INSIGHTS CURRENT Affairs RTM - 2019
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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider following statements with reference to Anti-Defection Law:
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- The Tenth Schedule was inserted in the Constitution in 1985 by the 52nd Amendment Act.
- The law applies to both Parliament and State assemblies.
- The decision on question as to disqualification on ground of defection is referred to the Chairman or the Speaker of such House, and his decision is final and immune from judicial review.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The anti-defection law initially stated that the decision of the Presiding Officer is not subject to judicial review.
- This condition was struck down by the Supreme Court in 1992, thereby allowing appeals against the Presiding Officer’s decision in the High Court and Supreme Court.
- However, it held that there may not be any judicial intervention until the Presiding Officer gives his order.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/13/what-is-the-anti-defection-law-and-how-is-it-implemented/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The anti-defection law initially stated that the decision of the Presiding Officer is not subject to judicial review.
- This condition was struck down by the Supreme Court in 1992, thereby allowing appeals against the Presiding Officer’s decision in the High Court and Supreme Court.
- However, it held that there may not be any judicial intervention until the Presiding Officer gives his order.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/13/what-is-the-anti-defection-law-and-how-is-it-implemented/
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following suggested that the decisions under the Tenth Schedule should be made by the President/ Governor on the binding advice of the Election Commission?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Election Commission
- Decisions under the Tenth Schedule should be made by the President/ Governor on the binding advice of the Election Commission.
- Dinesh Goswami Committee on electoral reforms (1990)
- Disqualification should be limited to cases where (a) a member voluntarily gives up the membership of his political party, (b) a member abstains from voting, or votes contrary to the party whip in a motion of vote of confidence or motion of no-confidence.
- The issue of disqualification should be decided by the President/ Governor on the advice of the Election Commission.
- Halim Committee on anti-defection law (1998)
- The words ‘voluntarily giving up membership of a political party’ be comprehensively defined.
- Restrictions like prohibition on joining another party or holding offices in the government be imposed on expelled members.
- The term political party should be defined clearly.
- Law Commission (170th Report, 1999)
- Provisions which exempt splits and mergers from disqualification to be deleted.
- Pre-poll electoral fronts should be treated as political parties under anti-defection law.
- Political parties should limit issuance of whips to instances only when the government is in danger.
- Constitution Review Commission (2002)
- Defectors should be barred from holding public office or any remunerative political post for the duration of the remaining term.
- The vote cast by a defector to topple a government should be treated as invalid.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/13/what-is-the-anti-defection-law-and-how-is-it-implemented/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Election Commission
- Decisions under the Tenth Schedule should be made by the President/ Governor on the binding advice of the Election Commission.
- Dinesh Goswami Committee on electoral reforms (1990)
- Disqualification should be limited to cases where (a) a member voluntarily gives up the membership of his political party, (b) a member abstains from voting, or votes contrary to the party whip in a motion of vote of confidence or motion of no-confidence.
- The issue of disqualification should be decided by the President/ Governor on the advice of the Election Commission.
- Halim Committee on anti-defection law (1998)
- The words ‘voluntarily giving up membership of a political party’ be comprehensively defined.
- Restrictions like prohibition on joining another party or holding offices in the government be imposed on expelled members.
- The term political party should be defined clearly.
- Law Commission (170th Report, 1999)
- Provisions which exempt splits and mergers from disqualification to be deleted.
- Pre-poll electoral fronts should be treated as political parties under anti-defection law.
- Political parties should limit issuance of whips to instances only when the government is in danger.
- Constitution Review Commission (2002)
- Defectors should be barred from holding public office or any remunerative political post for the duration of the remaining term.
- The vote cast by a defector to topple a government should be treated as invalid.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/13/what-is-the-anti-defection-law-and-how-is-it-implemented/
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsAs per the Mineral Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2020 in India, Which one of the following statements is correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Removal of restriction on end-use of coal: Currently, companies acquiring Schedule II and Schedule III coal mines through auctions can use the coal produced only for specified end-uses such as power generation and steel production. The Bill removes this restriction on the use of coal mined by such companies. Companies will be allowed to carry on coal mining operation for own consumption, sale or for any other purposes, as may be specified by the central government.
- Eligibility for auction of coal and lignite blocks: The Bill clarifies that the companies need not possess any prior coal mining experience in India in order to participate in the auction of coal and lignite blocks. Further, the competitive bidding process for auction of coal and lignite blocks will not apply to mines considered for allotment to: (i) a government company or its joint venture for own consumption, sale or any other specified purpose; and (ii) a company that has been awarded a power project on the basis of a competitive bid for tariff.
- Composite license for prospecting and mining: Currently, separate licenses are provided for prospecting and mining of coal and lignite, called prospecting license, and mining lease, respectively. Prospecting includes exploring, locating, or finding mineral deposit. The Bill adds a new type of license, called prospecting license-cum-mining lease. This will be a composite license providing for both prospecting and mining activities.
- Advance action for auction: Under the MMDR Act, mining leases for specified minerals (minerals other than coal, lignite, and atomic minerals) are auctioned on the expiry of the lease period. The Bill provides that state governments can take advance action for auction of a mining lease before its expiry.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/07/mineral-laws-amendment-bill-2020/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Removal of restriction on end-use of coal: Currently, companies acquiring Schedule II and Schedule III coal mines through auctions can use the coal produced only for specified end-uses such as power generation and steel production. The Bill removes this restriction on the use of coal mined by such companies. Companies will be allowed to carry on coal mining operation for own consumption, sale or for any other purposes, as may be specified by the central government.
- Eligibility for auction of coal and lignite blocks: The Bill clarifies that the companies need not possess any prior coal mining experience in India in order to participate in the auction of coal and lignite blocks. Further, the competitive bidding process for auction of coal and lignite blocks will not apply to mines considered for allotment to: (i) a government company or its joint venture for own consumption, sale or any other specified purpose; and (ii) a company that has been awarded a power project on the basis of a competitive bid for tariff.
- Composite license for prospecting and mining: Currently, separate licenses are provided for prospecting and mining of coal and lignite, called prospecting license, and mining lease, respectively. Prospecting includes exploring, locating, or finding mineral deposit. The Bill adds a new type of license, called prospecting license-cum-mining lease. This will be a composite license providing for both prospecting and mining activities.
- Advance action for auction: Under the MMDR Act, mining leases for specified minerals (minerals other than coal, lignite, and atomic minerals) are auctioned on the expiry of the lease period. The Bill provides that state governments can take advance action for auction of a mining lease before its expiry.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/07/mineral-laws-amendment-bill-2020/
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following statements best describes “Landlord port model”?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation: Main port management models based upon the respective responsibility of the public and private sectors:
- Landlord ports:
- In the landlord port model, the publicly governed port authority acts as a regulatory body and as landlord while private companies carry out port operations—mainly cargo-handling activities.
- Here, the port authority maintains ownership of the port while the infrastructure is leased to private firms that provide and maintain their own superstructure and install own equipment to handle cargo.
- In return, the landlord port gets a share of the revenue from the private entity.
- The role of the landlord port authority would be to carry out all public sector services and operations such as the award of bids for cargo terminals and dredging.
- Corporatized ports: Concerns ports that have almost entirely been privatized, with the exception that ownership remains public and often assumed as a majority shareholder. The port authority essentially behaves as a private enterprise. This management model is unique since it is the only one where ownership and control are separated, which lessens “public good” pressures landlord port authority are facing and “shareholder value” pressures private ports are facing.
- Private service ports: The outcome of a complete privatization of the port facility with a mandate that the facilities retain their maritime role. The port authority is entirely privatized with almost all the port functions under private control with the public sector retaining a standard regulatory oversight. Still, public entities can be shareholders and thus gear the port towards strategies that are deemed to be of public interest.
- Public service ports: The port authority of public service ports performs the whole range of port related services, in addition of owning all the infrastructure. They are commonly a branch of a government ministry and most of their employees are civil servants. Some ancillary services can be left to private companies. Because of the inefficiencies they are related with, the number of public service ports has declined.
- Tool ports: Similar in every aspect to a public service port, the tool port differs only by the private handling of its cargo operations, albeit the terminal equipment is still owned by the port authority. In several cases, a tool port is a transitional form between a public service port and a landlord port.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/13/major-port-authorities-bill-2020/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation: Main port management models based upon the respective responsibility of the public and private sectors:
- Landlord ports:
- In the landlord port model, the publicly governed port authority acts as a regulatory body and as landlord while private companies carry out port operations—mainly cargo-handling activities.
- Here, the port authority maintains ownership of the port while the infrastructure is leased to private firms that provide and maintain their own superstructure and install own equipment to handle cargo.
- In return, the landlord port gets a share of the revenue from the private entity.
- The role of the landlord port authority would be to carry out all public sector services and operations such as the award of bids for cargo terminals and dredging.
- Corporatized ports: Concerns ports that have almost entirely been privatized, with the exception that ownership remains public and often assumed as a majority shareholder. The port authority essentially behaves as a private enterprise. This management model is unique since it is the only one where ownership and control are separated, which lessens “public good” pressures landlord port authority are facing and “shareholder value” pressures private ports are facing.
- Private service ports: The outcome of a complete privatization of the port facility with a mandate that the facilities retain their maritime role. The port authority is entirely privatized with almost all the port functions under private control with the public sector retaining a standard regulatory oversight. Still, public entities can be shareholders and thus gear the port towards strategies that are deemed to be of public interest.
- Public service ports: The port authority of public service ports performs the whole range of port related services, in addition of owning all the infrastructure. They are commonly a branch of a government ministry and most of their employees are civil servants. Some ancillary services can be left to private companies. Because of the inefficiencies they are related with, the number of public service ports has declined.
- Tool ports: Similar in every aspect to a public service port, the tool port differs only by the private handling of its cargo operations, albeit the terminal equipment is still owned by the port authority. In several cases, a tool port is a transitional form between a public service port and a landlord port.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/13/major-port-authorities-bill-2020/
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- The Foreigner’s Tribunals are quasi-judicial bodies.
- The Foreigners Tribunals places the burden of proving one’s Indian citizenship on the person suspected of doubtful nationality.
- There is no provision of appeal against Foreigners Tribunals order.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The Foreigners’ Tribunals — 100 existing and 200 more to be functional by September 1 — are quasi-judicial bodies meant to “furnish opinion on the question as to whether a person is or is not a foreigner within the meaning of Foreigners Act, 1946”.
- Section 9 of the Foreigners Act says that “the onus of proving that such person is not a foreigner or is not a foreigner of such particular class or description, as the case may be, shall not withstanding anything contained in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, lie upon such person”.
- Thus, the accused has to prove he or she is an Indian. Since the onus is on the person, if he or she is absconding and doesn’t appear before the tribunal, the member can pass an ex parte order.
- What happens if an exparte order does not come up for review, or a review fails?
- If police can track the person after the order, he or she will be arrested and put into a detention camp. If not, the person will be an ‘untraced foreigner’. Many ‘declared foreigners’ appeal in the High Court and then the Supreme Court against an order by the FT.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/07/09/foreigners-tribunals/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The Foreigners’ Tribunals — 100 existing and 200 more to be functional by September 1 — are quasi-judicial bodies meant to “furnish opinion on the question as to whether a person is or is not a foreigner within the meaning of Foreigners Act, 1946”.
- Section 9 of the Foreigners Act says that “the onus of proving that such person is not a foreigner or is not a foreigner of such particular class or description, as the case may be, shall not withstanding anything contained in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, lie upon such person”.
- Thus, the accused has to prove he or she is an Indian. Since the onus is on the person, if he or she is absconding and doesn’t appear before the tribunal, the member can pass an ex parte order.
- What happens if an exparte order does not come up for review, or a review fails?
- If police can track the person after the order, he or she will be arrested and put into a detention camp. If not, the person will be an ‘untraced foreigner’. Many ‘declared foreigners’ appeal in the High Court and then the Supreme Court against an order by the FT.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/07/09/foreigners-tribunals/
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
-
- Avian influenza (bird flu) is a viral infection that can infect not only birds, but also humans and other animals.
- The avian botulism is a neuro-muscular illness caused by Botulinum that is produced by a bacteria.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- About Avian influenza (bird flu):
- It is a viral infection that can infect not only birds, but also humans and other animals. Most forms of the virus are restricted to birds.
- It is a highly contagious viral disease affecting several species of food-producing birds (chickens, turkeys, quails, guinea fowl, etc.), as well as pet birds and wild birds.
- Source: About Avian Botulism
- Avian botulism is said to be the reason behind the deaths of 18,000 birds in and around Rajasthan’s Sambhar lake.
- It is a neuro-muscular illness caused by Botulinum that is produced by a bacteria — Clostridium botulinum.
- The bacteria is commonly found in the soil, rivers, and seawater. It affects both humans and animals.
- The bacteria also need anaerobic (absence of oxygen) conditions and do not grow in acidic conditions.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/13/avian-influenza-bird-flu/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- About Avian influenza (bird flu):
- It is a viral infection that can infect not only birds, but also humans and other animals. Most forms of the virus are restricted to birds.
- It is a highly contagious viral disease affecting several species of food-producing birds (chickens, turkeys, quails, guinea fowl, etc.), as well as pet birds and wild birds.
- Source: About Avian Botulism
- Avian botulism is said to be the reason behind the deaths of 18,000 birds in and around Rajasthan’s Sambhar lake.
- It is a neuro-muscular illness caused by Botulinum that is produced by a bacteria — Clostridium botulinum.
- The bacteria is commonly found in the soil, rivers, and seawater. It affects both humans and animals.
- The bacteria also need anaerobic (absence of oxygen) conditions and do not grow in acidic conditions.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/13/avian-influenza-bird-flu/
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Digital Signature Certificate:
-
- Digital Signature Certificates (DSC) are the digital equivalent (that is electronic format) of physical or paper certificates.
- Common Service Centres are mandated to issue digital signature certificates.
- Digital Signature certificates are legally admissible in a Court of Law, as provided under the provisions of IT Act, 2000.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Digital Signature Certificates (DSC) are the digital equivalent (that is electronic format) of physical or paper certificates. Few Examples of physical certificates are drivers’ licenses, passports or membership cards. Certificates serve as proof of identity of an individual for a certain purpose; for example, a driver’s license identifies someone who can legally drive in a particular country. Likewise, a digital certificate can be presented electronically to prove one’s identity, to access information or services on the Internet or to sign certain documents digitally.
- A licensed Certifying Authority (CA) issues the digital signature. Certifying Authority (CA) means a person who has been granted a license to issue a digital signature certificate under Section 24 of the Indian IT-Act 2000.
- Digital Signatures are legally admissible in a Court of Law, as provided under the provisions of IT Act, 2000.
Refer: http://www.mca.gov.in/MinistryV2/digitalsignaturecertificate.html
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/13/amendments-to-the-information-technology-it-act-2/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Digital Signature Certificates (DSC) are the digital equivalent (that is electronic format) of physical or paper certificates. Few Examples of physical certificates are drivers’ licenses, passports or membership cards. Certificates serve as proof of identity of an individual for a certain purpose; for example, a driver’s license identifies someone who can legally drive in a particular country. Likewise, a digital certificate can be presented electronically to prove one’s identity, to access information or services on the Internet or to sign certain documents digitally.
- A licensed Certifying Authority (CA) issues the digital signature. Certifying Authority (CA) means a person who has been granted a license to issue a digital signature certificate under Section 24 of the Indian IT-Act 2000.
- Digital Signatures are legally admissible in a Court of Law, as provided under the provisions of IT Act, 2000.
Refer: http://www.mca.gov.in/MinistryV2/digitalsignaturecertificate.html
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/13/amendments-to-the-information-technology-it-act-2/
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- Crime Multi Agency Centre (Cri-MAC) aims to share information on heinous crime and other issues related to inter-state coordination.
- Crime and Criminal Tracking Network and Systems (CCTNS) is a Mission Mode Project (MMP) under the National e-Governance Plan of Govt. of India.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Crime and Criminal Tracking Network and Systems (CCTNS) is a project initiated in June 2009 which aims at creating a comprehensive and integrated system for enhancing the efficiency and effectiveness of policing at the Police Station level.
- This will be done through adoption of principles of e-Governance, and creation of a nationwide networked infrastructure for evolution of IT-enabled state-of-the-art tracking system around “investigation of crime and detection of criminals”.
- CCTNS is a Mission Mode Project (MMP) under the National e-Governance Plan of Govt. of India.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/13/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-13-march-2020/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Crime and Criminal Tracking Network and Systems (CCTNS) is a project initiated in June 2009 which aims at creating a comprehensive and integrated system for enhancing the efficiency and effectiveness of policing at the Police Station level.
- This will be done through adoption of principles of e-Governance, and creation of a nationwide networked infrastructure for evolution of IT-enabled state-of-the-art tracking system around “investigation of crime and detection of criminals”.
- CCTNS is a Mission Mode Project (MMP) under the National e-Governance Plan of Govt. of India.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/13/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-13-march-2020/
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
-
- Asiatic cheetah is naturally found in India.
- White Giraffe is endemic to western Asia.
- One horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- The Asiatic cheetah is the only large mammal to go extinct in the country since Independence.
- Poachers have killed two extremely rare white giraffes in northeast Kenya, leaving just one such animal in the world.
- Population distribution of the Greater One Horned Rhino
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/13/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-13-march-2020/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- The Asiatic cheetah is the only large mammal to go extinct in the country since Independence.
- Poachers have killed two extremely rare white giraffes in northeast Kenya, leaving just one such animal in the world.
- Population distribution of the Greater One Horned Rhino
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/13/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-13-march-2020/
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 points“Pong Dam Lake Wild Life sanctuary” is located in
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- ‘Restaurant’ for vultures in HP wild life sanctuary: It is a feeding station for vultures in the Pong Dam Lake Wild Life sanctuary in Kangra district of Himachal Pradesh.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/13/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-13-march-2020/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- ‘Restaurant’ for vultures in HP wild life sanctuary: It is a feeding station for vultures in the Pong Dam Lake Wild Life sanctuary in Kangra district of Himachal Pradesh.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/13/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-13-march-2020/
