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Welcome to Insights IAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam – 2020.
If you are wondering why these questions are posted, please refer to the detailed Timetable provided HERE.
These InstaQuestions are carefully framed to help you improve various skills and knowledge necessary to face uncertain, unpredictable and difficult questions in real prelims exam. This InstaTest is NOT about your scores. It’s about an opportunity to make mistakes and learn from these mistakes now itself. Also, these tests are NOT meant to give you EXPECTED questions for the upcoming prelims. These are meant for practice and to help you fine-tune your skills. To do really well in these InstaTests, REVISION is the KEY. Do follow our Revision Timetable religiously. It WILL help you clear Prelims – 2020, and do well in mains – 2020 as well.
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Gas Hydrates
- Gas hydrates are formed when a gas such as methane gets
trapped in well-defined cages of water molecules forming crystalline solids. - Their decomposition can release large amounts of Carbon Dioxide (CO2) that could impact Earth’s climate.
- Sudden release of pressurized methane gas from ocean base may cause submarine landslides, which in turn can trigger tsunamis.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Gas hydrates are ice-like crystalline minerals that form when low molecular weight gas (such as methane, ethane, or carbon dioxide) combines with water and freezes into a solid under low temperature and moderate pressure conditions.
Most gas hydrates are formed from methane (CH4), which has led to the terms “gas hydrate” and “methane hydrate” often being used interchangeably.
On Earth, gas hydrates occur naturally in some marine sediments and within and beneath permafrost. They are also speculated to form on other planets.
Hydrate deposits are important for a variety of reasons:
- Gas hydrate deposits may contain roughly twice the carbon contained in all reserves of coal, oil, and conventional natural gas combined, making them a potentially valuable energy resource.
- Their decomposition can release large amounts of methane, which is a greenhouse gas that could impact Earth’s climate.
- Sudden release of pressurized methane gas may cause submarine landslides, which in turn can trigger tsunamis.
- Gas hydrates in the ocean can be associated with unusual and possibly unique biological communities that use hydrocarbons or hydrogen sulfide for carbon and energy, via a process known as chemosynthesis.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Gas hydrates are ice-like crystalline minerals that form when low molecular weight gas (such as methane, ethane, or carbon dioxide) combines with water and freezes into a solid under low temperature and moderate pressure conditions.
Most gas hydrates are formed from methane (CH4), which has led to the terms “gas hydrate” and “methane hydrate” often being used interchangeably.
On Earth, gas hydrates occur naturally in some marine sediments and within and beneath permafrost. They are also speculated to form on other planets.
Hydrate deposits are important for a variety of reasons:
- Gas hydrate deposits may contain roughly twice the carbon contained in all reserves of coal, oil, and conventional natural gas combined, making them a potentially valuable energy resource.
- Their decomposition can release large amounts of methane, which is a greenhouse gas that could impact Earth’s climate.
- Sudden release of pressurized methane gas may cause submarine landslides, which in turn can trigger tsunamis.
- Gas hydrates in the ocean can be associated with unusual and possibly unique biological communities that use hydrocarbons or hydrogen sulfide for carbon and energy, via a process known as chemosynthesis.
- Gas hydrates are formed when a gas such as methane gets
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Biodiversity
- Biodiversity is the term popularized by the socio-biologist Edward Wilson.
- Species diversity means a single species might show high diversity at the genetic level over its distributional range.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Levels of Biodiversity
Biodiversity is the term popularized by the sociobiologist Edward Wilson to describe the combined diversity at all the levels of biological organisation.
The most important of them are–
(i) Genetic diversity: A single species might show high diversity at the genetic level over its distributional range. The genetic variation shown by the medicinal plant Rauwolfia vomitoria growing in different Himalayan ranges might be in terms of the potency and concentration of the active chemical (reserpine) that the plant produces. India has more than 50,000 genetically different strains of rice, and 1,000 varieties of mango.
(ii) Species diversity: The diversity at the species level, for example, the Western Ghats has greater amphibian species diversity than the Eastern Ghats.
(iii) Ecological diversity: At the ecosystem level, India, for instance, with its deserts, rain forests, mangroves, coral reefs, wetlands, estuaries, and alpine meadows has greater ecosystem diversity than a Scandinavian country like Norway.
Extra Learning:
‘United for Biodiversity’ coalition:
The European Commission (EC) has launched the ‘United for Biodiversity’ coalition.
It was launched on World Wildlife Day 2020- 3rd March.
What is it?
- The coalition is made up of zoos, aquariums, botanical gardens, national parks, and natural history and science museums from around the world.
- The coalition offers the opportunity for all such institutions to “join forces and boost public awareness about the nature crisis, ahead of the crucial COP-15 of the Convention on Biological Diversity in Kunming, China in October 2020.
A common pledge adopted:
The coalition adopted a common pledge, citing the Intergovernmental Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES) Global Assessment finding that one million species were already at risk of extinction, and appeals to visitors to each of their institutions to “raise their voice for nature.”
Need for this coalition:
These organisations are vital not only for cataloguing and preserving the natural world, but are indispensable and invaluable centres for education and mobilisation — particularly for young leaders and decision-makers of the future.
What is IPBES?
The Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES) is an independent intergovernmental body, established by member states in 2012. The objective of IPBES is to strengthen the science-policy interface for biodiversity and ecosystem services for the conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity, long-term human well-being and sustainable development.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/11/united-for-biodiversity/
Incorrect
Solution: A
Levels of Biodiversity
Biodiversity is the term popularized by the sociobiologist Edward Wilson to describe the combined diversity at all the levels of biological organisation.
The most important of them are–
(i) Genetic diversity: A single species might show high diversity at the genetic level over its distributional range. The genetic variation shown by the medicinal plant Rauwolfia vomitoria growing in different Himalayan ranges might be in terms of the potency and concentration of the active chemical (reserpine) that the plant produces. India has more than 50,000 genetically different strains of rice, and 1,000 varieties of mango.
(ii) Species diversity: The diversity at the species level, for example, the Western Ghats has greater amphibian species diversity than the Eastern Ghats.
(iii) Ecological diversity: At the ecosystem level, India, for instance, with its deserts, rain forests, mangroves, coral reefs, wetlands, estuaries, and alpine meadows has greater ecosystem diversity than a Scandinavian country like Norway.
Extra Learning:
‘United for Biodiversity’ coalition:
The European Commission (EC) has launched the ‘United for Biodiversity’ coalition.
It was launched on World Wildlife Day 2020- 3rd March.
What is it?
- The coalition is made up of zoos, aquariums, botanical gardens, national parks, and natural history and science museums from around the world.
- The coalition offers the opportunity for all such institutions to “join forces and boost public awareness about the nature crisis, ahead of the crucial COP-15 of the Convention on Biological Diversity in Kunming, China in October 2020.
A common pledge adopted:
The coalition adopted a common pledge, citing the Intergovernmental Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES) Global Assessment finding that one million species were already at risk of extinction, and appeals to visitors to each of their institutions to “raise their voice for nature.”
Need for this coalition:
These organisations are vital not only for cataloguing and preserving the natural world, but are indispensable and invaluable centres for education and mobilisation — particularly for young leaders and decision-makers of the future.
What is IPBES?
The Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES) is an independent intergovernmental body, established by member states in 2012. The objective of IPBES is to strengthen the science-policy interface for biodiversity and ecosystem services for the conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity, long-term human well-being and sustainable development.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/11/united-for-biodiversity/
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Biodiversity across the world
- More than 70 per cent of all the species recorded are plants
- Among animals, insects are the most species-rich taxonomic group, making up more than 70 per cent of the total.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
More than 70 per cent of all the species recorded are animals, while plants (including algae, fungi, bryophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms) comprise no more than 22 per cent of the total. Among animals, insects are the most species-rich taxonomic group, making up more than 70 per cent of the total. That means, out of every 10 animals on this planet, 7 are insects.
Incorrect
Solution: B
More than 70 per cent of all the species recorded are animals, while plants (including algae, fungi, bryophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms) comprise no more than 22 per cent of the total. Among animals, insects are the most species-rich taxonomic group, making up more than 70 per cent of the total. That means, out of every 10 animals on this planet, 7 are insects.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Raisina Dialogue
- It is a multilateral conference committed to addressing the most challenging issues facing the global community.
- It is annually conducted by MEA and Observer Research Foundation
(ORF)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The Raisina Dialogue is a multilateral conference committed to addressing the most challenging issues facing the global community. Every year, global leaders in policy, business, media and civil society are hosted in New Delhi to discuss cooperation on a wide range of pertinent international policy matters.
The Dialogue is structured as a multi-stakeholder, cross-sectoral discussion, involving heads of state, cabinet ministers and local government officials, as well as major private sector executives, members of the media and academics.
The conference is hosted by the Observer Research Foundation in collaboration with the Government of India, Ministry of External Affair
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Raisina Dialogue is a multilateral conference committed to addressing the most challenging issues facing the global community. Every year, global leaders in policy, business, media and civil society are hosted in New Delhi to discuss cooperation on a wide range of pertinent international policy matters.
The Dialogue is structured as a multi-stakeholder, cross-sectoral discussion, involving heads of state, cabinet ministers and local government officials, as well as major private sector executives, members of the media and academics.
The conference is hosted by the Observer Research Foundation in collaboration with the Government of India, Ministry of External Affair
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are Ex situ Conservation methods
- Botanical gardens
- Zoological parks
- Sacred groves
- Wildlife safari parks
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Ex situ Conservation– In this approach, threatened animals and plants are taken out from their natural habitat and placed in special setting where they can be protected and given special care. Zoological parks, botanical gardens and wildlife safari parks serve this purpose. There are many animals that have become extinct in the wild but continue to be maintained in zoological parks.
A sacred grove or sacred woods are any grove of trees that are of special religious importance to a particular culture. Sacred groves feature in various cultures throughout the world. Thus, they belong to in-situ conservation efforts.
The degree of sanctity accorded to the sacred groves varies from one area to another. In some forests, even the dry foliage and fallen fruits are not touched. People believe that any kind of disturbance will offend the local deity, causing diseases, natural calamities or failure of crops. For example, the Garo and the Khasi tribes of north-eastern India prohibit any human interference in the sacred groves. In other places, deadwood or dried leaves may be picked up, but the live tree or its branches are never cut. For example, the Gonds of central India prohibit the cutting of a tree but allow fallen parts to be used.
Extra Learning:
Incorrect
Solution: D
Ex situ Conservation– In this approach, threatened animals and plants are taken out from their natural habitat and placed in special setting where they can be protected and given special care. Zoological parks, botanical gardens and wildlife safari parks serve this purpose. There are many animals that have become extinct in the wild but continue to be maintained in zoological parks.
A sacred grove or sacred woods are any grove of trees that are of special religious importance to a particular culture. Sacred groves feature in various cultures throughout the world. Thus, they belong to in-situ conservation efforts.
The degree of sanctity accorded to the sacred groves varies from one area to another. In some forests, even the dry foliage and fallen fruits are not touched. People believe that any kind of disturbance will offend the local deity, causing diseases, natural calamities or failure of crops. For example, the Garo and the Khasi tribes of north-eastern India prohibit any human interference in the sacred groves. In other places, deadwood or dried leaves may be picked up, but the live tree or its branches are never cut. For example, the Gonds of central India prohibit the cutting of a tree but allow fallen parts to be used.
Extra Learning:
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Kartarpur Corridor project
- The Kartarpur Corridor will provide visa-free access to the shrine
- It will be developed from Dera Baba Nanak village in Gurdaspur, Punjab to Gurdwara Darbar Sahib, Kartarpur.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The second round of talks with Pakistan on the modalities for operationalisation of the Kartarpur Sahib Corridor was recently held at Wagah, Pakistan. Pakistan has agreed in principle to allow visa-free, year-long travel to the Sikh shrine.
The Union Cabinet has already approved the building and development of the Kartarpur corridor from Dera Baba Nanak in Gurdaspur district to the international border, in order to facilitate pilgrims from India to visit Gurdwara Darbar Sahib Kartarpur on the banks of the Ravi river, in Pakistan, where Shri Guru Nanak Devji spent eighteen years.
Kartarpur Corridor” project:
The corridor – often dubbed as the “Road to Peace” – will connect Gurdwara Darbar Sahib in Pakistan’s Kartarpur with Dera Baba Nanak shrine in India’s Gurdaspur district. The construction of the corridor will allow visa-free access to pilgrims from India. The proposal for the corridor has been on the table since 1988, but tense relations between the two countries led to the delay.
Implementation:
The Kartarpur corridor will be implemented as an integrated development project with Government of India funding, to provide smooth and easy passage, with all the modern amenities.
The shrine:
- The gurdwara in Kartarpur stands on the bank of the Ravi, about 120 km northeast of Lahore.
- It was here that Guru Nanak assembled a Sikh community and lived for 18 years until his death in 1539.
- The shrine is visible from the Indian side, as Pakistani authorities generally trim the elephant grass that would otherwise obstruct the view.
- Indian Sikhs gather in large numbers for darshan from the Indian side, and binoculars are installed at Gurdwara Dera Baba Nanak.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/07/15/kartarpur-sahib-pilgrim-corridor-3/
Incorrect
Solution: C
The second round of talks with Pakistan on the modalities for operationalisation of the Kartarpur Sahib Corridor was recently held at Wagah, Pakistan. Pakistan has agreed in principle to allow visa-free, year-long travel to the Sikh shrine.
The Union Cabinet has already approved the building and development of the Kartarpur corridor from Dera Baba Nanak in Gurdaspur district to the international border, in order to facilitate pilgrims from India to visit Gurdwara Darbar Sahib Kartarpur on the banks of the Ravi river, in Pakistan, where Shri Guru Nanak Devji spent eighteen years.
Kartarpur Corridor” project:
The corridor – often dubbed as the “Road to Peace” – will connect Gurdwara Darbar Sahib in Pakistan’s Kartarpur with Dera Baba Nanak shrine in India’s Gurdaspur district. The construction of the corridor will allow visa-free access to pilgrims from India. The proposal for the corridor has been on the table since 1988, but tense relations between the two countries led to the delay.
Implementation:
The Kartarpur corridor will be implemented as an integrated development project with Government of India funding, to provide smooth and easy passage, with all the modern amenities.
The shrine:
- The gurdwara in Kartarpur stands on the bank of the Ravi, about 120 km northeast of Lahore.
- It was here that Guru Nanak assembled a Sikh community and lived for 18 years until his death in 1539.
- The shrine is visible from the Indian side, as Pakistani authorities generally trim the elephant grass that would otherwise obstruct the view.
- Indian Sikhs gather in large numbers for darshan from the Indian side, and binoculars are installed at Gurdwara Dera Baba Nanak.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/07/15/kartarpur-sahib-pilgrim-corridor-3/
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding measurement of Biodiversity
- Alpha diversity: It refers to the diversity within a particular area or ecosystem.
- Beta diversity: It measures the proportion of species at a given site.
- Gamma diversity: It is a measure of the overall diversity for the different ecosystems within a region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Biodiversity is measured by two major components:
- species richness, and
- species evenness.
(i) Species richness: It is the measure of number of species found in a community
a) Alpha diversity: It refers to the diversity within a particular area or ecosystem, and is usually expressed by the number of species (i.e., species richness) in that ecosystem.
b) Beta diversity: It is a comparison of diversity between ecosystems, usually measured as the change in amount of species between the ecosystems
c) Gamma diversity: It is a measure of the overall diversity for the different ecosystems within a region.
(ii) Species evenness: It measures the proportion of species at a given site, e.g. low evenness indicates that a few species dominate the site.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Biodiversity is measured by two major components:
- species richness, and
- species evenness.
(i) Species richness: It is the measure of number of species found in a community
a) Alpha diversity: It refers to the diversity within a particular area or ecosystem, and is usually expressed by the number of species (i.e., species richness) in that ecosystem.
b) Beta diversity: It is a comparison of diversity between ecosystems, usually measured as the change in amount of species between the ecosystems
c) Gamma diversity: It is a measure of the overall diversity for the different ecosystems within a region.
(ii) Species evenness: It measures the proportion of species at a given site, e.g. low evenness indicates that a few species dominate the site.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Jerdon’s Courser bird species:
- It is a nocturnal bird found only in the northern part of the state of Madhya Pradesh in peninsular India.
- The majority of the species are contained within the Sri Lankamaleswara WildLife Sanctuary.
- It has been listed as Critically Endangered under IUCN Red list.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The Jerdon’s Courser
- It is a nocturnal bird found only in the northern part of the state of Andhra Pradesh in peninsular India.
- It is a flagship species for the extremely threatened scrub jungle.
- The species was considered to be extinct until it was rediscovered in 1986 and the area of rediscovery was subsequently declared as the Sri Lankamaleswara Wildlife Sanctuary.
Distribution: Rhinoptilus bitorquatus is a rare and local endemic to the Eastern Ghats of Andhra Pradesh and extreme southern Madhya Pradesh, India. Historically, it was known from just a few records in the Pennar and Godavari river valleys and was assumed to be extinct until its rediscovery around Lankamalai in 1986. It has since been found at six further localities in the vicinity of the Lankamalai, Velikonda and Palakonda hill-ranges, southern Andhra Pradesh, with all localities probably holding birds from a single population, the majority of which are contained within the Sri Lankamaleswara WildLife Sanctuary.
- Habitat: Undisturbed scrub jungle with open areas.
- Distribution: Jerdon’s Courser is endemic to Andhra Pradesh.
- Threats: Clearing of scrub jungle, creation of new pastures, growing of dry land crops, Illegal trapping of birds, plantations of exotic trees, quarrying and the construction of the River Canals.
IUCN Status: Critically Endangered
Extra Learning:
Sri Lankamalleswara Wildlife Sanctuary is a wildlife sanctuary headquartered in Kadapa, Andhra Pradesh, India. It is the only habitat in the world which provides home for the Jerdon’s courser, a highly endangered bird species. Red Sanders, an endemic species, can be found here
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Jerdon’s Courser
- It is a nocturnal bird found only in the northern part of the state of Andhra Pradesh in peninsular India.
- It is a flagship species for the extremely threatened scrub jungle.
- The species was considered to be extinct until it was rediscovered in 1986 and the area of rediscovery was subsequently declared as the Sri Lankamaleswara Wildlife Sanctuary.
Distribution: Rhinoptilus bitorquatus is a rare and local endemic to the Eastern Ghats of Andhra Pradesh and extreme southern Madhya Pradesh, India. Historically, it was known from just a few records in the Pennar and Godavari river valleys and was assumed to be extinct until its rediscovery around Lankamalai in 1986. It has since been found at six further localities in the vicinity of the Lankamalai, Velikonda and Palakonda hill-ranges, southern Andhra Pradesh, with all localities probably holding birds from a single population, the majority of which are contained within the Sri Lankamaleswara WildLife Sanctuary.
- Habitat: Undisturbed scrub jungle with open areas.
- Distribution: Jerdon’s Courser is endemic to Andhra Pradesh.
- Threats: Clearing of scrub jungle, creation of new pastures, growing of dry land crops, Illegal trapping of birds, plantations of exotic trees, quarrying and the construction of the River Canals.
IUCN Status: Critically Endangered
Extra Learning:
Sri Lankamalleswara Wildlife Sanctuary is a wildlife sanctuary headquartered in Kadapa, Andhra Pradesh, India. It is the only habitat in the world which provides home for the Jerdon’s courser, a highly endangered bird species. Red Sanders, an endemic species, can be found here
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Anthrax
- It is caused by Bacillus anthracis
- It affects animals more often than people.
- It spreads directly from infected animal to humans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Recently DRDO, JNU scientists develop more potent Anthrax vaccine. Claim new vaccine superior than existing ones as it can generate immune response to anthraxtoxin as well as spores.
Anthrax:
- Anthrax is a disease caused by Bacillus anthracis, a germ that lives in soil.
- It affects animals such as cattle, sheep, and goats more often than people. People can get anthrax from contact with infected animals, wool, meat, or hides. It can cause three forms of disease in people.
- Anthrax does not spread directly from one infected animal or person to another; it is spread by spores. These spores can be transported by clothing or shoes.
Symptoms & Infection:
- In most cases, symptoms develop within seven days of exposure to the bacteria. The one exception is inhalation anthrax, which may take weeks after exposure before symptoms appear.
- Respiratory infection in humans initially presents with cold or flu-like symptoms for several days, followed by pneumonia and severe (and often fatal) respiratory collapse.
- Gastrointestinal (GI) infection in humans is most often caused by consuming anthrax-infected meat and is characterized by serious GI difficulty, vomiting of blood, severe diarrhea, acute inflammation of the intestinal tract, and loss of appetite.
- Cutaneous anthrax, also known as Hide porter’s disease, is the cutaneous (on the skin) manifestation of anthrax infection in humans. It presents as a boil-like skin lesion that eventually forms an ulcer with a black center (eschar).
Exposure:
- Occupational exposure to infected animals or their products (such as skin, wool, and meat) is the usual pathway of exposure for humans. Workers who are exposed to dead animals and animal products are at the highest risk, especially in countries where anthrax is more common.
- It does not usually spread from an infected human to a noninfected human. But, if the disease is fatal to the person’s body, its mass of anthrax bacilli becomes a potential source of infection to others and special precautions should be used to prevent further contamination. Inhalational anthrax, if left untreated until obvious symptoms occur, may be fatal.
- Anthrax can be contracted in laboratory accidents or by handling infected animals or their wool or hides.
Treatment:
- The standard treatment for anthrax is a 60-day course of an antibiotic. Treatment is most effective when started as soon as possible.
- Although some cases of anthrax respond to antibiotics, advanced inhalation anthrax may not. By the later stages of the disease, the bacteria have often produced more toxins than drugs can eliminate.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Recently DRDO, JNU scientists develop more potent Anthrax vaccine. Claim new vaccine superior than existing ones as it can generate immune response to anthraxtoxin as well as spores.
Anthrax:
- Anthrax is a disease caused by Bacillus anthracis, a germ that lives in soil.
- It affects animals such as cattle, sheep, and goats more often than people. People can get anthrax from contact with infected animals, wool, meat, or hides. It can cause three forms of disease in people.
- Anthrax does not spread directly from one infected animal or person to another; it is spread by spores. These spores can be transported by clothing or shoes.
Symptoms & Infection:
- In most cases, symptoms develop within seven days of exposure to the bacteria. The one exception is inhalation anthrax, which may take weeks after exposure before symptoms appear.
- Respiratory infection in humans initially presents with cold or flu-like symptoms for several days, followed by pneumonia and severe (and often fatal) respiratory collapse.
- Gastrointestinal (GI) infection in humans is most often caused by consuming anthrax-infected meat and is characterized by serious GI difficulty, vomiting of blood, severe diarrhea, acute inflammation of the intestinal tract, and loss of appetite.
- Cutaneous anthrax, also known as Hide porter’s disease, is the cutaneous (on the skin) manifestation of anthrax infection in humans. It presents as a boil-like skin lesion that eventually forms an ulcer with a black center (eschar).
Exposure:
- Occupational exposure to infected animals or their products (such as skin, wool, and meat) is the usual pathway of exposure for humans. Workers who are exposed to dead animals and animal products are at the highest risk, especially in countries where anthrax is more common.
- It does not usually spread from an infected human to a noninfected human. But, if the disease is fatal to the person’s body, its mass of anthrax bacilli becomes a potential source of infection to others and special precautions should be used to prevent further contamination. Inhalational anthrax, if left untreated until obvious symptoms occur, may be fatal.
- Anthrax can be contracted in laboratory accidents or by handling infected animals or their wool or hides.
Treatment:
- The standard treatment for anthrax is a 60-day course of an antibiotic. Treatment is most effective when started as soon as possible.
- Although some cases of anthrax respond to antibiotics, advanced inhalation anthrax may not. By the later stages of the disease, the bacteria have often produced more toxins than drugs can eliminate.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding IUCN Red List
- The IUCN Red List is a critical indicator of the health of the world’s biodiversity.
- It was established in 1964 by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
- It divides species into only seven categories: Least Concern, Near Threatened, Vulnerable, Endangered, Critically Endangered, Extinct in the Wild and Extinct.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
What is The IUCN Red List?
Established in 1964, The International Union for Conservation of Nature’s Red List of Threatened Species has evolved to become the world’s most comprehensive information source on the global conservation status of animal, fungi and plant species.
The IUCN Red List is a critical indicator of the health of the world’s biodiversity. Far more than a list of species and their status, it is a powerful tool to inform and catalyze action for biodiversity conservation and policy change, critical to protecting the natural resources we need to survive. It provides information about range, population size, habitat and ecology, use and/or trade, threats, and conservation actions that will help inform necessary conservation decisions.
The IUCN Red List Categories and Criteria are intended to be an easily and widely understood system for classifying species at high risk of global extinction. It divides species into nine categories: Not Evaluated, Data Deficient, Least Concern, Near Threatened, Vulnerable, Endangered, Critically Endangered, Extinct in the Wild and Extinct.
Extra Learning:
IUCN is a membership Union composed of both government and civil society organisations.
Much of IUCN’s subsequent work in the 1960s and 1970s was devoted to the protection of species and the habitats necessary for their survival. In 1964, IUCN established the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species, which has since evolved into the world’s most comprehensive data source on the global extinction risk of species.
IUCN also played a fundamental role in the creation of key international conventions, including the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands (1971), the World Heritage Convention (1972), the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species, (1974) and the Convention on Biological Diversity (1992).
In 1980, IUCN – in partnership with the UN Environment Programme (UNEP) and the World Wildlife Fund (WWF) – published the World Conservation Strategy, a ground-breaking document which helped define the concept of ‘sustainable development’ and shaped the global conservation and sustainable development agenda.
A subsequent version of the strategy, Caring for the Earth, was published by the three organisations in the run-up to the 1992 Earth Summit. It served as the basis for international environmental policy and guided the creation of the Rio Conventions on biodiversity (CBD), climate change (UNFCCC) and desertification (UNCCD).
In 1999, as environmental issues continued to gain importance at the international stage, the UN General Assembly granted IUCN official observer status.
Incorrect
Solution: A
What is The IUCN Red List?
Established in 1964, The International Union for Conservation of Nature’s Red List of Threatened Species has evolved to become the world’s most comprehensive information source on the global conservation status of animal, fungi and plant species.
The IUCN Red List is a critical indicator of the health of the world’s biodiversity. Far more than a list of species and their status, it is a powerful tool to inform and catalyze action for biodiversity conservation and policy change, critical to protecting the natural resources we need to survive. It provides information about range, population size, habitat and ecology, use and/or trade, threats, and conservation actions that will help inform necessary conservation decisions.
The IUCN Red List Categories and Criteria are intended to be an easily and widely understood system for classifying species at high risk of global extinction. It divides species into nine categories: Not Evaluated, Data Deficient, Least Concern, Near Threatened, Vulnerable, Endangered, Critically Endangered, Extinct in the Wild and Extinct.
Extra Learning:
IUCN is a membership Union composed of both government and civil society organisations.
Much of IUCN’s subsequent work in the 1960s and 1970s was devoted to the protection of species and the habitats necessary for their survival. In 1964, IUCN established the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species, which has since evolved into the world’s most comprehensive data source on the global extinction risk of species.
IUCN also played a fundamental role in the creation of key international conventions, including the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands (1971), the World Heritage Convention (1972), the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species, (1974) and the Convention on Biological Diversity (1992).
In 1980, IUCN – in partnership with the UN Environment Programme (UNEP) and the World Wildlife Fund (WWF) – published the World Conservation Strategy, a ground-breaking document which helped define the concept of ‘sustainable development’ and shaped the global conservation and sustainable development agenda.
A subsequent version of the strategy, Caring for the Earth, was published by the three organisations in the run-up to the 1992 Earth Summit. It served as the basis for international environmental policy and guided the creation of the Rio Conventions on biodiversity (CBD), climate change (UNFCCC) and desertification (UNCCD).
In 1999, as environmental issues continued to gain importance at the international stage, the UN General Assembly granted IUCN official observer status.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Seaweeds
- Seaweeds are (thalloid plants) macroscopic algae, which mean they have no differentiation of true tissues such as roots, stems and leaves.
- Seaweeds grow in deep coastal waters wherever sizable substrata is available.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
SEAWEEDS
- Seaweeds are (thalloid plants) macroscopic algae, which mean they have no differentiation of true tissues such as roots, stems and leaves. They have leaf-like appendages.
- Seaweeds, the larger and visible marine plants are found attached to rocks, corals and other submerged strata in the intertidal and shallow sub tidal zones of the sea.
- Seaweeds grow in shallow coastal waters wherever sizable substata is available.
Extra Learning:
Seaweeds are generally anchored to the sea bottom or other solid structures by rootlike “holdfasts,” which perform the sole function of attachment and do not extract nutrients as do the roots of higher plants.
A number of seaweed species are edible, and many are also of commercial importance to humans. Some are used as fertilizers or as sources of polysaccharides.
The types of seaweed growing near the high-water mark, where plants are often exposed to air, differ from those growing at lower levels, where there is little or no exposure.
Brown algae (class Phaeophyceae) commonly found as seaweeds include kelps and Fucus. They are widely distributed in colder zones and are absent from tropical waters.
Gulfweed (Sargassum) is common as free-floating masses in the Gulf Stream and Sargasso Sea.
Seaweed species such as kelps provide essential nursery habitat for fisheries and other marine species and thus protect food sources; other species, such as planktonic algae, play a vital role in capturing carbon, producing up to 90% of Earth’s oxygen.
Incorrect
Solution: A
SEAWEEDS
- Seaweeds are (thalloid plants) macroscopic algae, which mean they have no differentiation of true tissues such as roots, stems and leaves. They have leaf-like appendages.
- Seaweeds, the larger and visible marine plants are found attached to rocks, corals and other submerged strata in the intertidal and shallow sub tidal zones of the sea.
- Seaweeds grow in shallow coastal waters wherever sizable substata is available.
Extra Learning:
Seaweeds are generally anchored to the sea bottom or other solid structures by rootlike “holdfasts,” which perform the sole function of attachment and do not extract nutrients as do the roots of higher plants.
A number of seaweed species are edible, and many are also of commercial importance to humans. Some are used as fertilizers or as sources of polysaccharides.
The types of seaweed growing near the high-water mark, where plants are often exposed to air, differ from those growing at lower levels, where there is little or no exposure.
Brown algae (class Phaeophyceae) commonly found as seaweeds include kelps and Fucus. They are widely distributed in colder zones and are absent from tropical waters.
Gulfweed (Sargassum) is common as free-floating masses in the Gulf Stream and Sargasso Sea.
Seaweed species such as kelps provide essential nursery habitat for fisheries and other marine species and thus protect food sources; other species, such as planktonic algae, play a vital role in capturing carbon, producing up to 90% of Earth’s oxygen.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Lal Bahadur Shastri
- He became a life member of the Servants of the People Society (Lok Sevak Mandal), founded by Lala Lajpat Rai.
- He participated in both non-cooperation movement and the Salt Satyagraha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Recently PM visits Varanasi Unveils Lal Bahadur Shastri statue at Varanasi airport.
Lal Bahadur Shastri life and achievements:
Pre- independence:
- Lal Bahadur Shastri was born on 2nd October, 1904 at Mughalsarai, Varanasi of Uttar Pradesh.
- He was given the title “Shastri” meaning “Scholar” by Vidya Peeth as a part of his bachelor’s degree award.
- He introduced a slogan “Jai Jawan Jai Kisan” and played a pivotal role in shaping India’s future.
- He became a life member of the Servants of the People Society (Lok Sevak Mandal), founded by Lala Lajpat Rai. There he started to work for the upliftment of backward classes, and later he became the President of that Society.
- He participated in the non-cooperation movement and the Salt Satyagraha.
Post- independence:
- He was the second Prime Minister of Independent India.
- In 1961, he was appointed as Home Minister, and he appointed the Committee on Prevention of Corruption. He created the famous “Shastri Formula” which consisted of the language agitations in Assam and Punjab.
- He promoted the White Revolution, a national campaign to increase milk production. He also promoted the Green Revolution, to increase the food production in India.
- In 1964, he signed an agreement with the Sri Lankan Prime Minister Sirimavo Bandaranaike, in concern with the status of Indian Tamils in Ceylon. This agreement is known as Srimavo-Shastri Pact.
- He was awarded the Bharat Ratna the India’s highest civilian award posthumously in 1966.
- He signed Tashkent Declaration on 10 January, 1966 with the paksitan President, Muhammad Ayub Khan to end the 1965 war.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/07/08/lal-bahadur-shastri/
Incorrect
Solution: C
Recently PM visits Varanasi Unveils Lal Bahadur Shastri statue at Varanasi airport.
Lal Bahadur Shastri life and achievements:
Pre- independence:
- Lal Bahadur Shastri was born on 2nd October, 1904 at Mughalsarai, Varanasi of Uttar Pradesh.
- He was given the title “Shastri” meaning “Scholar” by Vidya Peeth as a part of his bachelor’s degree award.
- He introduced a slogan “Jai Jawan Jai Kisan” and played a pivotal role in shaping India’s future.
- He became a life member of the Servants of the People Society (Lok Sevak Mandal), founded by Lala Lajpat Rai. There he started to work for the upliftment of backward classes, and later he became the President of that Society.
- He participated in the non-cooperation movement and the Salt Satyagraha.
Post- independence:
- He was the second Prime Minister of Independent India.
- In 1961, he was appointed as Home Minister, and he appointed the Committee on Prevention of Corruption. He created the famous “Shastri Formula” which consisted of the language agitations in Assam and Punjab.
- He promoted the White Revolution, a national campaign to increase milk production. He also promoted the Green Revolution, to increase the food production in India.
- In 1964, he signed an agreement with the Sri Lankan Prime Minister Sirimavo Bandaranaike, in concern with the status of Indian Tamils in Ceylon. This agreement is known as Srimavo-Shastri Pact.
- He was awarded the Bharat Ratna the India’s highest civilian award posthumously in 1966.
- He signed Tashkent Declaration on 10 January, 1966 with the paksitan President, Muhammad Ayub Khan to end the 1965 war.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/07/08/lal-bahadur-shastri/
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsPolypedates Bengalensis, new frog species was found in
Correct
Solution: D
Polypedates Bengalensis
- It is a newly discovered frog species from West Bengal.
- Also known as the Brown Blotched Bengal Tree Frog
- It belongs to the genus Polypedates. There are 25 other Polypedates species round the world. Polypedates bengalensis is the 26th.
- The frog’s body colour is yellowish-brown to greenish-brown.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Polypedates Bengalensis
- It is a newly discovered frog species from West Bengal.
- Also known as the Brown Blotched Bengal Tree Frog
- It belongs to the genus Polypedates. There are 25 other Polypedates species round the world. Polypedates bengalensis is the 26th.
- The frog’s body colour is yellowish-brown to greenish-brown.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsThe first-of-its-kind rehabilitation center for freshwater turtles will be set up at
Correct
Solution: D
First-of-its kind turtle rehab centre comes up in Bihar
- A first-of-its-kind rehabilitation centre for freshwater turtles was inaugurated in Bihar’s Bhagalpur forest division in January 2020.
- The need to build such a centre was felt after several turtles were found severely wounded and sick when rescued from smuggles by rescue teams.
Extra Learning:
Difference between a turtle and a tortoise:
The most important thing to remember about tortoises is that they are exclusively land creatures. They live in a variety of habitats, from deserts to wet tropical forests. (Unlike most sea turtles, which take to land only when they are laying eggs, tortoises don’t have much to do with water other than drinking it and occasionally bathing in it.) However, not all land turtles are tortoises; thus, box turtles and wood turtles have been called tortoises, though they are not considered tortoises today.
Tortoises are generally herbivorous, while other turtles are omnivorous.
Incorrect
Solution: D
First-of-its kind turtle rehab centre comes up in Bihar
- A first-of-its-kind rehabilitation centre for freshwater turtles was inaugurated in Bihar’s Bhagalpur forest division in January 2020.
- The need to build such a centre was felt after several turtles were found severely wounded and sick when rescued from smuggles by rescue teams.
Extra Learning:
Difference between a turtle and a tortoise:
The most important thing to remember about tortoises is that they are exclusively land creatures. They live in a variety of habitats, from deserts to wet tropical forests. (Unlike most sea turtles, which take to land only when they are laying eggs, tortoises don’t have much to do with water other than drinking it and occasionally bathing in it.) However, not all land turtles are tortoises; thus, box turtles and wood turtles have been called tortoises, though they are not considered tortoises today.
Tortoises are generally herbivorous, while other turtles are omnivorous.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Clean Energy Fund (NCEF)
- The Fund has been created out of cess on coal produced / imported under the polluter pays principle.
- Project/scheme relating to innovative methods to adopt to the Clean Energy technology and research & development are eligible for funding under the NCEF.
- It is a lapsable fund under Public Accounts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
The National Clean Energy Fund (NCEF) is a fund created in 2010-11 using the carbon tax – clean energy cess – for funding research and innovative projects in clean energy technologies of public sector or private sector entities, upto the extent of 40% of the total project cost.
Assistance is available as a loan or as a viability gap funding, as deemed fit by the Inter-Ministerial group, which decides on the merits of such projects.
The Fund is designed as a non-lapsable fund under Public Accounts and with its secretariat in Plan Finance II Division, Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance
Usage of fund
Any project/scheme relating to Innovative methods to adopt to Clean Energy technology and Research & Development are eligible for funding under the NCEF. An indicative list of such projects is as follows:
- Projects supporting the development and demonstration of integrated community energy solutions, smart grid technology renewable applications with solar, wind, tidal and geothermal energy;
- Projects in critical renewable energy infrastructure areas such as Silicon Manufacturing; etc.
http://www.arthapedia.in/index.php?title=National_Clean_Energy_Fund_(NCEF)
Incorrect
Solution: D
The National Clean Energy Fund (NCEF) is a fund created in 2010-11 using the carbon tax – clean energy cess – for funding research and innovative projects in clean energy technologies of public sector or private sector entities, upto the extent of 40% of the total project cost.
Assistance is available as a loan or as a viability gap funding, as deemed fit by the Inter-Ministerial group, which decides on the merits of such projects.
The Fund is designed as a non-lapsable fund under Public Accounts and with its secretariat in Plan Finance II Division, Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance
Usage of fund
Any project/scheme relating to Innovative methods to adopt to Clean Energy technology and Research & Development are eligible for funding under the NCEF. An indicative list of such projects is as follows:
- Projects supporting the development and demonstration of integrated community energy solutions, smart grid technology renewable applications with solar, wind, tidal and geothermal energy;
- Projects in critical renewable energy infrastructure areas such as Silicon Manufacturing; etc.
http://www.arthapedia.in/index.php?title=National_Clean_Energy_Fund_(NCEF)
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are Critically endangered species
- Brown Bear
- Malabar Civet
- Pygmy Hog
- Gharial
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: B
Except Brown Bear All other species mentioned are Critically endangered.
Status of Brown Bear: Least Concern.
Extra Learning:
Students should understand the parameters used to group the species into different categories.
Usage IUCN Red list data:
Data from The IUCN Red List are used to calculate the Red List Index (RLI), which is one of the biodiversity indicators used by the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) to monitor progress towards achieving the targets set out in the Strategic Plan for Biodiversity 2011-2020.
The IUCN Red List also provides data for the indicators needed to measure progress towards the achievement of the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), particularly Goal 15.
The IUCN Red List assessments of freshwater species have also contributed to the work of the Ramsar Convention in selecting sites that are important for freshwater biodiversity.
The IUCN Red List will contribute to the function of the Intergovernmental science-policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES) to strengthen the science-policy interface on biodiversity and ecosystem services to improve decision making.
The Global Environment Facility (GEF) has included information from The IUCN Red List in its resource allocation framework since 2008. Other foundations and funding instruments, such as the Critical Ecosystem Partnership Fund (CEPF); SOS – Save Our Species; and Mohamed bin Zayed Species Conservation Fund, also use data from assessments on The IUCN Red List to guide their investments in conservation.
Several conservation planning methodologies use The IUCN Red List to identify Key Biodiversity Areas (KBAs) for conservation including: Important Bird Areas; Important Plant Areas; and Alliance for Zero Extinction (AZE) sites. For example, one of the criteria that AZE sites must meet is that they contain at least one Endangered or Critically Endangered species, as listed on The IUCN Red List.
Data from The IUCN Red List are included in the Integrated Biodiversity Assessment Tool (IBAT), an innovative decision support tool available to both the business and conservation sectors. The wealth of information on habitats and threats to species is also used in biodiversity management and site rehabilitation planning processes.
https://www.iucnredlist.org/about/uses
Students are also advised to study the highlighted keywords above.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Except Brown Bear All other species mentioned are Critically endangered.
Status of Brown Bear: Least Concern.
Extra Learning:
Students should understand the parameters used to group the species into different categories.
Usage IUCN Red list data:
Data from The IUCN Red List are used to calculate the Red List Index (RLI), which is one of the biodiversity indicators used by the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) to monitor progress towards achieving the targets set out in the Strategic Plan for Biodiversity 2011-2020.
The IUCN Red List also provides data for the indicators needed to measure progress towards the achievement of the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), particularly Goal 15.
The IUCN Red List assessments of freshwater species have also contributed to the work of the Ramsar Convention in selecting sites that are important for freshwater biodiversity.
The IUCN Red List will contribute to the function of the Intergovernmental science-policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES) to strengthen the science-policy interface on biodiversity and ecosystem services to improve decision making.
The Global Environment Facility (GEF) has included information from The IUCN Red List in its resource allocation framework since 2008. Other foundations and funding instruments, such as the Critical Ecosystem Partnership Fund (CEPF); SOS – Save Our Species; and Mohamed bin Zayed Species Conservation Fund, also use data from assessments on The IUCN Red List to guide their investments in conservation.
Several conservation planning methodologies use The IUCN Red List to identify Key Biodiversity Areas (KBAs) for conservation including: Important Bird Areas; Important Plant Areas; and Alliance for Zero Extinction (AZE) sites. For example, one of the criteria that AZE sites must meet is that they contain at least one Endangered or Critically Endangered species, as listed on The IUCN Red List.
Data from The IUCN Red List are included in the Integrated Biodiversity Assessment Tool (IBAT), an innovative decision support tool available to both the business and conservation sectors. The wealth of information on habitats and threats to species is also used in biodiversity management and site rehabilitation planning processes.
https://www.iucnredlist.org/about/uses
Students are also advised to study the highlighted keywords above.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding difference between Wild life sanctuary and National Park (NP)
- National parks are declared by Central Government only, while Wild life sanctuary is declared by State Government only.
- Certain activities like grazing of livestock are regulated in sanctuaries and are prohibited in National Parks.
- Wildlife sanctuary can be created for a particular species whereas the national park is not primarily focused on a particular species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
WILD LIFE SANCTUARY (WLS)
- The Wild Life (Protection) Act of 1972 provided for the declaration of certain areas by the State Government as wildlife sanctuaries if the area was thought to be of adequate ecological, geomorphological and natural significance.
National Park (NP)
- The Wild Life (Protection) Act (WPA) of 1972 provided for the declaration of National Parks by the State Government in addition to the declaration of wildlife sanctuaries.
- National Parks are declared in areas that are considered to be of adequate ecological, geomorphological and natural significance although within the law, the difference in conservation value of a National Park from that of a sanctuary is not specified in the WPA 1972.
Difference between the Wild life sanctuary and National Park (NP)
- National Parks enjoy a greater degree of protection than sanctuaries.
- Certain activities which are regulated in sanctuaries, such as grazing of livestock, are prohibited in National Parks.
- Wildlife sanctuary can be created for a particular species (for e.g. grizzled giant squirrel w.l.s in srivalliputhur) whereas the national park is not primarily focused on a particular species.
- The Central Government may also declare, Wild Life Sanctuary and National Park under certain conditions
Incorrect
Solution: B
WILD LIFE SANCTUARY (WLS)
- The Wild Life (Protection) Act of 1972 provided for the declaration of certain areas by the State Government as wildlife sanctuaries if the area was thought to be of adequate ecological, geomorphological and natural significance.
National Park (NP)
- The Wild Life (Protection) Act (WPA) of 1972 provided for the declaration of National Parks by the State Government in addition to the declaration of wildlife sanctuaries.
- National Parks are declared in areas that are considered to be of adequate ecological, geomorphological and natural significance although within the law, the difference in conservation value of a National Park from that of a sanctuary is not specified in the WPA 1972.
Difference between the Wild life sanctuary and National Park (NP)
- National Parks enjoy a greater degree of protection than sanctuaries.
- Certain activities which are regulated in sanctuaries, such as grazing of livestock, are prohibited in National Parks.
- Wildlife sanctuary can be created for a particular species (for e.g. grizzled giant squirrel w.l.s in srivalliputhur) whereas the national park is not primarily focused on a particular species.
- The Central Government may also declare, Wild Life Sanctuary and National Park under certain conditions
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Internet Saathi programme
- It is a joint initiative of Facebook Inc and Tata Trusts
- It aims to facilitate digital literacy among Tribal in rural India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Google India and Tata Trusts are set to expand their ‘Internet Saathi’ digital literacy programme for rural women to villages in Punjab and Odisha. Currently, the programme has reach of 2.6 lakh villages across 18 states. On adding Punjab and Odisha the programme will now extend its reach to 20 states in India.
Internet Saathi:
- It is joint initiative of Google India and Tata Trusts.
- It aims to facilitate digital literacy among women in rural India.
- The programme aims to train Saathis in villages that can in turn help educate other women from their village in the use of the internet.
Significance of the initiative:
It has contributed towards bridging digital gender divide in rural India. Women trained under this initiative have started their own micro-business such as stitching, honeybee farming, and beauty parlours. Many under programme are also driving awareness for issues like girl child education, menstrual hygiene and more within their communities.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/07/18/internet-saathi-programme/
Incorrect
Solution: D
Google India and Tata Trusts are set to expand their ‘Internet Saathi’ digital literacy programme for rural women to villages in Punjab and Odisha. Currently, the programme has reach of 2.6 lakh villages across 18 states. On adding Punjab and Odisha the programme will now extend its reach to 20 states in India.
Internet Saathi:
- It is joint initiative of Google India and Tata Trusts.
- It aims to facilitate digital literacy among women in rural India.
- The programme aims to train Saathis in villages that can in turn help educate other women from their village in the use of the internet.
Significance of the initiative:
It has contributed towards bridging digital gender divide in rural India. Women trained under this initiative have started their own micro-business such as stitching, honeybee farming, and beauty parlours. Many under programme are also driving awareness for issues like girl child education, menstrual hygiene and more within their communities.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/07/18/internet-saathi-programme/
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Hangul or Kashmir Stag.
- IUCN’s Red List has classified it as least concern species.
- It is largely found in Dachigam National Park
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
HANGUL/Kashmir StagThe Kashmir stag (Cervus affinis hanglu) also called Hangul is a subspecies of Central Asian Red Deer native to Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh.
The IUCN’s Red List has classified it as Critically Endangered and is similarly listed under the Species Recovery Programme of the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) and the Environmental Information System (ENVIS) of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC).
This deer lives in groups of two to 18 individuals in dense riverine forests, high valleys, and mountains of the Kashmir valley and northern Chamba in Himachal Pradesh.
In Kashmir, it’s found in Dachigam National Park at elevations of 3,035 meters.
These deer once numbered from about 5,000 animals in the beginning of the 20th century. Unfortunately, they were threatened, due to habitat destruction, overgrazing by domestic livestock and poaching. This dwindled to as low as 150 animals by 1970.
However, the state of Jammu & Kashmir, along with the IUCN and the WWF prepared a project for the protection of these animals. It became known as Project Hangul. This brought great results and the population increased to over 340 by 1980.
Incorrect
Solution: B
HANGUL/Kashmir StagThe Kashmir stag (Cervus affinis hanglu) also called Hangul is a subspecies of Central Asian Red Deer native to Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh.
The IUCN’s Red List has classified it as Critically Endangered and is similarly listed under the Species Recovery Programme of the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) and the Environmental Information System (ENVIS) of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC).
This deer lives in groups of two to 18 individuals in dense riverine forests, high valleys, and mountains of the Kashmir valley and northern Chamba in Himachal Pradesh.
In Kashmir, it’s found in Dachigam National Park at elevations of 3,035 meters.
These deer once numbered from about 5,000 animals in the beginning of the 20th century. Unfortunately, they were threatened, due to habitat destruction, overgrazing by domestic livestock and poaching. This dwindled to as low as 150 animals by 1970.
However, the state of Jammu & Kashmir, along with the IUCN and the WWF prepared a project for the protection of these animals. It became known as Project Hangul. This brought great results and the population increased to over 340 by 1980.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Green Crackers
- It has been developed by Indian Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR).
- They are known as ‘green’ firecrackers because they have a chemical formulation that produces water molecules, which substantially reduces emission levels and absorbs dust.
- The green crackers will be 25-30 per cent costlier to manufacture than the conventional ones.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Green Crackers
- Indian Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) has developed green crackers, which are new and improved formulations of the previous sound-emitting crackers and other fireworks.
- What are green crackers?
o They are less harmful and less dangerous than the conventional ones. They are the crackers with reduced emission and decibel level. They are known as ‘green’ firecrackers because they have a chemical formulation that produces water molecules, which substantially reduces emission levels and absorbs dust.
o It promises a reduction in particulate matters and harmful gases, like nitrous oxide and sulfur oxide, by 30- 35 per cent.
o The green crackers will be 25-30 per cent cheaper to manufacture and manufacturers would not have to make any changes in their facilities.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Green Crackers
- Indian Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) has developed green crackers, which are new and improved formulations of the previous sound-emitting crackers and other fireworks.
- What are green crackers?
o They are less harmful and less dangerous than the conventional ones. They are the crackers with reduced emission and decibel level. They are known as ‘green’ firecrackers because they have a chemical formulation that produces water molecules, which substantially reduces emission levels and absorbs dust.
o It promises a reduction in particulate matters and harmful gases, like nitrous oxide and sulfur oxide, by 30- 35 per cent.
o The green crackers will be 25-30 per cent cheaper to manufacture and manufacturers would not have to make any changes in their facilities.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Swine Flu
- Swine Flu is a highly contagious acute respiratory disease of pigs caused by type A influenza virus.
- Swine flu viruses can spread from human to human.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Swine flu is an infection caused by a virus. It’s named for a virus that pigs can get. People do not normally get swine flu, but human infections can and do happen.
Swine Flu is a highly contagious acute respiratory disease of pigs caused by type A influenza virus. In 2009 a strain of swine flu called H1N1 infected many people around the world.
The virus is contagious and can spread from human to human. Symptoms of swine flu in people are similar to the symptoms of regular human flu and include fever, cough, sore throat, body aches, headache, chills and fatigue.
Swine flu viruses do not normally infect humans. However, sporadic human infections with swine flu have occurred. Children younger than five years old and adults who are 65 years and above, patients with chronic pulmonary condition (including asthma), , neurological, neuromuscular or metabolic disorders (including diabetes), obese adults and pregnant women are in the high risk group
There are antiviral medicines you can take to prevent or treat swine flu. There is a vaccine available to protect against swine flu
Incorrect
Solution: C
Swine flu is an infection caused by a virus. It’s named for a virus that pigs can get. People do not normally get swine flu, but human infections can and do happen.
Swine Flu is a highly contagious acute respiratory disease of pigs caused by type A influenza virus. In 2009 a strain of swine flu called H1N1 infected many people around the world.
The virus is contagious and can spread from human to human. Symptoms of swine flu in people are similar to the symptoms of regular human flu and include fever, cough, sore throat, body aches, headache, chills and fatigue.
Swine flu viruses do not normally infect humans. However, sporadic human infections with swine flu have occurred. Children younger than five years old and adults who are 65 years and above, patients with chronic pulmonary condition (including asthma), , neurological, neuromuscular or metabolic disorders (including diabetes), obese adults and pregnant women are in the high risk group
There are antiviral medicines you can take to prevent or treat swine flu. There is a vaccine available to protect against swine flu
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Senna Spectabilis
- It is an evergreen tree native to tropical areas of America.
- It is an invasive species found in Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve (NBR).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Senna Spectabilis
- The Kerala Government is planning to arrest the rampant growth of Senna spectabilis, in the forest areas of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve (NBR), including the Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary.
- It is a deciduous tree native to tropical areas of America.
- It grows up to 15 to 20 metres in a short period of time and distributes thousands of seeds after flowering.
- It is an invasive species.
- Concerns: The thick foliage of the tree arrests the growth of other indigenous tree and grass species. Thus, it causes food shortage for the wildlife population, especially herbivores. It also adversely affect the germination and growth of the native species.
- It is categorised as ‘Least Concern’ under IUCN Red List.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Senna Spectabilis
- The Kerala Government is planning to arrest the rampant growth of Senna spectabilis, in the forest areas of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve (NBR), including the Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary.
- It is a deciduous tree native to tropical areas of America.
- It grows up to 15 to 20 metres in a short period of time and distributes thousands of seeds after flowering.
- It is an invasive species.
- Concerns: The thick foliage of the tree arrests the growth of other indigenous tree and grass species. Thus, it causes food shortage for the wildlife population, especially herbivores. It also adversely affect the germination and growth of the native species.
- It is categorised as ‘Least Concern’ under IUCN Red List.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Crèche Scheme
- The Scheme is being implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
- It is a centrally sponsored scheme
- It is an intervention towards protection and development of children in the age group of 6 months to 6 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
National Crèche Scheme is being implemented as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme through States/UTs with effect from 01.01.2017.
National Creche Scheme:
- The Scheme is being implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
- It is a centrally sponsored scheme.
- It aims at providing a safe place for mothers to leave their children while they are at work, and thus, is a measure for empowering women as it enables them to take up employment.
- Coverage: It is an intervention towards protection and development of children in the age group of 6 months to 6 years.
Features:
- Provides for day care facilities to the children of working mothers.
- Provides supplementary nutrition, health care inputs like immunization, polio drops, basic health monitoring, sleeping facilities, early stimulation (for children below 3 years), pre-school education for children aged between 3-6 yrs.
Significance:
- This scheme facility enables the parents to leave their children while they are at work and where the children are provided with a stimulating environment for their holistic development.
- This scheme ensures to improve the health and nutrition status of the children.
- It promotes physical, social, cognitive and emotional/holistic development of the children.
- It also educates and empowers parents/caretakers for the better childcare.
- The scheme is being structurally revised with the enhanced financial norms, stringent monitoring and sharing pattern between the Government of India and the implementing agencies and NGOs.
Eligibility Criteria:
- The State Government, Voluntary Institutions, Mahila Mandals with the know report of service in the field of child welfare department and registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860 or registered as a Public Trust at least for the period for last 2 years are eligible for applying for the financial assistance from the fund.
Fund sharing:
The fund sharing pattern under National Creche Scheme amongst Centre, States/UTs & Non-Governmental Organizations/Voluntary Organisations for all recurring components of the scheme is in the ratio of 60:30:10 for States, 80:10:10 for North Eastern States and Himalayan States and 90:0:10 for UTs.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/07/29/national-creche-scheme/
Incorrect
Solution: D
National Crèche Scheme is being implemented as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme through States/UTs with effect from 01.01.2017.
National Creche Scheme:
- The Scheme is being implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
- It is a centrally sponsored scheme.
- It aims at providing a safe place for mothers to leave their children while they are at work, and thus, is a measure for empowering women as it enables them to take up employment.
- Coverage: It is an intervention towards protection and development of children in the age group of 6 months to 6 years.
Features:
- Provides for day care facilities to the children of working mothers.
- Provides supplementary nutrition, health care inputs like immunization, polio drops, basic health monitoring, sleeping facilities, early stimulation (for children below 3 years), pre-school education for children aged between 3-6 yrs.
Significance:
- This scheme facility enables the parents to leave their children while they are at work and where the children are provided with a stimulating environment for their holistic development.
- This scheme ensures to improve the health and nutrition status of the children.
- It promotes physical, social, cognitive and emotional/holistic development of the children.
- It also educates and empowers parents/caretakers for the better childcare.
- The scheme is being structurally revised with the enhanced financial norms, stringent monitoring and sharing pattern between the Government of India and the implementing agencies and NGOs.
Eligibility Criteria:
- The State Government, Voluntary Institutions, Mahila Mandals with the know report of service in the field of child welfare department and registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860 or registered as a Public Trust at least for the period for last 2 years are eligible for applying for the financial assistance from the fund.
Fund sharing:
The fund sharing pattern under National Creche Scheme amongst Centre, States/UTs & Non-Governmental Organizations/Voluntary Organisations for all recurring components of the scheme is in the ratio of 60:30:10 for States, 80:10:10 for North Eastern States and Himalayan States and 90:0:10 for UTs.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/07/29/national-creche-scheme/
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Central Water Commission (CWC) report on Heavy metals contaminating rivers
- Arsenic and zinc are the two toxic metals whose concentration is always found above the limits.
- Iron emerged as the most common contaminant.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Heavy metals contaminating rivers
- Central Water Commission (CWC) has released a report on heavy metals contaminating Indian rivers.
- Iron emerged as the most common contaminant.
- Arsenic and zinc are the two toxic metals whose concentration is always found within the limits.
- Other major contaminants found in the samples were lead, nickel, chromium, cadmium and copper.
- Metals found in Non-Monsoon Period: Lead, cadmium, nickel, chromium and copper.
- Monsoon Period: Iron, lead, chromium and copper exceeded ‘tolerance limits’ in this period most of the time.
- The main sources of heavy metal pollution are mining, milling, plating and surface finishing industries that discharge a variety of toxic metals into the environment.
- The presence of metals in drinking water to some extent is unavoidable and certain metals, in trace amounts, are required for good health. However, when present above safe limits, they are associated with a range of disorders.
- Long-term exposure to the heavy metals may result in physical, muscular, and neurological degenerative processes that mimic Alzheimer’s disease, Parkinson’s disease, muscular dystrophy and multiple sclerosis.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Heavy metals contaminating rivers
- Central Water Commission (CWC) has released a report on heavy metals contaminating Indian rivers.
- Iron emerged as the most common contaminant.
- Arsenic and zinc are the two toxic metals whose concentration is always found within the limits.
- Other major contaminants found in the samples were lead, nickel, chromium, cadmium and copper.
- Metals found in Non-Monsoon Period: Lead, cadmium, nickel, chromium and copper.
- Monsoon Period: Iron, lead, chromium and copper exceeded ‘tolerance limits’ in this period most of the time.
- The main sources of heavy metal pollution are mining, milling, plating and surface finishing industries that discharge a variety of toxic metals into the environment.
- The presence of metals in drinking water to some extent is unavoidable and certain metals, in trace amounts, are required for good health. However, when present above safe limits, they are associated with a range of disorders.
- Long-term exposure to the heavy metals may result in physical, muscular, and neurological degenerative processes that mimic Alzheimer’s disease, Parkinson’s disease, muscular dystrophy and multiple sclerosis.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsMunicipal Performance Index (MPI) in India is released by:
Correct
Solution: D
To help assess the progress made in cities through various initiatives and empower them to use evidence to plan, implement & monitor their performance, two Assessment Frameworks, viz. Ease of Living Index (EoLI) and Municipal Performance Index (MPI) 2019 have been launched by the Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs. Both these indices are designed to assess quality of life of citizens in 100 Smart Cities and 14 other Million Plus Cities.
Ease of Living Index is aimed at providing a holistic view of Indian cities – beginning from the services provided by local bodies, the effectiveness of the administration, the outcomes generated through these services in terms of the liveability within cities and, finally, the citizen perception of these outcomes. The key objectives of the Ease of Living Index are four-folds, viz. a) generate information to guide evidence-based policy making; b) catalyse action to achieve broader developmental outcomes including the SDG; c) assess and compare the outcomes achieved from various urban policies and schemes; and d) obtain the perception of citizens about their view of the services provided by the city administration. EoLI 2019 will facilitate the assessment of ease of living of citizens across three pillars: Quality of Life, Economic Ability and Sustainability which are further divided into 14 categories across 50 indicators.
Incorrect
Solution: D
To help assess the progress made in cities through various initiatives and empower them to use evidence to plan, implement & monitor their performance, two Assessment Frameworks, viz. Ease of Living Index (EoLI) and Municipal Performance Index (MPI) 2019 have been launched by the Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs. Both these indices are designed to assess quality of life of citizens in 100 Smart Cities and 14 other Million Plus Cities.
Ease of Living Index is aimed at providing a holistic view of Indian cities – beginning from the services provided by local bodies, the effectiveness of the administration, the outcomes generated through these services in terms of the liveability within cities and, finally, the citizen perception of these outcomes. The key objectives of the Ease of Living Index are four-folds, viz. a) generate information to guide evidence-based policy making; b) catalyse action to achieve broader developmental outcomes including the SDG; c) assess and compare the outcomes achieved from various urban policies and schemes; and d) obtain the perception of citizens about their view of the services provided by the city administration. EoLI 2019 will facilitate the assessment of ease of living of citizens across three pillars: Quality of Life, Economic Ability and Sustainability which are further divided into 14 categories across 50 indicators.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsThe ratio between the speeds of two trains is 7 : 8. If the second train runs 400 kms in 4 hours, then the speed of the first train is :
Correct
Solution: D
Let the speed of two trains be 7x Kmph and 8x kmph (speed of second train)
Then, 8x = 400 kms/4hrs = 100kmph
Therefore, speed of first train = 7x = (8/7) * 100
Speed of first train = 87.5 kmph
Incorrect
Solution: D
Let the speed of two trains be 7x Kmph and 8x kmph (speed of second train)
Then, 8x = 400 kms/4hrs = 100kmph
Therefore, speed of first train = 7x = (8/7) * 100
Speed of first train = 87.5 kmph
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsA truck covers a distance of 550 meters in 1 minute whereas a bus covers a distance of 33 kms in 45 minutes. The ratio of their speeds is:
Correct
Solution: A
Ratio of speeds = (550 m/60s * 18/5) : (60 * 33/45)
= 33: 44 = 3: 4
Incorrect
Solution: A
Ratio of speeds = (550 m/60s * 18/5) : (60 * 33/45)
= 33: 44 = 3: 4
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsReena runs 9 km at a pace of 6 km/hr. At what pace would she have to go amid the following 1.5 hours to have an average speed of 9 km/hr for the whole running session?
Correct
Solution: C
Time taken to cover 9 km = 9/6 hrs. = 1.5 hrs
Total time taken = (1.5 +1.5) hrs = 3 hrs.
Total distance covered in 3 hrs = Average speed * Total Time = (9 *3) = 27 km
In 1.5 hrs, distance covered = (27-9) km = 18 km
Required speed = 18/ (3/2) km/hr = (18*2/3) km/hr = 12 km/hr
Incorrect
Solution: C
Time taken to cover 9 km = 9/6 hrs. = 1.5 hrs
Total time taken = (1.5 +1.5) hrs = 3 hrs.
Total distance covered in 3 hrs = Average speed * Total Time = (9 *3) = 27 km
In 1.5 hrs, distance covered = (27-9) km = 18 km
Required speed = 18/ (3/2) km/hr = (18*2/3) km/hr = 12 km/hr
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsHow long will a boy take to run round a square field of side 35 metres, if he runs at the rate of 9 km/hr ?
Correct
Solution: D
Speed = 9km/hr = ( 9 * 5/18)m/sec = 5/2 m/sec
Total Distance = Perimeter of Square4 * side of the square = 35 *4 = 140 m
Therefore, time taken = Distance /Speed
= 140/(5/2) = 140* 2/5 = 28 *2 = 56sec
Incorrect
Solution: D
Speed = 9km/hr = ( 9 * 5/18)m/sec = 5/2 m/sec
Total Distance = Perimeter of Square4 * side of the square = 35 *4 = 140 m
Therefore, time taken = Distance /Speed
= 140/(5/2) = 140* 2/5 = 28 *2 = 56sec
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsDirections for the following (one) item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follow. Your answer to this item should be based on the passage only.
Health accessibility and affordability remain a crucial healthcare problem even in the 21st century. Therefore World Health Organisation chose “Universal Health Coverage” as the theme for World Health Day 2019. India started working towards the universal problem of affordability and accessibility with the introduction of Ayushman Bharat. The scheme gave a family cover of Rs. 5 lac to socio-economically weaker section and roped it many private sector hospitals to deliver the services. Sadly, most of the roped in hospitals are situated in the urban localities and last mile accessibility remains a point of concern in the country with diverse cultures and topography.
Which is the most critical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
Correct
Solution: B
The passage talks about the goal of universal health coverage and goes ahead and talks about the Ayushman Bharat Scheme which aims to take India closer to universal health coverage. The passage however goes on to mention the issues with Ayushman Bharat which highlight that for the objective of universal health coverage to be attained, we need to iron out the glitches in Ayushman Bharat and hence B is the most accurate option.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The passage talks about the goal of universal health coverage and goes ahead and talks about the Ayushman Bharat Scheme which aims to take India closer to universal health coverage. The passage however goes on to mention the issues with Ayushman Bharat which highlight that for the objective of universal health coverage to be attained, we need to iron out the glitches in Ayushman Bharat and hence B is the most accurate option.