INSIGHTS CURRENT Affairs RTM - 2019
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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Bill, 2020 :
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- It seeks to extend the upper limit for permitting abortions from 20 weeks to 26 under special circumstances.
- The Bill proposes requirement of opinion of one registered medical practitioner (RMP) for termination of pregnancy up to 20 weeks of gestation.
- Every state government is required to constitute a Medical Board.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation: Key Changes made:
- It seeks to extend the upper limit for permitting abortions from 20 weeks to 24 under special circumstances.
- The “special categories of women” include rape survivors, victims of incest, the differently abled and minors.
- The Bill proposes requirement of opinion of one registered medical practitioner (RMP) for termination of pregnancy up to 20 weeks of gestation.
- It also provides for the requirement of opinion of two RMPs for termination of pregnancy of 20 to 24 weeks.
- Constitution of a Medical Board: Every state government is required to constitute a Medical Board. These Medical Boards will consist of the following members: (i) a gynaecologist, (ii) a paediatrician, (iii) a radiologist or sonologist, and (iv) Any other number of members, as may be notified by the state government.
- Under the Bill, if any pregnancy occurs as a result of failure of any device or method used by a woman or her partner to limit the number of children, such an unwanted pregnancy may constitute a grave injury to the mental health of the pregnant woman.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/18/medical-termination-of-pregnancy-amendment-bill-2020/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation: Key Changes made:
- It seeks to extend the upper limit for permitting abortions from 20 weeks to 24 under special circumstances.
- The “special categories of women” include rape survivors, victims of incest, the differently abled and minors.
- The Bill proposes requirement of opinion of one registered medical practitioner (RMP) for termination of pregnancy up to 20 weeks of gestation.
- It also provides for the requirement of opinion of two RMPs for termination of pregnancy of 20 to 24 weeks.
- Constitution of a Medical Board: Every state government is required to constitute a Medical Board. These Medical Boards will consist of the following members: (i) a gynaecologist, (ii) a paediatrician, (iii) a radiologist or sonologist, and (iv) Any other number of members, as may be notified by the state government.
- Under the Bill, if any pregnancy occurs as a result of failure of any device or method used by a woman or her partner to limit the number of children, such an unwanted pregnancy may constitute a grave injury to the mental health of the pregnant woman.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/18/medical-termination-of-pregnancy-amendment-bill-2020/
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM) Phase-1:
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- ODF+ and ODF++ were launched in August 2018.
- While ODF+ focuses on toilets with water, maintenance and hygiene, ODF++ focuses on toilets with sludge and septage management.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- ODF+ and ODF++ were launched in August 2018 to further scale up and sustain the work undertaken by the cities after achieving the ODF status under Phase I of the Swachh Bharat Mission — Urban (SBM-Urban).
- ODF+ and ODF++ are aimed towards proper maintenance of toilet facilities and safe collection, conveyance, treatment/disposal of all faecal sludge and sewage.
- While ODF+ focuses on toilets with water, maintenance and hygiene, ODF++ focuses on toilets with sludge and septage management.
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- ODF+ and ODF++ were launched in August 2018 to further scale up and sustain the work undertaken by the cities after achieving the ODF status under Phase I of the Swachh Bharat Mission — Urban (SBM-Urban).
- ODF+ and ODF++ are aimed towards proper maintenance of toilet facilities and safe collection, conveyance, treatment/disposal of all faecal sludge and sewage.
- While ODF+ focuses on toilets with water, maintenance and hygiene, ODF++ focuses on toilets with sludge and septage management.
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsWhich one following categories of foreign nationals is/are not eligible to apply for OCI Card?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation: The following categories of persons (except Pakistan and Bangladesh) are eligible to apply under OCI scheme:
- Who is a citizen of another country, but was a citizen of India at the time of, or at any time after, the commencement of the constitution; or
- Who is a citizen of another country, but was eligible to become a citizen of India at the time of the commencement of the constitution; or
- Who is a citizen of another country, but belonged to a territory that became part of India after the 15th day of August, 1947; or
- Who is a child or a grand-child or a great grandchild of such a citizen
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/18/overseas-citizenship-of-india-oci/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation: The following categories of persons (except Pakistan and Bangladesh) are eligible to apply under OCI scheme:
- Who is a citizen of another country, but was a citizen of India at the time of, or at any time after, the commencement of the constitution; or
- Who is a citizen of another country, but was eligible to become a citizen of India at the time of the commencement of the constitution; or
- Who is a citizen of another country, but belonged to a territory that became part of India after the 15th day of August, 1947; or
- Who is a child or a grand-child or a great grandchild of such a citizen
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/18/overseas-citizenship-of-india-oci/
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsWith reference to RBI released new guidelines for payment aggregators, consider the following statements:
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- Capital requirements for payment aggregators has been reduced to Rs 25 crore at the time of application for the licence.
- The RBI has prohibited payment aggregators from allowing online transactions to be done with ATM pin as the second factor of authentication.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation: RBI releases new guidelines for payment aggregators:
- Capital requirements for payment aggregators has been reduced to Rs 15 crore at the time of application for the licence.
- This needs to be increased to Rs 25 crore within three years of operations.
- Existing non-bank entities offering payment aggregation (PA) services shall apply for authorisation on or before June 30, 2021.
- Pure-play payment gateway companies would be separated as an entity and would be identified as technology service providers for banks and non-banks.
- PAs have also been asked to adhere to strict security guidelines, adhere to all KYC (Know Your Customer) and AML (Anti Money Laundering) rules.
- The guidelines have also mandated that PAs need to check their merchant customers are not involved in selling of prohibited or fake items.
- The central bank has also asked PAs to set up designated nodal offices to deal with customer grievance.
- The RBI has prohibited PAs from allowing online transactions to be done with ATM pin as the second factor of authentication, which few payment gateway companies were offering as a service.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/18/rbi-releases-new-guidelines-for-payment-aggregators/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation: RBI releases new guidelines for payment aggregators:
- Capital requirements for payment aggregators has been reduced to Rs 15 crore at the time of application for the licence.
- This needs to be increased to Rs 25 crore within three years of operations.
- Existing non-bank entities offering payment aggregation (PA) services shall apply for authorisation on or before June 30, 2021.
- Pure-play payment gateway companies would be separated as an entity and would be identified as technology service providers for banks and non-banks.
- PAs have also been asked to adhere to strict security guidelines, adhere to all KYC (Know Your Customer) and AML (Anti Money Laundering) rules.
- The guidelines have also mandated that PAs need to check their merchant customers are not involved in selling of prohibited or fake items.
- The central bank has also asked PAs to set up designated nodal offices to deal with customer grievance.
- The RBI has prohibited PAs from allowing online transactions to be done with ATM pin as the second factor of authentication, which few payment gateway companies were offering as a service.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/18/rbi-releases-new-guidelines-for-payment-aggregators/
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- Payment gateways are the inclusion of all payment aggregators.
- Payment aggregators in India allow the merchants to deal in a specific payment option put on the portal.
- Payment gateways require RBI authorization before they set up a business.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Payment Gateway: It is an e-commerce software application, a software that allows online transactions to take place. It is a pass-through mechanism through which cards, net banking and e-wallet payments are done. Payment gateways offer a means to accept online payments.
- Payment Aggregator: it is the inclusion of all these payment gateways. Payment aggregators are service providers through which e-commerce merchants process payments. They allow merchants to accept bank transfers without setting up a merchant account that is associated with a bank.
- A payment aggregator can offer a payment gateway, but a payment gateway cannot offer a payment aggregator.
Difference between Payment Gateways & Payment Aggregators
- Both payment gateways and payment aggregators are inclusive. A payment aggregator need not act as a payment gateway, but a payment gateway will need an aggregator.
- Options: Payment Gateways in India allow the merchants to deal in a specific payment option put on the portal, whereas Payment aggregators offer multiple options for payment, from bank transfers, credit/debit cards, e-wallet transactions, and recently UPI.
- Small Businesses: Payment gateways use payment aggregators to be able to cater to small businesses. This is due to the fact that small businesses generally find the transaction fees provided by payment gateways too high and complex.
- Intermediary & Interface: Payment Gateways play the role of an intermediary with merchants and customers who want to pay for any goods or services they are purchasing from the site. A payment aggregator is more an interface through which said intermediaries accept payments and make settlements.
- Ownership: Payment gateways in India are owned by Payment aggregators(financial service providers) who act as a processing unit for implementing online payments. Payment gateways are merchants and vendors who cannot
- License: Payment gateways require RBI authorization before they set up a business. But a payment aggregator requires a payment aggregator license and obtain necessary certification from the Payment Card Industry (Data Security Standard/ PCI DSS).
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/18/rbi-releases-new-guidelines-for-payment-aggregators/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Payment Gateway: It is an e-commerce software application, a software that allows online transactions to take place. It is a pass-through mechanism through which cards, net banking and e-wallet payments are done. Payment gateways offer a means to accept online payments.
- Payment Aggregator: it is the inclusion of all these payment gateways. Payment aggregators are service providers through which e-commerce merchants process payments. They allow merchants to accept bank transfers without setting up a merchant account that is associated with a bank.
- A payment aggregator can offer a payment gateway, but a payment gateway cannot offer a payment aggregator.
Difference between Payment Gateways & Payment Aggregators
- Both payment gateways and payment aggregators are inclusive. A payment aggregator need not act as a payment gateway, but a payment gateway will need an aggregator.
- Options: Payment Gateways in India allow the merchants to deal in a specific payment option put on the portal, whereas Payment aggregators offer multiple options for payment, from bank transfers, credit/debit cards, e-wallet transactions, and recently UPI.
- Small Businesses: Payment gateways use payment aggregators to be able to cater to small businesses. This is due to the fact that small businesses generally find the transaction fees provided by payment gateways too high and complex.
- Intermediary & Interface: Payment Gateways play the role of an intermediary with merchants and customers who want to pay for any goods or services they are purchasing from the site. A payment aggregator is more an interface through which said intermediaries accept payments and make settlements.
- Ownership: Payment gateways in India are owned by Payment aggregators(financial service providers) who act as a processing unit for implementing online payments. Payment gateways are merchants and vendors who cannot
- License: Payment gateways require RBI authorization before they set up a business. But a payment aggregator requires a payment aggregator license and obtain necessary certification from the Payment Card Industry (Data Security Standard/ PCI DSS).
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/18/rbi-releases-new-guidelines-for-payment-aggregators/
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements is not true about GEMINI device?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation: Gagan Enabled Mariner’s Instrument for Navigation and Information (GEMINI) device:
- It is a device that used for seamless and effective dissemination of emergency information and communication on disaster warnings, Potential Fishing Zones (PFZ) and Ocean States Forecasts (OSF) to fishermen.
- The device will help to provide information related to disaster warnings when fishermen move away from the coast beyond 10 to 12 kilometres.
- The GEMINI device receives and transfers the data received from GAGAN satellite/s to a mobile through Bluetooth communication. A mobile application developed by INCOIS decodes and displays the information in nine regional languages.
- It has been developed by Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS), and Airports Authority of India (AAI).
- It is electronically designed and manufactured by a private industry M/S Acord, Bangalore under Make in India Program.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/18/potential-fishing-zone-pfz/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation: Gagan Enabled Mariner’s Instrument for Navigation and Information (GEMINI) device:
- It is a device that used for seamless and effective dissemination of emergency information and communication on disaster warnings, Potential Fishing Zones (PFZ) and Ocean States Forecasts (OSF) to fishermen.
- The device will help to provide information related to disaster warnings when fishermen move away from the coast beyond 10 to 12 kilometres.
- The GEMINI device receives and transfers the data received from GAGAN satellite/s to a mobile through Bluetooth communication. A mobile application developed by INCOIS decodes and displays the information in nine regional languages.
- It has been developed by Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS), and Airports Authority of India (AAI).
- It is electronically designed and manufactured by a private industry M/S Acord, Bangalore under Make in India Program.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/18/potential-fishing-zone-pfz/
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 points“Mission Parivar Vikas” is a flagship initiative of
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- On the World Population Day-2016, Union Minister of Health & Family Welfare had given directions to the Ministry to develop a strategy within 3 months where vulnerable districts in the country will be targeted for intensive and improved family planning services.
- In accordance with these directions, the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare launched “Mission Parivar Vikas” in 145 high focus districts having the highest total fertility rates in the country.
- These 145 districts are in the seven high focus, high TFR states of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Assam that constitute 44% of the country’s population.
- The main objective of ‘Mission Parivas Vikas’ : to accelerate access to high quality family planning choices based on information, reliable services and supplies within a rights-based framework.
Refer: Pib one liner facts: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/18/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-18-march-2020/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- On the World Population Day-2016, Union Minister of Health & Family Welfare had given directions to the Ministry to develop a strategy within 3 months where vulnerable districts in the country will be targeted for intensive and improved family planning services.
- In accordance with these directions, the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare launched “Mission Parivar Vikas” in 145 high focus districts having the highest total fertility rates in the country.
- These 145 districts are in the seven high focus, high TFR states of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Assam that constitute 44% of the country’s population.
- The main objective of ‘Mission Parivas Vikas’ : to accelerate access to high quality family planning choices based on information, reliable services and supplies within a rights-based framework.
Refer: Pib one liner facts: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/18/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-18-march-2020/
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsWhy is a plant called Nilavembu Kudineer often mentioned in news ?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Nilavembu Kudineer, a Siddha medicine has proven effect in the prevention and management of Dengue and Chikungunya in epidemic out breaks.
Refer: Pib one liner facts: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/18/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-18-march-2020/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Nilavembu Kudineer, a Siddha medicine has proven effect in the prevention and management of Dengue and Chikungunya in epidemic out breaks.
Refer: Pib one liner facts: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/18/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-18-march-2020/
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to Governor of Delhi :
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- The Lt. Governor of Delhi has more powers that the Governor of a State.
- In the case of difference of opinion between the Lt. Governor and his ministers, the Lt. Governor is to refer the matter to the president for decision and act accordingly.
- The Lt. Governor is empowered to promulgate ordinances during recess of the assembly.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Source: In an observation made in November 2017, the Supreme Court said that the Lt. Governor of Delhi has more powers that the Governor of a State — he does not have to listen to the advice of the Council of Ministers.
- In the case of Delhi, since portfolios like land, police and public order fall under the domain of the Centre, of which the Lt. Governor is a representative, he holds more powers than a Governor.
- The council of ministers headed by the chief minister aid and advise the
Lt. Governor in the exercise of his functions except in so far as he is required to act in his discretion. In the case of difference of opinion between the
Lt. Governor and his ministers, the lt. governor is to refer the matter to the president for decision and act accordingly.
- The Lt. Governor is empowered to promulgate ordinances during recess of the assembly. An ordinance has the same force as an act of the assembly. Every such ordinance must be approved by the assembly within six weeks from its reassembly. He can also withdraw an ordinance at any time. But, he cannot promulgate an ordinance when the assembly is dissolved or suspended. Further, no such ordinance can be promulgated or withdrawn without the prior permission of the President.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/12/role-of-l-g-and-govt-intertwined-madras-hc/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Source: In an observation made in November 2017, the Supreme Court said that the Lt. Governor of Delhi has more powers that the Governor of a State — he does not have to listen to the advice of the Council of Ministers.
- In the case of Delhi, since portfolios like land, police and public order fall under the domain of the Centre, of which the Lt. Governor is a representative, he holds more powers than a Governor.
- The council of ministers headed by the chief minister aid and advise the
Lt. Governor in the exercise of his functions except in so far as he is required to act in his discretion. In the case of difference of opinion between the
Lt. Governor and his ministers, the lt. governor is to refer the matter to the president for decision and act accordingly.
- The Lt. Governor is empowered to promulgate ordinances during recess of the assembly. An ordinance has the same force as an act of the assembly. Every such ordinance must be approved by the assembly within six weeks from its reassembly. He can also withdraw an ordinance at any time. But, he cannot promulgate an ordinance when the assembly is dissolved or suspended. Further, no such ordinance can be promulgated or withdrawn without the prior permission of the President.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/12/role-of-l-g-and-govt-intertwined-madras-hc/
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- Longitude of Jabalpur’s location is between those of Bhopal and Indore.
- Latitude of Mahabalipurm location is between those of Bangalore and Chennai.
- Agartala is situated more northward than Aizawl.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Stat1:
- Stat2:
- Stat3:
- Location of Agartala in Tripura : Coordinates: 23°50′N 91°17′ and 23°50′N 91°17′E
- Location of Aizawl in Mizoram: Coordinates: 23°43′38″N and 92°43′04″E
- Hence, Agartala is situated more northward than Aizawl.
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Stat1:
- Stat2:
- Stat3:
- Location of Agartala in Tripura : Coordinates: 23°50′N 91°17′ and 23°50′N 91°17′E
- Location of Aizawl in Mizoram: Coordinates: 23°43′38″N and 92°43′04″E
- Hence, Agartala is situated more northward than Aizawl.
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