Insights Current Affairs (1 January 2020) Revision Through MCQs
INSIGHTS CURRENT Affairs RTM - 2019
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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to Indian History Congress (IHC):
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- It was founded in 1935 and it is the largest association of professional historians in South Asia.
- R C Dutt, G K Gokhale and E V Ramaswamy were the prominent leader associated with Indian History Congress.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Founded in 1935, the Indian History Congress (IHC) is the largest association of professional historians in South Asia.
- The BISM organised an All India Congress in 1935 to celebrate its silver jubilee in Pune. As an outcome, the Indian History Congress (IHC) was thus born with about 50 delegates.
- The Bharata Itihasa Samshodhaka Mandala (BISM) was founded by Vishwanath Kashinath Rajwade in 1910 in Pune with the support of K C Mehendale.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/01/01/indian-history-congress/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Founded in 1935, the Indian History Congress (IHC) is the largest association of professional historians in South Asia.
- The BISM organised an All India Congress in 1935 to celebrate its silver jubilee in Pune. As an outcome, the Indian History Congress (IHC) was thus born with about 50 delegates.
- The Bharata Itihasa Samshodhaka Mandala (BISM) was founded by Vishwanath Kashinath Rajwade in 1910 in Pune with the support of K C Mehendale.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/01/01/indian-history-congress/
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- Battle of Koregaon was fought in 1818 between the mahar community and the Peshwa Baji Rao I of the Mogul Confederacy.
- Battle of Koregaon was part of the Third Anglo Maratha war.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The Battle of Koregaon was fought on 1 January 1818 between the mahar Warrior and the Peshwa faction of the Maratha (not Mogul) Confederacy, at Koregaon Bhima.
- A 28,000-strong force led by Peshwa Baji Rao II whilst on their way to attack the company-held Pune, were unexpectedly met by an 800-strong Company force.
- The battle was part of the Third Anglo Maratha war, a series of battles that culminated in the defeat of the Maratha Empire and subsequent rule of the British East India Company in nearly all of Western, Central and Southern India.
- There is a “victory pillar” in Koregaon commemorating the battle that was on its way to reinforce the British troops in Pune.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/01/01/bhima-koregaon-anniversary-2/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The Battle of Koregaon was fought on 1 January 1818 between the mahar Warrior and the Peshwa faction of the Maratha (not Mogul) Confederacy, at Koregaon Bhima.
- A 28,000-strong force led by Peshwa Baji Rao II whilst on their way to attack the company-held Pune, were unexpectedly met by an 800-strong Company force.
- The battle was part of the Third Anglo Maratha war, a series of battles that culminated in the defeat of the Maratha Empire and subsequent rule of the British East India Company in nearly all of Western, Central and Southern India.
- There is a “victory pillar” in Koregaon commemorating the battle that was on its way to reinforce the British troops in Pune.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/01/01/bhima-koregaon-anniversary-2/
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsRecently Swachh Survekshan League 2020 has been released by
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- MOHUA announces results of Swachh Survekshan League (quarter 1 and quarter 2)
- Swachh Survekshan League 2020 (SS League 2020) was introduced with the objective of sustaining the onground performance of cities along with continuous monitoring of service level performance when it comes to cleanliness.
- SS League 2020 is being conducted in 3 quarters, i.e. April- June, July – September and October- December 2019 and has 2000 marks for each quarter evaluated on the basis of monthly updation of SBM-U online MIS by cities along with citizen’s validation on the 12 service level progress indicators through outbound calls.
- Ranks have been assigned in two categories, namely, cities with population of one lakh and above (with two sub-categories, i.e. 1-10 lakh and 10 lakhs and above) and cities with population of less than 1 lakh (under the < 1 lakh population category, the rankings are given zone and population wise).
- The performance of cities in SS League 2020 is crucial to their ranking in Swachh Survekshan 2020 due to the 25% weightage of the quarterly assessments to be included in the annual survey scheduled to commence from 4 January till 31 January 2020.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/01/01/swacch-survekshan-league/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- MOHUA announces results of Swachh Survekshan League (quarter 1 and quarter 2)
- Swachh Survekshan League 2020 (SS League 2020) was introduced with the objective of sustaining the onground performance of cities along with continuous monitoring of service level performance when it comes to cleanliness.
- SS League 2020 is being conducted in 3 quarters, i.e. April- June, July – September and October- December 2019 and has 2000 marks for each quarter evaluated on the basis of monthly updation of SBM-U online MIS by cities along with citizen’s validation on the 12 service level progress indicators through outbound calls.
- Ranks have been assigned in two categories, namely, cities with population of one lakh and above (with two sub-categories, i.e. 1-10 lakh and 10 lakhs and above) and cities with population of less than 1 lakh (under the < 1 lakh population category, the rankings are given zone and population wise).
- The performance of cities in SS League 2020 is crucial to their ranking in Swachh Survekshan 2020 due to the 25% weightage of the quarterly assessments to be included in the annual survey scheduled to commence from 4 January till 31 January 2020.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/01/01/swacch-survekshan-league/
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsWith reference to PM – KISAN scheme, Consider the following statements:
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- It is an initiative by the GoI in which all small and marginal farmers will get up to ₹6,000 per year as minimum income support.
- ₹6,000 per year will be paid to each eligible farmer in lump sum and will be deposited directly to their bank accounts.
- It falls under the aegis of Union MoL&E.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi is an initiative by the government of India in which all small and marginal farmers will get up to ₹6,000 per year as minimum income support.
- ₹6,000 per year will be paid to each eligible farmer in three instalments and will be deposited directly to their bank accounts
- It falls under the aegis of Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/01/01/pm-kisan-scheme-5/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi is an initiative by the government of India in which all small and marginal farmers will get up to ₹6,000 per year as minimum income support.
- ₹6,000 per year will be paid to each eligible farmer in three instalments and will be deposited directly to their bank accounts
- It falls under the aegis of Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/01/01/pm-kisan-scheme-5/
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsBhavantar Bhugtan Yojana was sought to provide relief to farmers by providing the differential between MSPs and market prices. it was launched by
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Bhavantar Bhugtan Yojana in Madhya Pradesh was sought to provide relief to farmers by providing the differential between MSPs and market prices.
- The Rythu Bandhu scheme of the Telangana provides ₹4,000 per acre for every season to all the farmers of the state. Similar initiatives have also be framed in Jharkhand and Odisha.
- Krushak Assistance for Livelihood and Income augmentation (KALIA) of Odisha is more complicated in design and implementation. It commits to give Rs 5,000 per SMF, twice a year that is Rs 10,000 a year.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/01/01/pm-kisan-scheme-5/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Bhavantar Bhugtan Yojana in Madhya Pradesh was sought to provide relief to farmers by providing the differential between MSPs and market prices.
- The Rythu Bandhu scheme of the Telangana provides ₹4,000 per acre for every season to all the farmers of the state. Similar initiatives have also be framed in Jharkhand and Odisha.
- Krushak Assistance for Livelihood and Income augmentation (KALIA) of Odisha is more complicated in design and implementation. It commits to give Rs 5,000 per SMF, twice a year that is Rs 10,000 a year.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/01/01/pm-kisan-scheme-5/
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about National Infrastructure Pipeline:
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- National Infrastructure Pipeline will ensure that infrastructure projects are adequately prepared and launched.
- Regulation and monitoring will be under the sole prerogative of Ministry of Finance
- Central government and state governments have an equal share of 50% each in the NIP
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- It is estimated that India would need to spend $4.5 trillion on infrastructure by 2030 to sustain its growth rate. The endeavour of the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP), is to make this happen in an efficient manner.
- Funding: The central government and state governments would have an equal share of 39% each in the NIP. The private sector, on the other hand, would have 22% share which the government expects to increase to 30% by 2025.
- National Infrastructure Pipeline will ensure that infrastructure projects are adequately prepared and launched.
- Each Ministry/ Department would be responsible for the monitoring of projects so as to ensure their timely and within-cost implementation.
- It will help in stepping-up annual infrastructure investment to achieve the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of $5 trillion by 2024-25.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/01/01/national-infrastructure-pipeline-2/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- It is estimated that India would need to spend $4.5 trillion on infrastructure by 2030 to sustain its growth rate. The endeavour of the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP), is to make this happen in an efficient manner.
- Funding: The central government and state governments would have an equal share of 39% each in the NIP. The private sector, on the other hand, would have 22% share which the government expects to increase to 30% by 2025.
- National Infrastructure Pipeline will ensure that infrastructure projects are adequately prepared and launched.
- Each Ministry/ Department would be responsible for the monitoring of projects so as to ensure their timely and within-cost implementation.
- It will help in stepping-up annual infrastructure investment to achieve the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of $5 trillion by 2024-25.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/01/01/national-infrastructure-pipeline-2/
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following best describes the term “Merchant Discount Rate” sometimes seen in news?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation: “Merchant Discount Rate”
- It is a fee charged from a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from customers through credit and debit cards in their establishments.
- MDR compensates the card issuing bank, the lender which puts the PoS terminal and payment gateways such as Mastercard or Visa for their services.
- MDR charges are usually shared in pre-agreed proportion between the bank and a merchant and is expressed in percentage of transaction amount
- From January onwards, all companies with a turnover of Rs 50 crore or more need to provide the facility of payment through RuPay Debit card and UPI QR code to their customers, under which no MDR fee will be charged from customers as well as merchants
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/01/01/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-01-january-2020/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation: “Merchant Discount Rate”
- It is a fee charged from a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from customers through credit and debit cards in their establishments.
- MDR compensates the card issuing bank, the lender which puts the PoS terminal and payment gateways such as Mastercard or Visa for their services.
- MDR charges are usually shared in pre-agreed proportion between the bank and a merchant and is expressed in percentage of transaction amount
- From January onwards, all companies with a turnover of Rs 50 crore or more need to provide the facility of payment through RuPay Debit card and UPI QR code to their customers, under which no MDR fee will be charged from customers as well as merchants
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/01/01/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-01-january-2020/
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Renaming of states in India.
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- The procedure of renaming of the state can be initiated by either the Parliament or the State Legislator.
- Article 3 lays down that a bill to alter the name of any state can be introduced in the Parliament, only with the prior recommendation of the President.
- After recommending the bill to alter the name of any state to the Parliament, the President has to refer the same to the state legislature concerned for expressing its views within a specified period.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The procedure of renaming of the state can be initiated by either the Parliament or the State Legislator and the procedure is as follows:
- The renaming of a state requires Parliamentary approval under Article 3 and 4 of the Constitution.
- A bill for renaming a state may be introduced in the Parliament on the recommendation of the President.
- Before the introduction of the bill, the President shall send the bill to the respective state assembly for expressing their views within a stipulated time. The views of the state assembly are not binding, neither on the President nor on the Parliament.
- On the expiry of the period, the bill will be sent to the Parliament for deliberation. The bill in order to take the force of a law must be passed by a simple majority.
- The bill is sent for approval to the President. After the approval of the said bill, the bill becomes a law and the name of the state stands modified.
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The procedure of renaming of the state can be initiated by either the Parliament or the State Legislator and the procedure is as follows:
- The renaming of a state requires Parliamentary approval under Article 3 and 4 of the Constitution.
- A bill for renaming a state may be introduced in the Parliament on the recommendation of the President.
- Before the introduction of the bill, the President shall send the bill to the respective state assembly for expressing their views within a stipulated time. The views of the state assembly are not binding, neither on the President nor on the Parliament.
- On the expiry of the period, the bill will be sent to the Parliament for deliberation. The bill in order to take the force of a law must be passed by a simple majority.
- The bill is sent for approval to the President. After the approval of the said bill, the bill becomes a law and the name of the state stands modified.
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsThe mutual delegation of executive power between centre and states cannot occur
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- President may, with the consent of the state government, entrust to that government any of the executive functions of the Centre. Conversely, the governor of a state may, with the consent of the Central government, entrust to that government any of the executive functions of the state.
Constitution also makes a provision for the entrustment of the executive functions of the Centre to a state without the consent of that state. But, in this case, the delegation is by the Parliament and not by the president. Notably, the same thing cannot be done by the state legislature.
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- President may, with the consent of the state government, entrust to that government any of the executive functions of the Centre. Conversely, the governor of a state may, with the consent of the Central government, entrust to that government any of the executive functions of the state.
Constitution also makes a provision for the entrustment of the executive functions of the Centre to a state without the consent of that state. But, in this case, the delegation is by the Parliament and not by the president. Notably, the same thing cannot be done by the state legislature.
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConstitution confers executive power of a subject in the Concurrent list to
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- In respect of matters on which both the Parliament and the state legislatures have power of legislation (i.e., the subjects enumerated in the Concurrent List), the executive power rests with the states except when a Constitutional provision or a parliamentary law specifically confers it on the Centre.
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- In respect of matters on which both the Parliament and the state legislatures have power of legislation (i.e., the subjects enumerated in the Concurrent List), the executive power rests with the states except when a Constitutional provision or a parliamentary law specifically confers it on the Centre.








