Insights Current Affairs (11 February 2020) Revision Through MCQs
INSIGHTS CURRENT Affairs RTM - 2019
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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to The Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Amendment Act, 2018:
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- Act states that, there is no provision for anticipatory bail to the accused being charged with SC/ST Act.
- A preliminary inquiry is not essential before lodging an FIR under the act.
- The Act states that the investigating officer will not require the approval of any authority for the arrest of an accused.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Amendment Act of 2018:
- A preliminary inquiry is not essential before lodging an FIR under the act and the approval of senior police officials is not needed.
- There is no provision for anticipatory bail to the accused being charged with SC/ST Act.
Recently, Supreme Court has upheld a 2018 amendment which barred persons accused of committing atrocities against those belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes from getting anticipatory bail. The Court upheld the constitutionality of Section 18A of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Amendment Act of 2018.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/02/11/supreme-court-upholds-changes-to-sc-st-atrocities-law/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Amendment Act of 2018:
- A preliminary inquiry is not essential before lodging an FIR under the act and the approval of senior police officials is not needed.
- There is no provision for anticipatory bail to the accused being charged with SC/ST Act.
Recently, Supreme Court has upheld a 2018 amendment which barred persons accused of committing atrocities against those belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes from getting anticipatory bail. The Court upheld the constitutionality of Section 18A of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Amendment Act of 2018.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/02/11/supreme-court-upholds-changes-to-sc-st-atrocities-law/
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- There is no provision of Special Category Status in the Constitution
- The concept of Special Category Status emerged in 1969 when the Gadgil formula was approved.
- One of the prominent guidelines for getting SCS status is high population density and significant tribal population.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Special Category Status: There is no provision of SCS in the Constitution; the Central government extends financial assistance to states that are at a comparative disadvantage against others. The concept of SCS emerged in 1969 when the Gadgil formula (that determined Central assistance to states) was approved.
- Some prominent guidelines for getting SCS status:
- Must be economically backward with poor infrastructure.
- The states must be located in hilly and challenging terrain.
- They should have low population density and significant tribal population.
- Should be strategically situated along the borders of neighboring countries.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/02/11/special-category-status/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Special Category Status: There is no provision of SCS in the Constitution; the Central government extends financial assistance to states that are at a comparative disadvantage against others. The concept of SCS emerged in 1969 when the Gadgil formula (that determined Central assistance to states) was approved.
- Some prominent guidelines for getting SCS status:
- Must be economically backward with poor infrastructure.
- The states must be located in hilly and challenging terrain.
- They should have low population density and significant tribal population.
- Should be strategically situated along the borders of neighboring countries.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/02/11/special-category-status/
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- India carries the highest burden of worm infestation.
- The WHO recommended medicines for soil-transmitted helminth infections are albendazole and mebendazole.
- The global target is to eliminate morbidity due to soil-transmitted helminthiases in children by 2020.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- India carries the highest burden of worm infestation and 64% of Indian population less than 14 years of age are at risk of Soil Transmitted Helminths (STH) or worms’ infestation (WHO).
- The global target is to eliminate morbidity due to soil-transmitted helminthiases in children by 2020. This will be obtained by regularly treating at least 75% of the children in endemic areas (an estimated 836 million in 2016).
- The WHO recommended medicines – albendazole (400 mg) and mebendazole (500 mg) – are effective, inexpensive and easy to administer by non-medical personnel (e.g. teachers). They have been through extensive safety testing and have been used in millions of people with few and minor side-effects.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/02/11/national-deworming-day/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- India carries the highest burden of worm infestation and 64% of Indian population less than 14 years of age are at risk of Soil Transmitted Helminths (STH) or worms’ infestation (WHO).
- The global target is to eliminate morbidity due to soil-transmitted helminthiases in children by 2020. This will be obtained by regularly treating at least 75% of the children in endemic areas (an estimated 836 million in 2016).
- The WHO recommended medicines – albendazole (400 mg) and mebendazole (500 mg) – are effective, inexpensive and easy to administer by non-medical personnel (e.g. teachers). They have been through extensive safety testing and have been used in millions of people with few and minor side-effects.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/02/11/national-deworming-day/
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are the primary purposes of the Cash Reserve Ratio?
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- Ensuring some liquid money against deposits
- Allow the RBI to control liquidity and rates in the economy
- Protect depositors and promote the stability and efficiency of financial systems
Select the correct answer using the code below:
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Cash Reserve Ratio: While ensuring some liquid money against deposits is the primary purpose of CRR, its secondary purpose is to allow the RBI to control liquidity and rates in the economy.
- The capital adequacy ratio, also known as capital to risk-weighted assets ratio, measures a bank’s financial strength by using its capital and assets. It is used to protect depositors and promote the stability and efficiency of financial systems around the world.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/02/11/what-is-crr-or-cash-reserve-ratio/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Cash Reserve Ratio: While ensuring some liquid money against deposits is the primary purpose of CRR, its secondary purpose is to allow the RBI to control liquidity and rates in the economy.
- The capital adequacy ratio, also known as capital to risk-weighted assets ratio, measures a bank’s financial strength by using its capital and assets. It is used to protect depositors and promote the stability and efficiency of financial systems around the world.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/02/11/what-is-crr-or-cash-reserve-ratio/
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following institutions is/are required to keep Statutory Liquid Ratio, as per the orders of RBI?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Cash Reserve Ratio is the percentage of the deposit (NDTL) that a bank has to keep with the RBI. CRR is kept in the form of cash and that also with the RBI. No interest is paid on such reserves.
- Statutory Liquid Ratio is the percentage of deposit that the banks have to keep as liquid assets in their own vault.
- The institutions which are required to keep SLR are:
- All Commercial Banks (Scheduled and non scheduled), Primary (Urban) Co-operative Banks (UCBs), State and Central Cooperative Banks.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/02/11/what-is-crr-or-cash-reserve-ratio/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Cash Reserve Ratio is the percentage of the deposit (NDTL) that a bank has to keep with the RBI. CRR is kept in the form of cash and that also with the RBI. No interest is paid on such reserves.
- Statutory Liquid Ratio is the percentage of deposit that the banks have to keep as liquid assets in their own vault.
- The institutions which are required to keep SLR are:
- All Commercial Banks (Scheduled and non scheduled), Primary (Urban) Co-operative Banks (UCBs), State and Central Cooperative Banks.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/02/11/what-is-crr-or-cash-reserve-ratio/
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- Cauvery Delta Zone (CDZ) lies in the eastern part of Tamil Nadu.
- CDZ is bounded by the Bay of Bengal on the east and the Palk straight on the south.
- In Cauvery Delta Zone (CDZ), sugar cane is the principal crop.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Cauvery Delta Zone (CDZ) lies in the eastern part of Tamil Nadu.
- It is bounded by the Bay of Bengal on the east and the Palk straight on the south.
- In this zone, rice is the principal crop.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/02/11/protected-special-agricultural-zone-psaz/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Cauvery Delta Zone (CDZ) lies in the eastern part of Tamil Nadu.
- It is bounded by the Bay of Bengal on the east and the Palk straight on the south.
- In this zone, rice is the principal crop.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/02/11/protected-special-agricultural-zone-psaz/
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- Solar Orbiter Mission is a collaboration between ESA (the European Space Agency) and NASA.
- Aditya-1 mission, 400kg Class of satellite, was planned to launch in a 800 km low earth orbit, to study the Sun.
- Aditya-1 mission was meant to observe the only solar corona ie outer most layers of the Sun.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The Aditya-1 mission was conceived as a 400kg class satellite carrying one payload, the Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC) and was planned to launch in a 800 km low earth orbit.
- A Satellite placed in the halo orbit around the Lagrangian point 1 (L1) of the Sun-Earth system has the major advantage of continuously viewing the Sun without any occultation/ eclipses.
- Therefore, the Aditya-1 mission has now been revised to “Aditya-L1 mission” (and will be inserted in a halo orbit around the L1, which is 1.5 million km from the Earth)
- The satellite carries additional six payloads with enhanced science scope and objectives.
- Aditya-1 was meant to observe only the solar corona. The outer layers of the Sun, extending to thousands of km above the disc (photosphere) is termed as the corona. It has a temperature of more than a million degree Kelvin which is much higher than the solar disc temperature of around 6000K. How the corona gets heated to such high temperatures is still an unanswered question in solar physics.
- Aditya-L1 with additional experiments can now provide observations of Sun’s Corona (soft and hard X-ray, Emission lines in the visible and NIR), Chromosphere (UV) and photosphere (broadband filters). In addition, particle payloads will study the particle flux emanating from the Sun and reaching the L1 orbit, and the magnetometer payload will measure the variation in magnetic field strength at the halo orbit around L1. These payloads have to be placed outside the interference from the Earth’s magnetic field and could not have been useful in the low earth orbit.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/02/11/solar-orbiter-mission/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The Aditya-1 mission was conceived as a 400kg class satellite carrying one payload, the Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC) and was planned to launch in a 800 km low earth orbit.
- A Satellite placed in the halo orbit around the Lagrangian point 1 (L1) of the Sun-Earth system has the major advantage of continuously viewing the Sun without any occultation/ eclipses.
- Therefore, the Aditya-1 mission has now been revised to “Aditya-L1 mission” (and will be inserted in a halo orbit around the L1, which is 1.5 million km from the Earth)
- The satellite carries additional six payloads with enhanced science scope and objectives.
- Aditya-1 was meant to observe only the solar corona. The outer layers of the Sun, extending to thousands of km above the disc (photosphere) is termed as the corona. It has a temperature of more than a million degree Kelvin which is much higher than the solar disc temperature of around 6000K. How the corona gets heated to such high temperatures is still an unanswered question in solar physics.
- Aditya-L1 with additional experiments can now provide observations of Sun’s Corona (soft and hard X-ray, Emission lines in the visible and NIR), Chromosphere (UV) and photosphere (broadband filters). In addition, particle payloads will study the particle flux emanating from the Sun and reaching the L1 orbit, and the magnetometer payload will measure the variation in magnetic field strength at the halo orbit around L1. These payloads have to be placed outside the interference from the Earth’s magnetic field and could not have been useful in the low earth orbit.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/02/11/solar-orbiter-mission/
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals is an environmental treaty of the UNEP and IUCN.
- CMS provides a global platform for the conservation and sustainable use of migratory animals and their habitats.
- India has signed non-legally binding MoU with CMS on conservation and management of Siberian Cranes, Marine Turtles, Dugongs and Raptors.
- Great Indian Bustard is the top 10 migratory species facing extinction under the Convention for Conservation of Migratory Species (CMS) of Wild Animals.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The critically endangered Great Indian Bustard (GIB) is likely to be included in the global list of top 10 migratory species facing extinction under the UNEP’s Convention for Conservation of Migratory Species (CMS) of Wild Animals.
- The list will be debated at the 13th Conference of Parties (COP) of the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS), an environment treaty under the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
- India has signed non-legally binding MoU with CMS on conservation and management of Siberian Cranes (1998), Marine Turtles (2007), Dugongs (2008) and Raptors (2016).
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/02/11/global-conservation-list/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The critically endangered Great Indian Bustard (GIB) is likely to be included in the global list of top 10 migratory species facing extinction under the UNEP’s Convention for Conservation of Migratory Species (CMS) of Wild Animals.
- The list will be debated at the 13th Conference of Parties (COP) of the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS), an environment treaty under the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
- India has signed non-legally binding MoU with CMS on conservation and management of Siberian Cranes (1998), Marine Turtles (2007), Dugongs (2008) and Raptors (2016).
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/02/11/global-conservation-list/
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsMoodalapaya and Paduvalapaya are the most popular folk theatre forms of
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Yakshagana is one of the most popular folk theatre forms of Karnataka. It is noted for its music, colourful costumes, vigorous dance movements, subtle expressions and extempore dialogues.
- Yakshagana has two main variations, each of which has many variations: Moodalapaya (the eastern form which is popular in north Karnataka) and Paduvalapaya (western style also known as coastal Yakshagana.
- Yakshaganam : one of the oldest and popular theatre art forms of Telangana.
- It is a traditional theatre form that combines dance, music, costume, dialogue, make-up, and stage techniques with a unique style.
- In earlier days, the artistes of Bhagotham used to travel from village to village and present their shows for more than 10 days at each place.
- In the art form, the plays of Sashirekha Parinayam, Satya Harishchandra, Garudashalam, Maya-Subadra, Kanaka Tara, Maya Bazar, Gayopakshanam, Chandravathi, Ramanjaneya Yuddham attracted people the most.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/02/11/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-11-february-2020/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Yakshagana is one of the most popular folk theatre forms of Karnataka. It is noted for its music, colourful costumes, vigorous dance movements, subtle expressions and extempore dialogues.
- Yakshagana has two main variations, each of which has many variations: Moodalapaya (the eastern form which is popular in north Karnataka) and Paduvalapaya (western style also known as coastal Yakshagana.
- Yakshaganam : one of the oldest and popular theatre art forms of Telangana.
- It is a traditional theatre form that combines dance, music, costume, dialogue, make-up, and stage techniques with a unique style.
- In earlier days, the artistes of Bhagotham used to travel from village to village and present their shows for more than 10 days at each place.
- In the art form, the plays of Sashirekha Parinayam, Satya Harishchandra, Garudashalam, Maya-Subadra, Kanaka Tara, Maya Bazar, Gayopakshanam, Chandravathi, Ramanjaneya Yuddham attracted people the most.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/02/11/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-11-february-2020/
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following pairs is/are correctly matched with reference to India’s defence procurements?
Defence Systems Origin country
- NASAMS USA
- S-400 Russia
- Barak 8 Israel
- SPAD-GMS France
Select the correct answer using the code below:
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- NASAMS -USA
- S-400 – Russia
- Barak 8 – Israel
- Self-propelled air defence gun missile system (SPAD-GMS) – South Korea
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/02/11/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-11-february-2020/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- NASAMS -USA
- S-400 – Russia
- Barak 8 – Israel
- Self-propelled air defence gun missile system (SPAD-GMS) – South Korea
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/02/11/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-11-february-2020/
