Chief Ministers of the States included in each zone act as Vice-Chairman of the Zonal Council for that zone by rotation, each holding office for a period of one year at a time.
- Members– Chief Minister and two other Ministers as nominated by the Governor from each of the States and two members from Union Territories included in the zone.
- Advisers– One person nominated by the Planning Commission (which has been replaced by NITI Ayog now) for each of the Zonal Councils, Chief Secretaries and another officer/Development Commissioner nominated by each of the States included in the Zone.
- Union Ministers are also invited to participate in the meetings of Zonal Councils depending upon necessity.
The main objectives of setting up of Zonal Councils are:
- Bringing out national integration.
- Arresting the growth of acute State consciousness, regionalism, linguism and particularistic tendencies.
- Enabling the Centre and the States to co-operate and exchange ideas and experiences.
- Establishing a climate of co-operation amongst the States for successful and speedy execution of development projects.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following country does not share its border with Bolivia
Correct
Solution: C
Incorrect
Solution: C
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the effect of the latitude on temperature
- In general, the isotherms are parallel to the latitude.
- The deviation from this general trend is more pronounced in January than in July, especially in the southern hemisphere.
- In the month of January, the isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent in the Northern hemisphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
In general, the effect of the latitude on temperature is well pronounced on the map, as the isotherms are generally parallel to the latitude. The deviation from this general trend is more pronounced in January than in July, especially in the northern hemisphere. In the northern hemisphere the land surface area is much larger than in the southern hemisphere. Hence, the effects of land mass and the ocean currents are well pronounced. In January the isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent. This can be seen on the North Atlantic Ocean. The presence of warm ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic drift, make the Northern Atlantic Ocean warmer and the isotherms bend towards the north. Over the land the temperature decreases sharply and the isotherms bend towards south in Europe.
Extra Learning:
Incorrect
Solution: C
In general, the effect of the latitude on temperature is well pronounced on the map, as the isotherms are generally parallel to the latitude. The deviation from this general trend is more pronounced in January than in July, especially in the northern hemisphere. In the northern hemisphere the land surface area is much larger than in the southern hemisphere. Hence, the effects of land mass and the ocean currents are well pronounced. In January the isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent. This can be seen on the North Atlantic Ocean. The presence of warm ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic drift, make the Northern Atlantic Ocean warmer and the isotherms bend towards the north. Over the land the temperature decreases sharply and the isotherms bend towards south in Europe.
Extra Learning:
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding climate groups in Koeppen classification
- A indicates Tropical climate with Average temperature of the coldest month is 18° C or higher
- B indicates Warm Temperate climate with average temperature of the coldest month of the (Mid-latitude) climates between 3° C and 18° C
- H indicates Dry Climate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Incorrect
Solution: A
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Population Register (NPR)
- It is not mandatory for every usual resident of India to register in the NPR.
- It is prepared at the local, sub-District, District, State and National level under provisions of the Citizenship Act 1955 and Citizenship Rules, 2003.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Government has revived National Population Register project at a time when National Register of Citizens has been published in Assam. This has raised concerns among many.
What is National Population Register (NPR)?
- It is a Register of usual residents of the country.
- It is being prepared at the local (Village/sub-Town), sub-District, District, State and National level under provisions of the Citizenship Act 1955 and the Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003.
- It is mandatory for every usual resident of India to register in the NPR.
- Objectives: To create a comprehensive identity database of every usual resident in the country.
Who is a usual resident?
- A usual resident is defined for the purposes of NPR as a person who has resided in a local area for the past 6 months or more or a person who intends to reside in that area for the next 6 months or more.
Components:
- The NPR database would contain demographic as well as biometric details.
- As per the provisions of the NPR, a resident identity card (RIC)will be issued to individuals over the age of 18.
- This will be a chip-embedded smart card containing the demographic and biometric attributes of each individual.
- The UID number will also be printed on the card.
What is the controversy around it?
- Comes in the backdrop of the NRC excluding 19 lakh people in Assam.
- Even as a debate continues on Aadhaar and privacy, the NPR intends to collect a much larger amount of personal data on residents of India.
- The idea of conducting a nationwide NRC would only happen on the basis of the upcoming NPR. After a list of residents is created, a nationwide NRC could go about verifying the citizens from that list.
- There is yet no clarity on the mechanism for protection of this vast amount of data.
Why does the government want so much data?
- Every country must have a comprehensive identity database of its residents with relevant demographic details. It will help the government formulate its policies better and also aid national security.
- It will ease the life of those residing in India by cutting red tape. Not only will it help target government beneficiaries in a better way, but also further cut down paperwork and red tape in a similar manner that Aadhaar has done.
- With NPR data, residents will not have to furnish various proofs of age, address and other details in official work.
- It would also eliminate duplication in voter lists, government insists.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/09/27/national-population-register-npr-2/
Incorrect
Solution: B
Government has revived National Population Register project at a time when National Register of Citizens has been published in Assam. This has raised concerns among many.
What is National Population Register (NPR)?
- It is a Register of usual residents of the country.
- It is being prepared at the local (Village/sub-Town), sub-District, District, State and National level under provisions of the Citizenship Act 1955 and the Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003.
- It is mandatory for every usual resident of India to register in the NPR.
- Objectives: To create a comprehensive identity database of every usual resident in the country.
Who is a usual resident?
- A usual resident is defined for the purposes of NPR as a person who has resided in a local area for the past 6 months or more or a person who intends to reside in that area for the next 6 months or more.
Components:
- The NPR database would contain demographic as well as biometric details.
- As per the provisions of the NPR, a resident identity card (RIC)will be issued to individuals over the age of 18.
- This will be a chip-embedded smart card containing the demographic and biometric attributes of each individual.
- The UID number will also be printed on the card.
What is the controversy around it?
- Comes in the backdrop of the NRC excluding 19 lakh people in Assam.
- Even as a debate continues on Aadhaar and privacy, the NPR intends to collect a much larger amount of personal data on residents of India.
- The idea of conducting a nationwide NRC would only happen on the basis of the upcoming NPR. After a list of residents is created, a nationwide NRC could go about verifying the citizens from that list.
- There is yet no clarity on the mechanism for protection of this vast amount of data.
Why does the government want so much data?
- Every country must have a comprehensive identity database of its residents with relevant demographic details. It will help the government formulate its policies better and also aid national security.
- It will ease the life of those residing in India by cutting red tape. Not only will it help target government beneficiaries in a better way, but also further cut down paperwork and red tape in a similar manner that Aadhaar has done.
- With NPR data, residents will not have to furnish various proofs of age, address and other details in official work.
- It would also eliminate duplication in voter lists, government insists.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/09/27/national-population-register-npr-2/
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding distribution of pressure
- High-pressure areas are found along 30° N and 30° S and are known as the subtropical highs.
- Near the poles the pressure is high and it is known as the polar high.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
World Distribution of Sea Level Pressure
Near the equator the sea level pressure is low and the area is known as equatorial low. Along 30° N and 30° S are found the high-pressure areas known as the subtropical highs. Further pole wards along 60o N and 60o S, the low-pressure belts are termed as the sub polar lows. Near the poles the pressure is high and it is known as the polar high.
Incorrect
Solution: C
World Distribution of Sea Level Pressure
Near the equator the sea level pressure is low and the area is known as equatorial low. Along 30° N and 30° S are found the high-pressure areas known as the subtropical highs. Further pole wards along 60o N and 60o S, the low-pressure belts are termed as the sub polar lows. Near the poles the pressure is high and it is known as the polar high.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO)
- It is a statutory investigation agency in India.
- It falls under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) is a statutory corporate fraud investigating agency in India. Initially, it was set up by a resolution adopted by the Government of India on 2 July 2003 and carried out investigations within the existing legal framework under section 235 to 247 of the erstwhile Companies Act, 1956.
Later, Section 211 of the Companies Act, 2013, accorded the statutory status to the Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO). It is under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, Government of India & primarily supervised by officers from Indian Corporate Law Service, Indian Administrative Service, Indian Police Service, Indian Revenue Service and other Central Services.
The organisation has experts from various financial sector domains. The SFIO is mandated to conduct Multi-disciplinary investigations of major corporate frauds.
It is a multi-disciplinary organization having experts from financial sector, capital market, accountancy, forensic audit, taxation, law, information technology, company law, customs and investigation.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) is a statutory corporate fraud investigating agency in India. Initially, it was set up by a resolution adopted by the Government of India on 2 July 2003 and carried out investigations within the existing legal framework under section 235 to 247 of the erstwhile Companies Act, 1956.
Later, Section 211 of the Companies Act, 2013, accorded the statutory status to the Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO). It is under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, Government of India & primarily supervised by officers from Indian Corporate Law Service, Indian Administrative Service, Indian Police Service, Indian Revenue Service and other Central Services.
The organisation has experts from various financial sector domains. The SFIO is mandated to conduct Multi-disciplinary investigations of major corporate frauds.
It is a multi-disciplinary organization having experts from financial sector, capital market, accountancy, forensic audit, taxation, law, information technology, company law, customs and investigation.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following countries does not share its border with Black Sea
Correct
Solution: A
Incorrect
Solution: A
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsThe Global Liveability Index has been released by
Correct
Solution: D
Global Liveability Index 2019:
- The Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU) has released the Global Liveability Index 2019.
- The index ranks 140 global cities based on their living conditions.
- Significance: The liveability index quantifies the challenges that might be presented to an individual’s lifestyle in 140 cities worldwide, and assesses which locations provide the best living conditions.
- The list is topped by Vienna (Austria) for the second consecutive year.
The survey rates cities worldwide based on 30 qualitative and quantitative criteria, which fall into five general categories:
- Stability
- Health care.
- Culture and environment.
- Education
- Infrastructure
Performance of Indian cities:
- New Delhi has dropped by six places to rank 118th on the list.
- Mumbai also fell two places since last year to rank 119th.
Reasons for decline in liveability in Indian cities:
- Abuses against journalists.
- Rise in Crime rates.
- Climatic changes.
- Constrained liveability conditions.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/09/05/global-liveability-index/
Incorrect
Solution: D
Global Liveability Index 2019:
- The Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU) has released the Global Liveability Index 2019.
- The index ranks 140 global cities based on their living conditions.
- Significance: The liveability index quantifies the challenges that might be presented to an individual’s lifestyle in 140 cities worldwide, and assesses which locations provide the best living conditions.
- The list is topped by Vienna (Austria) for the second consecutive year.
The survey rates cities worldwide based on 30 qualitative and quantitative criteria, which fall into five general categories:
- Stability
- Health care.
- Culture and environment.
- Education
- Infrastructure
Performance of Indian cities:
- New Delhi has dropped by six places to rank 118th on the list.
- Mumbai also fell two places since last year to rank 119th.
Reasons for decline in liveability in Indian cities:
- Abuses against journalists.
- Rise in Crime rates.
- Climatic changes.
- Constrained liveability conditions.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/09/05/global-liveability-index/
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following forces are affecting the velocity and direction of Wind
- The pressure gradient force
- The frictional force
- The Coriolis force
- The gravitational force
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
Forces Affecting the Velocity and Direction of Wind
The air is set in motion due to the differences in atmospheric pressure. The air in motion is called wind. The wind blows from high pressure to low pressure. The wind at the surface experiences friction. In addition, rotation of the earth also affects the wind movement. The force exerted by the rotation of the earth is known as the Coriolis force. Thus, the horizontal winds near the earth surface respond to the combined effect of three forces – the pressure gradient force, the frictional force and the Coriolis force. In addition, the gravitational force acts downward.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Forces Affecting the Velocity and Direction of Wind
The air is set in motion due to the differences in atmospheric pressure. The air in motion is called wind. The wind blows from high pressure to low pressure. The wind at the surface experiences friction. In addition, rotation of the earth also affects the wind movement. The force exerted by the rotation of the earth is known as the Coriolis force. Thus, the horizontal winds near the earth surface respond to the combined effect of three forces – the pressure gradient force, the frictional force and the Coriolis force. In addition, the gravitational force acts downward.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding humidity
- The percentage of moisture present in the atmosphere as compared to its full capacity at a given temperature is known as the absolute humidity.
- The actual amount of the water vapour present in the atmosphere is known as the relative humidity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Water vapor present in the air is known as humidity. It is expressed quantitatively in different ways. The actual amount of the water vapour present in the atmosphere is known as the absolute humidity. It is the weight of water vapour per unit volume of air and is expressed in terms of grams per cubic metre. The ability of the air to hold water vapour depends entirely on its temperature. The absolute humidity differs from place to place on the surface of the earth. The percentage of moisture present in the atmosphere as compared to its full capacity at a given temperature is known as the relative humidity. With the change of air temperature, the capacity to retain moisture increases or decreases and the relative humidity is also affected. It is greater over the oceans and least over the continents. The air containing moisture to its full capacity at a given temperature is said to be saturated. It means that the air at the given temperature is incapable of holding any additional amount of moisture at that stage. The temperature at which saturation occurs in a given sample of air is known as dew point.
As air temperature increases, air can hold more water molecules, and its relative humidity decreases. When temperatures drop, relative humidity increases. High relative humidity of the air occurs when the air temperature approaches the dew point value. Temperature therefore directly relates to the amount of moisture the atmosphere can hold.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Water vapor present in the air is known as humidity. It is expressed quantitatively in different ways. The actual amount of the water vapour present in the atmosphere is known as the absolute humidity. It is the weight of water vapour per unit volume of air and is expressed in terms of grams per cubic metre. The ability of the air to hold water vapour depends entirely on its temperature. The absolute humidity differs from place to place on the surface of the earth. The percentage of moisture present in the atmosphere as compared to its full capacity at a given temperature is known as the relative humidity. With the change of air temperature, the capacity to retain moisture increases or decreases and the relative humidity is also affected. It is greater over the oceans and least over the continents. The air containing moisture to its full capacity at a given temperature is said to be saturated. It means that the air at the given temperature is incapable of holding any additional amount of moisture at that stage. The temperature at which saturation occurs in a given sample of air is known as dew point.
As air temperature increases, air can hold more water molecules, and its relative humidity decreases. When temperatures drop, relative humidity increases. High relative humidity of the air occurs when the air temperature approaches the dew point value. Temperature therefore directly relates to the amount of moisture the atmosphere can hold.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Collegium system
- The Collegium of judges has been mentioned in the Constitution.
- Collegium recommends the transfer of Chief Justices and other judges.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The recent controversy over the transfer of the Chief Justice of the Madras High Court, Justice Vijaya Kamlesh Tahilramani, to the Meghalaya High Court has once again brought to the fore a long-standing debate on the functioning of the ‘Collegium’ of judges.
What is the Collegium system?
- The Collegium of judges does not figure in the Constitution. It is the Supreme Court’s invention.
- Constitution says judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed by the President and speaks of a process of consultation.
- Therefore, Collegium is a system under which judges are appointed by an institution comprising judges.
- Collegium also recommends the transfer of Chief Justices and other judges.
How did this come into being?
- ‘First Judges Case’ (1981) ruled that the “consultation” with the CJI in the matter of appointments must be full and effective. However, the CJI’s opinion should have primacy.
- Second Judges Case (1993) introduced the Collegium system, holding that “consultation” really meant “concurrence”. It added that it was not the CJI’s individual opinion, but an institutional opinion formed in consultation with the two senior-most judges in the Supreme Court.
- Third Judges Case (1998): SC on President’s reference expanded the Collegium to a five-member body, comprising the CJI and four of his senior-most colleagues.
Procedure followed by the Collegium:
- The President of India appoints the CJI and the other SC judges.
- For other judges of the top court, the proposal is initiated by the CJI.
- The CJI consults the rest of the Collegium members, as well as the senior-most judge of the court hailing from the High Court to which the recommended person belongs.
- The consultees must record their opinions in writing and it should form part of the file.
- The Collegium sends the recommendation to the Law Minister, who forwards it to the Prime Minister to advise the President.
- The Chief Justice of High Courts is appointed as per the policy of having Chief Justices from outside the respective States.
- The Collegium takes the call on the elevation.
Appointment of CJI for High Courts:
- High Court judges are recommended by a Collegium comprising the CJI and two senior-most judges.
- The proposal, however, is initiated by the Chief Justice of the High Court concerned in consultation with two senior-most colleagues.
- The recommendation is sent to the Chief Minister, who advises the Governor to send the proposal to the Union Law Minister.
Common criticism made against the Collegium system:
- Opaqueness and a lack of transparency.
- Scope for nepotism.
- Embroilment in public controversies.
- Overlooks several talented junior judges and advocates.
Attempts to reform:
- The attempt made to replace it by a ‘National Judicial Appointments Commission’ was struck down by the court in 2015 on the ground that it posed a threat to the independence of the judiciary.
Reforms needed:
- A transparent and participatory procedure, preferably by an independent broad-based constitutional body guaranteeing judicial primacy but not judicial exclusivity.
- It should ensure independence, reflect diversity, demonstrate professional competence and integrity.
- Instead of selecting the number of judges required against a certain number of vacancies, the collegium must provide a panel of possible names to the President to appointment in order of preference and other valid criteri
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/09/16/collegium-of-supreme-court-judges/
Incorrect
Solution: A
The recent controversy over the transfer of the Chief Justice of the Madras High Court, Justice Vijaya Kamlesh Tahilramani, to the Meghalaya High Court has once again brought to the fore a long-standing debate on the functioning of the ‘Collegium’ of judges.
What is the Collegium system?
- The Collegium of judges does not figure in the Constitution. It is the Supreme Court’s invention.
- Constitution says judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed by the President and speaks of a process of consultation.
- Therefore, Collegium is a system under which judges are appointed by an institution comprising judges.
- Collegium also recommends the transfer of Chief Justices and other judges.
How did this come into being?
- ‘First Judges Case’ (1981) ruled that the “consultation” with the CJI in the matter of appointments must be full and effective. However, the CJI’s opinion should have primacy.
- Second Judges Case (1993) introduced the Collegium system, holding that “consultation” really meant “concurrence”. It added that it was not the CJI’s individual opinion, but an institutional opinion formed in consultation with the two senior-most judges in the Supreme Court.
- Third Judges Case (1998): SC on President’s reference expanded the Collegium to a five-member body, comprising the CJI and four of his senior-most colleagues.
Procedure followed by the Collegium:
- The President of India appoints the CJI and the other SC judges.
- For other judges of the top court, the proposal is initiated by the CJI.
- The CJI consults the rest of the Collegium members, as well as the senior-most judge of the court hailing from the High Court to which the recommended person belongs.
- The consultees must record their opinions in writing and it should form part of the file.
- The Collegium sends the recommendation to the Law Minister, who forwards it to the Prime Minister to advise the President.
- The Chief Justice of High Courts is appointed as per the policy of having Chief Justices from outside the respective States.
- The Collegium takes the call on the elevation.
Appointment of CJI for High Courts:
- High Court judges are recommended by a Collegium comprising the CJI and two senior-most judges.
- The proposal, however, is initiated by the Chief Justice of the High Court concerned in consultation with two senior-most colleagues.
- The recommendation is sent to the Chief Minister, who advises the Governor to send the proposal to the Union Law Minister.
Common criticism made against the Collegium system:
- Opaqueness and a lack of transparency.
- Scope for nepotism.
- Embroilment in public controversies.
- Overlooks several talented junior judges and advocates.
Attempts to reform:
- The attempt made to replace it by a ‘National Judicial Appointments Commission’ was struck down by the court in 2015 on the ground that it posed a threat to the independence of the judiciary.
Reforms needed:
- A transparent and participatory procedure, preferably by an independent broad-based constitutional body guaranteeing judicial primacy but not judicial exclusivity.
- It should ensure independence, reflect diversity, demonstrate professional competence and integrity.
- Instead of selecting the number of judges required against a certain number of vacancies, the collegium must provide a panel of possible names to the President to appointment in order of preference and other valid criteri
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/09/16/collegium-of-supreme-court-judges/
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following conditions are favourable for the formation of tropical cyclones
- Large sea surface with temperature higher than 27° C
- Presence of the Coriolis force
- Small variations in the vertical wind speed
- A pre-existing weak low-pressure area
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
Tropical cyclones originate and intensify over warm tropical oceans. The conditions favorable for the formation and intensification of tropical storms are:
(i) Large sea surface with temperature higher than 27° C;
(ii) Presence of the Coriolis force;
(iii) Small variations in the vertical wind speed;
(iv) A pre-existing weak low-pressure area or low-level-cyclonic circulation;
(v) Upper divergence above the sea level system.
The energy that intensifies the storm, comes from the condensation process in the towering cumulonimbus clouds, surrounding the centre of the storm. With continuous supply of moisture from the sea, the storm is further strengthened. On reaching the land the moisture supply is cut off and the storm dissipates. The place where a tropical cyclone crosses the coast is called the landfall of the cyclone. The cyclones, which cross 20° N latitude generally, recurve and they are more destructive.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Tropical cyclones originate and intensify over warm tropical oceans. The conditions favorable for the formation and intensification of tropical storms are:
(i) Large sea surface with temperature higher than 27° C;
(ii) Presence of the Coriolis force;
(iii) Small variations in the vertical wind speed;
(iv) A pre-existing weak low-pressure area or low-level-cyclonic circulation;
(v) Upper divergence above the sea level system.
The energy that intensifies the storm, comes from the condensation process in the towering cumulonimbus clouds, surrounding the centre of the storm. With continuous supply of moisture from the sea, the storm is further strengthened. On reaching the land the moisture supply is cut off and the storm dissipates. The place where a tropical cyclone crosses the coast is called the landfall of the cyclone. The cyclones, which cross 20° N latitude generally, recurve and they are more destructive.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Chagos Islands/ Chagos Archipelago
- It is the southernmost archipelago of the Chagos-Laccadive Ridge
- It is located south of Mauritius in Indian Ocean.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The Chagos Archipelago or Chagos Islands (formerly the Bassas de Chagas, and later the Oil Islands) are a group of seven atolls comprising more than 60 individual tropical islands in the Indian Ocean about 500 kilometres (310 mi) south of the Maldives archipelago.
This chain of islands is the southernmost archipelago of the Chagos-Laccadive Ridge, a long submarine mountain range in the Indian Ocean.
Chagos Islands are home to US military base of diego Garcia under lease from the UK since 1960s. ICJ recently ruled that UK must hand over Chagos islands to Mauritius and complete the process of decolonization
Incorrect
Solution: A
The Chagos Archipelago or Chagos Islands (formerly the Bassas de Chagas, and later the Oil Islands) are a group of seven atolls comprising more than 60 individual tropical islands in the Indian Ocean about 500 kilometres (310 mi) south of the Maldives archipelago.
This chain of islands is the southernmost archipelago of the Chagos-Laccadive Ridge, a long submarine mountain range in the Indian Ocean.
Chagos Islands are home to US military base of diego Garcia under lease from the UK since 1960s. ICJ recently ruled that UK must hand over Chagos islands to Mauritius and complete the process of decolonization
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Sea Breezes
- In the Sea Breezes, the wind blows from the land to the sea.
- It takes place usually during night time.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Land and Sea Breezes
The land and sea absorb and transfer heat differently. During the day the land heats up faster and becomes warmer than the sea. Therefore, over the land the air rises giving rise to a low-pressure area, whereas the sea is relatively cool and the pressure over sea is relatively high. Thus, pressure gradient from sea to land is created and the wind blows from the sea to the land as the sea breeze. In the night the reversal of condition takes place. The land loses heat faster and is cooler than the sea. The pressure gradient is from the land to the sea and hence land breeze results (Figure 10.7).
Incorrect
Solution: D
Land and Sea Breezes
The land and sea absorb and transfer heat differently. During the day the land heats up faster and becomes warmer than the sea. Therefore, over the land the air rises giving rise to a low-pressure area, whereas the sea is relatively cool and the pressure over sea is relatively high. Thus, pressure gradient from sea to land is created and the wind blows from the sea to the land as the sea breeze. In the night the reversal of condition takes place. The land loses heat faster and is cooler than the sea. The pressure gradient is from the land to the sea and hence land breeze results (Figure 10.7).
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsThe countries bordering Kyrgyzstan are
- Kazakhstan
- China
- Afghanistan
- Uzbekistan
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: B
Kyrgyzstan is a landlocked country with mountainous terrain. It is bordered by Kazakhstan to the north, Uzbekistan to the west and southwest, Tajikistan to the southwest and China to the east. Its capital and largest city is Bishkek.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Kyrgyzstan is a landlocked country with mountainous terrain. It is bordered by Kazakhstan to the north, Uzbekistan to the west and southwest, Tajikistan to the southwest and China to the east. Its capital and largest city is Bishkek.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Heat Budget
- Roughly 50 percent of heat received from sun is reflected back to space even before reaching the earth’s surface.
- The absorbed amount of radiation by the Earth is called the albedo of the earth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
The earth as a whole does not accumulate or loose heat. It maintains its temperature. This can happen only if the amount of heat received in the form of insolation equals the amount lost by the earth through terrestrial radiation. Consider that the insolation received at the top of the atmosphere is 100 per cent. While passing through the atmosphere some amount of energy is reflected, scattered and absorbed. Only the remaining part reaches the earth surface. Roughly 35 units are reflected back to space even before reaching the earth’s surface. Of these, 27 units are reflected back from the top of the clouds and 2 units from the snow and ice-covered areas of the earth. The reflected amount of radiation is called the albedo of the earth.
The remaining 65 units are absorbed, 14 units within the atmosphere and 51 units by the earth’s surface.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The earth as a whole does not accumulate or loose heat. It maintains its temperature. This can happen only if the amount of heat received in the form of insolation equals the amount lost by the earth through terrestrial radiation. Consider that the insolation received at the top of the atmosphere is 100 per cent. While passing through the atmosphere some amount of energy is reflected, scattered and absorbed. Only the remaining part reaches the earth surface. Roughly 35 units are reflected back to space even before reaching the earth’s surface. Of these, 27 units are reflected back from the top of the clouds and 2 units from the snow and ice-covered areas of the earth. The reflected amount of radiation is called the albedo of the earth.
The remaining 65 units are absorbed, 14 units within the atmosphere and 51 units by the earth’s surface.
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following ideologies is closest to the “ASEAN Way”?
Correct
Solution: B
The ASEAN Way is defined a shared of norms, principles, and values governing the interactions of ASEAN member states. Keeping ASEAN together despite these deep cultural, economic and political differences – along with mistrust between different members – has always been an immense challenge.
Unlike other regional or international organizations, ASEAN possesses its own model of diplomatic engagement: the ASEAN Way.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The ASEAN Way is defined a shared of norms, principles, and values governing the interactions of ASEAN member states. Keeping ASEAN together despite these deep cultural, economic and political differences – along with mistrust between different members – has always been an immense challenge.
Unlike other regional or international organizations, ASEAN possesses its own model of diplomatic engagement: the ASEAN Way.
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsArrange the following capital cities from north to south
- Vientiane
- Hanoi
- Bangkok
- Phnom Penh
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: B
Incorrect
Solution: B
-
Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding S-400 triumf
- It is a long range air defence system consists of a surface to air missile that can attack UAVs, drones, cruise missiles.
- It can engage the targets within the range of 4000 km at an altitude of up to 30km.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Russia’s S-400 Triumph air defence system integrates a multifunction radar, autonomous detection and targeting systems, anti-aircraft missile systems, launchers, and command and control centre. It is capable of firing three types of missiles to create a layered defence.
The system can engage all types of aerial targets, including aircraft, unmanned aerial vehicles (UAV), and ballistic and cruise missiles, within the range of 400km at an altitude of up to 30km. The system can simultaneously engage 36 targets.
The S-400 is twice as effective as the previous Russian air defence systems and can be deployed within five minutes. It can also be integrated into the existing and future air defence units of the airforce, army and navy.
https://www.army-technology.com/projects/s-400-triumph-air-defence-missile-system/
Incorrect
Solution: A
Russia’s S-400 Triumph air defence system integrates a multifunction radar, autonomous detection and targeting systems, anti-aircraft missile systems, launchers, and command and control centre. It is capable of firing three types of missiles to create a layered defence.
The system can engage all types of aerial targets, including aircraft, unmanned aerial vehicles (UAV), and ballistic and cruise missiles, within the range of 400km at an altitude of up to 30km. The system can simultaneously engage 36 targets.
The S-400 is twice as effective as the previous Russian air defence systems and can be deployed within five minutes. It can also be integrated into the existing and future air defence units of the airforce, army and navy.
https://www.army-technology.com/projects/s-400-triumph-air-defence-missile-system/
-
Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsThe cost price of 2 shirts and 3 jeans is Rs. 2200 and the cost price of 2 jeans and 4 shirts is Rs. 2400. Find the ratio between the cost price of the jeans and the shirt.
Correct
Solution: B
Let the cost price of one shirt be x and cost price of one jean be y.
2x + 3y = 2200 ……(i)
2y + 4x = 2400 or 2x + y = 1200 …(ii)
By solving the equation (i) and (ii),
x = Rs.350; y = Rs. 500
Therefore the required ratio = 500 : 350 = 10 : 7Incorrect
Solution: B
Let the cost price of one shirt be x and cost price of one jean be y.
2x + 3y = 2200 ……(i)
2y + 4x = 2400 or 2x + y = 1200 …(ii)
By solving the equation (i) and (ii),
x = Rs.350; y = Rs. 500
Therefore the required ratio = 500 : 350 = 10 : 7 -
Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsFor every 2 chocolate Mahesh gets Umesh is given 3 chocolate. If the total number of chocolate distributed to them is 65, then find the number of chocolates Umesh received?
Correct
Solution: D
Let Mahesh gets 2x chocolates and Umesh gets 3x chocolates.
Total chocolates = 5x =65
Or x= 13
Therefore, Total chocolates received by Umesh = 3x = 3 * 13 = 39.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Let Mahesh gets 2x chocolates and Umesh gets 3x chocolates.
Total chocolates = 5x =65
Or x= 13
Therefore, Total chocolates received by Umesh = 3x = 3 * 13 = 39.
-
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsTwo numbers are in the ratio 7:9. If 12 is subtracted from each of them, the ratio becomes 3:5. The product of the numbers is:
Correct
Solution: B
Given, ratio of two numbers = 7: 9
Let two numbers be 7x and 9x
If 12 is subtracted from each number, then new numbers are (7x -12) and (9x – 12)
It is given that (7x-12)/(9x-12) = 3/5
=> 5(7x – 12) = 3(9x – 12)
=> 35x – 60 = 27x – 36
=> 8x = 24 or x = 3
Product of the numbers = 7x * 9x = 7(3) * 9(3) = 21 * 27 = 567Incorrect
Solution: B
Given, ratio of two numbers = 7: 9
Let two numbers be 7x and 9x
If 12 is subtracted from each number, then new numbers are (7x -12) and (9x – 12)
It is given that (7x-12)/(9x-12) = 3/5
=> 5(7x – 12) = 3(9x – 12)
=> 35x – 60 = 27x – 36
=> 8x = 24 or x = 3
Product of the numbers = 7x * 9x = 7(3) * 9(3) = 21 * 27 = 567 -
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsRatio between two numbers is 3:2 and their difference is 25, then find the smaller number ?
Correct
Solution: B
Given, the ratio of two numbers = 3 : 2
Let the two numbers be 3x and 2x
Given, their difference = 25
=> 3x – 2x = 25
=> x = 25
Smaller number = 2x = 2 * 25 = 50Incorrect
Solution: B
Given, the ratio of two numbers = 3 : 2
Let the two numbers be 3x and 2x
Given, their difference = 25
=> 3x – 2x = 25
=> x = 25
Smaller number = 2x = 2 * 25 = 50 -
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsDirections for the following (one) item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follow. Your answer to this item should be based on the passage only.
School safety’ has been defined as the creation of a safe environment for children, starting from their homes to their schools and back. This includes safety from large-scale ‘natural’ hazards of geological/climatic origin, human-made risks, pandemics, violence as well as more frequent and smaller-scale fires, transportation and other related emergencies and threats that can adversely affect the lives of children. The concept of ‘safe school’ has evolved over the last couple of decades as the threat to the physical well-being of children has risen both globally and in India. International attention was drawn to the safety of school children in ‘The Hyogo Framework for Action: Building the Resilience of Nations and Communities to Disasters’, adopted by the United Nations in 2005.
In light of the above passage, which of the following statement(s) is/are true about school safety?
- School safety concerns itself with safety of children inside school premises
- School safety as an issue has also been raised at disaster management conferences
Correct
Solution: B.
School safety includes safety also from school to home. Hence 1 is wrong. School safety has been talked about at Hyogo Conference, Hence 2 is correct. Hence option (b) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: B.
School safety includes safety also from school to home. Hence 1 is wrong. School safety has been talked about at Hyogo Conference, Hence 2 is correct. Hence option (b) is correct.