Insights Current Affairs (31 December 2019) Revision Through MCQs
INSIGHTS CURRENT Affairs RTM - 2019
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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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- Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsRecently Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) India Index has been in news for sometimes is released by
CorrectAns: (a)
Explanation:
- NITI Aayog has released the 2019 SDG India Index.
- The index evaluates progress of States and Union Territories on social, economic and environmental parameters.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/12/31/sustainable-development-goal-index/
IncorrectAns: (a)
Explanation:
- NITI Aayog has released the 2019 SDG India Index.
- The index evaluates progress of States and Union Territories on social, economic and environmental parameters.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/12/31/sustainable-development-goal-index/
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to Telangana Industrial Health Clinic Ltd (TIHCL)
- TIHCL is a Fintech driven Non-Banking Finance Company (NBFC)
- It facilitates ‘inclusive-financing’ with focus in engaging, rejuvenating and advocating the state of affairs and synergies in manufacturing MSEs
- Since its operations are limited to Telangana state, it is not eligible for Central government funding
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
CorrectAns: (a)
Explanation: Telangana Industrial Health Clinic Ltd (TIHCL)
- TIHCL is a co-financing non-banking finance company (NBFC).
- Objective: To provide financial support to micro and small manufacturing units.
- Since its inception about one and a half year ago as a fintech non-banking finance company, the TIHCL has been managing with just one-tenth of the originally envisaged ₹100 crore corpus fund. This decision makes it eligible for Central government funding.
- The proposed foray, however, would be subject to the State government giving an assurance of no intrusion either in the model of funding, offered to the micro and small enterprises, or governance.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/12/31/telangana-industrial-health-clinic/
IncorrectAns: (a)
Explanation: Telangana Industrial Health Clinic Ltd (TIHCL)
- TIHCL is a co-financing non-banking finance company (NBFC).
- Objective: To provide financial support to micro and small manufacturing units.
- Since its inception about one and a half year ago as a fintech non-banking finance company, the TIHCL has been managing with just one-tenth of the originally envisaged ₹100 crore corpus fund. This decision makes it eligible for Central government funding.
- The proposed foray, however, would be subject to the State government giving an assurance of no intrusion either in the model of funding, offered to the micro and small enterprises, or governance.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/12/31/telangana-industrial-health-clinic/
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Children’s Science Congress(NCSC)
- NCSC provides the platform for children to carry out small research activities at micro-level
- It is a forum children of the age-group of 10-17 years, both from formal school system as well as from out of school
- NCSC is a flagship programme of NCSTC under MHRD
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
CorrectAns: (a)
Explanation:
- National Children’s Science Congress, also referred to as Children’s Science Congress at the district and state levels is the flagship programme of National Council for Science and Technology Communication (NCSTC), Department of Science & Technology (DST), Government of India.
- It is a platform for children to carry out small research activities at micro-level.
- It is a forum children of the age-group of 10-17 years, both from formal school system as well as from out of school, to exhibit their creativity and innovativeness and more particularly their ability to solve a societal problem experienced locally using by method of science.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/12/31/national-childrens-science-congress-ncsc/
IncorrectAns: (a)
Explanation:
- National Children’s Science Congress, also referred to as Children’s Science Congress at the district and state levels is the flagship programme of National Council for Science and Technology Communication (NCSTC), Department of Science & Technology (DST), Government of India.
- It is a platform for children to carry out small research activities at micro-level.
- It is a forum children of the age-group of 10-17 years, both from formal school system as well as from out of school, to exhibit their creativity and innovativeness and more particularly their ability to solve a societal problem experienced locally using by method of science.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/12/31/national-childrens-science-congress-ncsc/
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA),1958, Consider the following statements
- Recently MHA has declared entire State of Assam as a “disturbed area” for six more months, under AFSPA,1958
- Only Governor of the State or administrator of the Union Territory has the power to declare the whole or part of the State or Union Territory as a disturbed area
- Justice B P Jeevan Reddy committee recommended the repeal of the AFSPA
Which of the given above statements is/are not correct?
CorrectAns: (b)
Explanation: Here Directive word is Not Correct!!
- The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has declared the entire State of Nagaland as a “disturbed area” for six more months, under the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958 (AFSPA).
- In simple terms, AFSPA gives armed forces the power to maintain public order in “disturbed areas”. The Central Government, or the Governor of the State or administrator of the Union Territory can declare the whole or part of the State or Union Territory as a disturbed area.
- Central government in 2004, appointed a five-member committee headed by Justice B P Jeevan Reddy to review the provisions of the act in the north eastern states.
- The committee submitted its report in 2005, which included the following recommendations: (a) AFSPA should be repealed and appropriate provisions should be inserted in the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967; (b) The Unlawful Activities Act should be modified to clearly specify the powers of the armed forces and paramilitary forces and (c) grievance cells should be set up in each district where the armed forces are deployed.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/12/31/armed-forces-special-powers-act-afspa/
IncorrectAns: (b)
Explanation: Here Directive word is Not Correct!!
- The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has declared the entire State of Nagaland as a “disturbed area” for six more months, under the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958 (AFSPA).
- In simple terms, AFSPA gives armed forces the power to maintain public order in “disturbed areas”. The Central Government, or the Governor of the State or administrator of the Union Territory can declare the whole or part of the State or Union Territory as a disturbed area.
- Central government in 2004, appointed a five-member committee headed by Justice B P Jeevan Reddy to review the provisions of the act in the north eastern states.
- The committee submitted its report in 2005, which included the following recommendations: (a) AFSPA should be repealed and appropriate provisions should be inserted in the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967; (b) The Unlawful Activities Act should be modified to clearly specify the powers of the armed forces and paramilitary forces and (c) grievance cells should be set up in each district where the armed forces are deployed.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/12/31/armed-forces-special-powers-act-afspa/
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsDefence planning committee is chaired by
CorrectAns: (c)
Explanation:
- The Defence planning committee (DPC) is chaired by the National Security Advisor of India and the Chief of Integrated Staff in the Ministry of Defence will be the member secretary of DPC, and his headquarters will be the secretariat for the committee. The DPC will submit its reports to the Defence Minister of India
- The Defence Acquisition Council is the highest decision-making body in the Defence Ministry for deciding on new policies and capital acquisitions for the three services and the Indian Coast Guard. The Minister of Defence is the Chairman of the Council.
- The Nuclear Command Authority of India is the authority responsible for command, control and operational decisions regarding India’s nuclear weapons programme
- On 4 January 2003, the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) constituted the Political Council and the Executive Council of the NCA. The Executive Council gives its opinion to the Political Council, which authorises a nuclear attack when deemed necessary. While the Executive Council is chaired by the National Security Advisor (NSA), the Political Council is chaired by the Prime Minister. This mechanism was implemented to ensure that Indian nukes remain firmly in civilian control and that there exists a sophisticated Command and Control (C2) mechanism to prevent their accidental or unauthorised use
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/12/31/chief-of-defence-staff-2/
IncorrectAns: (c)
Explanation:
- The Defence planning committee (DPC) is chaired by the National Security Advisor of India and the Chief of Integrated Staff in the Ministry of Defence will be the member secretary of DPC, and his headquarters will be the secretariat for the committee. The DPC will submit its reports to the Defence Minister of India
- The Defence Acquisition Council is the highest decision-making body in the Defence Ministry for deciding on new policies and capital acquisitions for the three services and the Indian Coast Guard. The Minister of Defence is the Chairman of the Council.
- The Nuclear Command Authority of India is the authority responsible for command, control and operational decisions regarding India’s nuclear weapons programme
- On 4 January 2003, the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) constituted the Political Council and the Executive Council of the NCA. The Executive Council gives its opinion to the Political Council, which authorises a nuclear attack when deemed necessary. While the Executive Council is chaired by the National Security Advisor (NSA), the Political Council is chaired by the Prime Minister. This mechanism was implemented to ensure that Indian nukes remain firmly in civilian control and that there exists a sophisticated Command and Control (C2) mechanism to prevent their accidental or unauthorised use
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/12/31/chief-of-defence-staff-2/
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Central Equipment Identity Register is a database of the IMEI numbers of blacklisted handsets
- Dual SIM phones will have two IMEI numbers
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
CorrectAns: (c)
Explanation:
- The launch of the portal, http://www.ceir.gov.in, for Delhi-NCR subscribers will facilitate requests for blocking of stolen or lost mobile phones by customers, blocking of such mobile phones across various mobile networks, allowing services to other existing customers having mobile phones with the same International Mobile Equipment Identity (IMEI) number, sharing of traceability data with police authorities, as well as unblocking of recovered phones
- The project is backed by the Central Equipment Identity Register (CEIR) system, which was undertaken by the telecom department for addressing security, theft and other concerns including reprogramming of mobile handsets.
- The International Mobile station Equipment Identity number (IMEI) is a number used to identify a device that uses terrestrial cellular networks.
- IMEI numbers have one principal purpose: To identify mobile devices. Their secondary purpose, or intention, is to prevent theft.
- If the phone is dual-SIM then it has two modems (maybe one in practice, which is registrered to two networks) and thus two registrations to network. For each registration a unique IMEI is needed.
Refer: Facts For Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/12/31/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-31-december-2019/
IncorrectAns: (c)
Explanation:
- The launch of the portal, http://www.ceir.gov.in, for Delhi-NCR subscribers will facilitate requests for blocking of stolen or lost mobile phones by customers, blocking of such mobile phones across various mobile networks, allowing services to other existing customers having mobile phones with the same International Mobile Equipment Identity (IMEI) number, sharing of traceability data with police authorities, as well as unblocking of recovered phones
- The project is backed by the Central Equipment Identity Register (CEIR) system, which was undertaken by the telecom department for addressing security, theft and other concerns including reprogramming of mobile handsets.
- The International Mobile station Equipment Identity number (IMEI) is a number used to identify a device that uses terrestrial cellular networks.
- IMEI numbers have one principal purpose: To identify mobile devices. Their secondary purpose, or intention, is to prevent theft.
- If the phone is dual-SIM then it has two modems (maybe one in practice, which is registrered to two networks) and thus two registrations to network. For each registration a unique IMEI is needed.
Refer: Facts For Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/12/31/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-31-december-2019/
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsThis act made a limited and indirect provision for the use of election in filling up some of the non-official seats both in the Central and provincial legislative councils. The word “election” was, however, not used in the act. The process was described as nomination made on the recommendation of certain bodies.
The above given passage refers to which of the following Act?
CorrectAns: (b)
Explanation: Indian Councils Act of 1892
- It increased the number of additional (non-official) members in the Central and provincial legislative councils, but maintained the official majority in them.
- It increased the functions of legislative councils and gave them the power of discussing the budget and addressing questions to the executive.
It provided for the nomination of some non-official members of the (a) Central Legislative Council by the viceroy on the recommendation of the provincial legislative councils and the Bengal Chamber of Commerce, and (b) that of the Provincial legislative councils by the Governors on the recommendation of the district boards, municipalities, universities, trade associations, zamindars and chambers.
IncorrectAns: (b)
Explanation: Indian Councils Act of 1892
- It increased the number of additional (non-official) members in the Central and provincial legislative councils, but maintained the official majority in them.
- It increased the functions of legislative councils and gave them the power of discussing the budget and addressing questions to the executive.
It provided for the nomination of some non-official members of the (a) Central Legislative Council by the viceroy on the recommendation of the provincial legislative councils and the Bengal Chamber of Commerce, and (b) that of the Provincial legislative councils by the Governors on the recommendation of the district boards, municipalities, universities, trade associations, zamindars and chambers.
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to Government of India Act of 1935
- GOI 1935 act provided residuary powers to the Governor-general of India
- It extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates to Anglo Indians and Europeans
- It abolished the secretary of state for India
- It provided for the adoption of dyarchy at the provinces
Which of the given above statements is/are not correct?
CorrectAns: (d)
Explanation: Here The Directive Word is Not Correct!!
- It provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation consisting of provinces and princely states as units.
- The Act divided the powers between the Centre and units in terms of three lists—Federal List (for Centre, with 59 items), Provincial List (for provinces, with 54 items) and the Concurrent List (for both, with 36 items). Residuary powers were given to the Viceroy.
- It abolished dyarchy in the provinces and introduced ‘provincial autonomy’ in its place
- It provided for the adoption of dyarchy at the Centre.
- It introduced bicameralism in six out of eleven provinces.
- It further extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for depressed classes (scheduled castes), women and labour (workers).
- It abolished the Council of India, established by the Government of India Act of 1858. The secretary of state for India was provided with a team of advisors.
- It extended franchise. About 10 per cent of the total population got the voting right.
IncorrectAns: (d)
Explanation: Here The Directive Word is Not Correct!!
- It provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation consisting of provinces and princely states as units.
- The Act divided the powers between the Centre and units in terms of three lists—Federal List (for Centre, with 59 items), Provincial List (for provinces, with 54 items) and the Concurrent List (for both, with 36 items). Residuary powers were given to the Viceroy.
- It abolished dyarchy in the provinces and introduced ‘provincial autonomy’ in its place
- It provided for the adoption of dyarchy at the Centre.
- It introduced bicameralism in six out of eleven provinces.
- It further extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for depressed classes (scheduled castes), women and labour (workers).
- It abolished the Council of India, established by the Government of India Act of 1858. The secretary of state for India was provided with a team of advisors.
- It extended franchise. About 10 per cent of the total population got the voting right.
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statement
- C Rajagopalachari became the first governor-general of the new Dominion of India
- Indian Independence Act 1947, deprived the British Monarch of his right to veto bills and provided the same to President of India
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
CorrectAns: (d)
Explanation:
- Indian Independence Act of 1947, deprived the British Monarch of his right to veto bills or ask for reservation of certain bills for his approval. But, this right was reserved for the Governor-General. The Governor-General would have full power to assent to any bill in the name of His Majesty.
- Lord Mountbatten became the first governor-general of the new Dominion of India(not independent)
IncorrectAns: (d)
Explanation:
- Indian Independence Act of 1947, deprived the British Monarch of his right to veto bills or ask for reservation of certain bills for his approval. But, this right was reserved for the Governor-General. The Governor-General would have full power to assent to any bill in the name of His Majesty.
- Lord Mountbatten became the first governor-general of the new Dominion of India(not independent)
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsIn 1765, the East India Company, which till now had purely trading functions obtained the ‘diwani’ (i.e., rights over revenue and civil justice) of which of the following places?
- Bihar
- Orissa
- Bombay
- Madras
- Bengal
Select the correct answer using the code below
CorrectAns: (b)
Explanation:
- British came to India in 1600 as traders, in the form of East India Company, which had the exclusive right of trading in India under a charter granted by Queen Elizabeth I. In 1765, the Company, which till now had purely trading functions obtained the ‘diwani’ (i.e., rights over revenue and civil justice) of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa. This started its career as a territorial power.
- The Mughal Emperor, Shah Alam, granted ‘Diwani’ to the Company after its victory in the Battle of Buxar (1764).
IncorrectAns: (b)
Explanation:
- British came to India in 1600 as traders, in the form of East India Company, which had the exclusive right of trading in India under a charter granted by Queen Elizabeth I. In 1765, the Company, which till now had purely trading functions obtained the ‘diwani’ (i.e., rights over revenue and civil justice) of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa. This started its career as a territorial power.
- The Mughal Emperor, Shah Alam, granted ‘Diwani’ to the Company after its victory in the Battle of Buxar (1764).