INSIGHTS IAS REVISION PLAN FOR PRELIMS 2019 – DAILY REVISION TESTS: TEST-16
INSIGHTS IAS REVISION PLAN FOR PRELIMS 2019 - DAILY REVISION TESTS
Quiz-summary
0 of 25 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
Information
Welcome to Insights IAS Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam – 2019.
If you are wondering why these questions are posted, please refer to the detailed Timetable provided HERE.
These questions are carefully framed to help you improve various skills and knowledge necessary to face uncertain, unpredictable and difficult questions in real prelims exam. This test is NOT about your scores. It’s about an opportunity to make mistakes and learn from these mistakes now itself. Also, these tests are NOT meant to give you EXPECTED questions for the upcoming prelims. So, don’t judge these questions unless there is an error (factual or typo) in these questions. To do really well in these small tests, REVISION is the KEY. Do follow our Revision Timetable religiously. It WILL help you clear Prelims – 2019.
Once you give this test, please POST your scores in the comment box. Also post how you could tackle certain questions – like, based on what logic or skill. This will help people who have trouble eliminating wrong options get a chance to learn from your expertise.
Wish you Good Luck! 🙂
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 25 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Average score |
|
Your score |
|
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result |
---|---|---|---|---|
Table is loading | ||||
No data available | ||||
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 25
1. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The basic structure of the Constitutionhas been defined under article 368.
- Principle of reasonableness and Welfare state are one of the elements of basic structure.
- National emergency can be imposed by the President when the security of India is threatened by war or external aggression only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Basic structure of constitution is not defined in constitution. National emergency can be imposed on the basis of armed rebellion also.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Basic structure of constitution is not defined in constitution. National emergency can be imposed on the basis of armed rebellion also.
-
Question 2 of 25
2. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements
1.Constitutionalism denotes the principle that the government derives its authority from a body of fundamental law and is limited by it.
- Fundamental Rights in Indian Constitution helps in enforcingthe philosophy of Constitutionalism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Both statements are correct.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Both statements are correct.
-
Question 3 of 25
3. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements
1. Article 32 of the Constitution of India is available to both citizens of India and the foreigners.
2. Article 19 of the Constitution of India is available to the citizens of India only.
3. Article 21 of the Constitution of India is available to both citizens of India and the foreigners alike within the territory of India.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Article 15, 16, 19, 29 and 30 is available only for Indian citizens. Rest of Fundamental Rights available for foreigners also.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Article 15, 16, 19, 29 and 30 is available only for Indian citizens. Rest of Fundamental Rights available for foreigners also.
-
Question 4 of 25
4. Question
2 pointsThe ideals of Liberty, equality and fraternity in Indian constitution have been borrowed from
Correct
Solution: C
Ideals of Liberty, equality and fraternity in Indian constitution is borrowed from France Constitution.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Ideals of Liberty, equality and fraternity in Indian constitution is borrowed from France Constitution.
-
Question 5 of 25
5. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements
1.Right against phone tapping is implicit under Article 21
2.Freedom to form association or unions is guaranteed by Article 19
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The Right against Phone tapping is comes under Right to Freedom of speech and expression (Art 19)
Freedom to form association or unions is guaranteed by Article 19.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Right against Phone tapping is comes under Right to Freedom of speech and expression (Art 19)
Freedom to form association or unions is guaranteed by Article 19.
-
Question 6 of 25
6. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements
1.Beginning of Parliamentary System in India can be traced back to Indian Council Act, 1861
2.Charter Act of 1833 recommended for the appointment ofMacaulay Committee on Indian CivilService.
3.Charter Act of 1833 deprived the governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. The Governor General of India was given exclusive legislative powers for the entire British India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Beginning of Parliamentary System in India can be traced back to Charter Act of 1853 – It separated, for the first time, the legislative and executive functions of the Governor General’s council. It provided for addition of six new members called legislative councilors to the council.
Charter Act of 1853 recommended for the appointment of Macaulay Committee on Indian Civil
Service.Incorrect
Solution: C
Beginning of Parliamentary System in India can be traced back to Charter Act of 1853 – It separated, for the first time, the legislative and executive functions of the Governor General’s council. It provided for addition of six new members called legislative councilors to the council.
Charter Act of 1853 recommended for the appointment of Macaulay Committee on Indian Civil
Service. -
Question 7 of 25
7. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements
1.Indian Councils Act of 1861 initiated the process of decentralization by restoring the legislative powers to the Bombay and Madras Presidencies.
2.Montagu Chelmsford Reforms replaced the Indian legislative council by a bicameral legislature consisting of upper house and lower house.
3.About 10 per cent of the total population got the voting right by Morley-Minto Reforms.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
About 10 per cent of the total population got the voting right by Government of India Act, 1935.
Incorrect
Solution: C
About 10 per cent of the total population got the voting right by Government of India Act, 1935.
-
Question 8 of 25
8. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following are the federal features of Indian Constitution?
1.Written Constitution
2. Division of powers
3. Equal representation of states in Rajya SabhaSelect the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution: B
Equal representation of states in Rajya Sabha is absent in Indian Polity. Representation is considered on population basis.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Equal representation of states in Rajya Sabha is absent in Indian Polity. Representation is considered on population basis.
-
Question 9 of 25
9. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements
1.A person shall not be a citizen of India ifhe/she has voluntarily acquired thecitizenship of any foreign state.
2.Equal pay for equal work for men and women is one of the element/feature of Fundamental Rights
3.Constituent Assembly’s States Committee (Committee for Negotiating with States) was chaired by Jawaharlal Nehru
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Equal pay for equal work for men and women is one of the element/feature of DPSP.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Equal pay for equal work for men and women is one of the element/feature of DPSP.
-
Question 10 of 25
10. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements regarding ‘Preamble’ of the Indian Constitutio
1. It has been amended only once since its inception.
2. It is not a part of the constitution.
3. Constitution derives its authority from the preamble.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The Preamble has been amended only once so far, in 1976, by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, which has added three new words—Socialist, Secular and Integrity—to the Preamble.
It is part of Indian Constitution. Constitution derives its authority from the People of India.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The Preamble has been amended only once so far, in 1976, by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, which has added three new words—Socialist, Secular and Integrity—to the Preamble.
It is part of Indian Constitution. Constitution derives its authority from the People of India.
-
Question 11 of 25
11. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following directives is/are outside the Part IV of the Indian Constitution?
- Claims of SC and ST to public services
2. Instruction in mother tongue to linguistic minority children
3. Development of the Hindi Language
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Correct
Solution: D
Apart from the Directives included in Part IV, there are some other Directives
contained in other Parts of the Constitution. They are:- Claims of SCs and STs to Services: The claims of the members of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes shall be taken into consideration, consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration, in the making of appointments to services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or a State (Article 335 in Part XVI)
- Instruction in mother tongue: It shall be the endeavor of every state and every local authority within the state to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups (Article 350-A in Part XVII).
3. Development of the Hindi Language: It shall be the duty of the Union to promote the spread of the Hindi language and to develop it so that it may serve as a medium of expression for all the elements of the composite culture of India (Article 351 in Part XVII)
Incorrect
Solution: D
Apart from the Directives included in Part IV, there are some other Directives
contained in other Parts of the Constitution. They are:- Claims of SCs and STs to Services: The claims of the members of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes shall be taken into consideration, consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration, in the making of appointments to services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or a State (Article 335 in Part XVI)
- Instruction in mother tongue: It shall be the endeavor of every state and every local authority within the state to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups (Article 350-A in Part XVII).
3. Development of the Hindi Language: It shall be the duty of the Union to promote the spread of the Hindi language and to develop it so that it may serve as a medium of expression for all the elements of the composite culture of India (Article 351 in Part XVII)
- Claims of SC and ST to public services
-
Question 12 of 25
12. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements.
- The Parliament is empowered to alter the boundaries of any state of India without taking prior consent of state legislature.
- A bill pertaining to the alteration of the boundaries of any existing state of India can be introduced only in the Rajya Sabha and only on the recommendation of the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Jammu and Kashmir is a constituent state of the Indian Union and has its place in Part I and Schedule I of the Constitution of India (dealing with the Union and its Territory). But its name, area or boundary cannot be changed by the Union without the consent of its legislature.Under Article 3, a bill pertaining to the alteration of the boundaries of any existing State of India can be introduced in any house of the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President and before recommending the bill, the President has to refer the same to the state legislature concerned for expressing its views within a specified period.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Jammu and Kashmir is a constituent state of the Indian Union and has its place in Part I and Schedule I of the Constitution of India (dealing with the Union and its Territory). But its name, area or boundary cannot be changed by the Union without the consent of its legislature.Under Article 3, a bill pertaining to the alteration of the boundaries of any existing State of India can be introduced in any house of the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President and before recommending the bill, the President has to refer the same to the state legislature concerned for expressing its views within a specified period.
-
Question 13 of 25
13. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements
1.Sardar Swaran Singh Committee was constituted to make recommendations about fundamental duties, the need and necessity of which was felt during the operation of the internal emergency (1975–1977).
2.Duty to pay taxes is a Fundamental Duty in Indian Constitution.
3.Rights and duties of the citizens are correlative and inseparable
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Duty to pay taxes is not a Fundamental Duty in Indian Constitution.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Duty to pay taxes is not a Fundamental Duty in Indian Constitution.
-
Question 14 of 25
14. Question
2 pointsStates and Union territories and their territorial spread are dealt in which of the following schedule of Indian Constitution?
Correct
Solution: A
Incorrect
Solution: A
-
Question 15 of 25
15. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament?
1.Number of puisne judges in the Supreme Court.
2.Use of official language.
3.Delimitation of constituencies.
4.Elections to Parliament and state legislatures.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
By Simple Majority of Parliament
A number of provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of
Parliament outside the scope of Article 368. These provisions include:
- Admission or establishment of new states.
- Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states.
- Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
- Second Schedule—emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of the president, the
governors, the Speakers, judges, etc.
- Quorum in Parliament.
- Salaries and allowances of the members of Parliament.
- Rules of procedure in Parliament.
- Privileges of the Parliament, its members and its committees.
- Use of English language in Parliament.
- Number of puisne judges in the Supreme Court.
- Conferment of more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court.
- Use of official language.
- Citizenship—acquisition and termination.14. Elections to Parliament and state legislatures.
- Delimitation of constituencies.
- Union territories.
- Fifth Schedule—administration of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
- Sixth Schedule—administration of tribal areas.
Incorrect
Solution: D
By Simple Majority of Parliament
A number of provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of
Parliament outside the scope of Article 368. These provisions include:
- Admission or establishment of new states.
- Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states.
- Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
- Second Schedule—emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of the president, the
governors, the Speakers, judges, etc.
- Quorum in Parliament.
- Salaries and allowances of the members of Parliament.
- Rules of procedure in Parliament.
- Privileges of the Parliament, its members and its committees.
- Use of English language in Parliament.
- Number of puisne judges in the Supreme Court.
- Conferment of more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court.
- Use of official language.
- Citizenship—acquisition and termination.14. Elections to Parliament and state legislatures.
- Delimitation of constituencies.
- Union territories.
- Fifth Schedule—administration of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
- Sixth Schedule—administration of tribal areas.
-
Question 16 of 25
16. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Emergency Provisions in Indian Constitution
1.All types of emergency proclaimed by the President has to be approved by the Parliament.
2.Financial emergency is in operation indefnitely till the President revokes it
3.In the case of National emergency, approval of half of the state’s legislature and Parliament is required.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
National Emergency requires approval from the parliament only.
Incorrect
Solution: B
National Emergency requires approval from the parliament only.
-
Question 17 of 25
17. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements
1.Constituent Assembly was partly elected and partly nominated body.
2.West Bengal province had highest number of members in Constituent Assembly among Indian Provinces
3.Mysore princely state had highest number of members in Constituent Assembly among Princely States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
United Province had highest number of members in Constituent Assembly among Indian Provinces.
Incorrect
Solution: D
United Province had highest number of members in Constituent Assembly among Indian Provinces.
-
Question 18 of 25
18. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following Indian cities are a part of UNESCO’s Creative Cities Network?
1. Jaipur
2. Mysore
3. Varanasi
4. ChennaiSelect the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution: B
Chennai has been included in the UNESCO Creative Cities Network for its rich musical tradition. Including Chennai, a total of 64 cities from 44 countries have joined the UNESCO Creative Cities Network. Jaipur and Varanasi are the other Indian cities that feature on the list.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Chennai has been included in the UNESCO Creative Cities Network for its rich musical tradition. Including Chennai, a total of 64 cities from 44 countries have joined the UNESCO Creative Cities Network. Jaipur and Varanasi are the other Indian cities that feature on the list.
-
Question 19 of 25
19. Question
2 pointsTalanoa Dialogue is seen in news recently is related to:
-
Question 20 of 25
20. Question
2 pointsWith reference to ‘Asia Africa Growth Corridor’, consider the following statements
1. It is an initiative led by India and African Union (AU) to enhance connectivity between the two continents.
2. The corridor will focus on four areas such as Development Cooperation Projects, Quality Infrastructure and Institutional Connectivity, Enhancing Skills and People-to-People Partnership.Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Asia Africa Growth Corridor (AAGC), a fresh initiative led by India and Japan to enhance connectivity between the two continents, was unveiled by Prime Minister of India, Narendra Modi during the African Development Bank annual meeting in Gandhi Nagar, Gujarat on May 16, 2017.
According to the AAGC Vision Document, the corridor will focus on four areas:
-
Development Cooperation Projects
· Quality Infrastructure and Institutional Connectivity
· Enhancing Skills
· People-to-People Partnership.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Asia Africa Growth Corridor (AAGC), a fresh initiative led by India and Japan to enhance connectivity between the two continents, was unveiled by Prime Minister of India, Narendra Modi during the African Development Bank annual meeting in Gandhi Nagar, Gujarat on May 16, 2017.
According to the AAGC Vision Document, the corridor will focus on four areas:
-
Development Cooperation Projects
· Quality Infrastructure and Institutional Connectivity
· Enhancing Skills
· People-to-People Partnership.
-
Question 21 of 25
21. Question
2 pointsThe S-400 Triumph missile, recently in news, is related to
Correct
Solution: B
The S-400 Triumph (NATO reporting name: SA-21 Growler) is an air defence missile system developed by Almaz Central Design Bureau of Russia. The new system replaced the S-300P and S-200 air defence systems of the Russian Army.
The S-400 was developed as an upgrade of the S-300 series of surface-to-air missile systems
Incorrect
Solution: B
The S-400 Triumph (NATO reporting name: SA-21 Growler) is an air defence missile system developed by Almaz Central Design Bureau of Russia. The new system replaced the S-300P and S-200 air defence systems of the Russian Army.
The S-400 was developed as an upgrade of the S-300 series of surface-to-air missile systems
-
Question 22 of 25
22. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements
1.The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) is a statutory body set up by the Government of India under Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997.
2.TRAI regulate telecom services, including fixation/revision of tariffs for telecom services which were earlier vested in the Central Government.
3.TRAI adjudicates any dispute between a licensor and a licensee, between two or more service providers, between a service provider and a group of consumers, and to hear and dispose of appeals against any direction, decision or order of Central government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
The TRAI Act was amended by an ordinance, effective from 24 January 2000, establishing a Telecommunications Dispute Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT) to take over the adjudicatory and disputes functions from TRAI. TDSAT was set up to adjudicate any dispute between a licensor and a licensee, between two or more service providers, between a service provider and a group of consumers, and to hear and dispose of appeals against any direction, decision or order of TRAI.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The TRAI Act was amended by an ordinance, effective from 24 January 2000, establishing a Telecommunications Dispute Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT) to take over the adjudicatory and disputes functions from TRAI. TDSAT was set up to adjudicate any dispute between a licensor and a licensee, between two or more service providers, between a service provider and a group of consumers, and to hear and dispose of appeals against any direction, decision or order of TRAI.
-
Question 23 of 25
23. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements
- Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) formerly known as Imperial Council of Agricultural Research was established in pursuance of the report of the Royal Commission on Agriculture.
- Agrinnovate India act as an effective interface between Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) and farmers, private sector firms and R&D organizations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is an autonomous body responsible for coordinating agricultural education and research in India. It reports to the Department of Agricultural Research and Education, Ministry of Agriculture.
The Union Minister of Agriculture serves as its president It is the largest network of agricultural research and education institutes in the world Formerly known as Imperial Council of Agricultural Research, it was established on 16 July 1929 as a registered society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860 in pursuance of the report of the Royal Commission
on Agriculture.Agrinnovate India Ltd. (AgIn) was incorporated under the Companies Act, 1956 on 19th October, 2011. It is a “for profit” Company owned by Department of Agricultural Research & Education (DARE), Ministry of Agriculture, Government of India.
It is to act as an effective interface between Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR- an autonomous organization under DARE) on one side and the Stakeholders of agricultural sector (Farmers; Public & Private Sector firms; R&D organizations; Educational Institutions- all of these at National and International level) on the other side, for a significant purpose of securing, sustaining and promoting global agricultural development.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is an autonomous body responsible for coordinating agricultural education and research in India. It reports to the Department of Agricultural Research and Education, Ministry of Agriculture.
The Union Minister of Agriculture serves as its president It is the largest network of agricultural research and education institutes in the world Formerly known as Imperial Council of Agricultural Research, it was established on 16 July 1929 as a registered society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860 in pursuance of the report of the Royal Commission
on Agriculture.Agrinnovate India Ltd. (AgIn) was incorporated under the Companies Act, 1956 on 19th October, 2011. It is a “for profit” Company owned by Department of Agricultural Research & Education (DARE), Ministry of Agriculture, Government of India.
It is to act as an effective interface between Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR- an autonomous organization under DARE) on one side and the Stakeholders of agricultural sector (Farmers; Public & Private Sector firms; R&D organizations; Educational Institutions- all of these at National and International level) on the other side, for a significant purpose of securing, sustaining and promoting global agricultural development.
-
Question 24 of 25
24. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements
1.National Testing Agency (NTA) has been established as a premier, specialist, autonomous and self-sustained testing organization to conduct entrance examinations for admission/fellowship in higher educational institutions.
2.To undertake research on educational, professional and testing systems to identify gaps in the knowledge systems and take steps for bridging them is one of the objective of NTA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
- National Testing Agency (NTA) has been established as a premier, specialist, autonomous and self-sustained testing organization to conduct entrance examinations for admission/fellowship in higher educational institutions.
OBJECTIVES
- To conduct efficient, transparent and international standards tests in order to assess the competency of candidates for admission, and recruitment purposes.
- To undertake research on educational, professional and testing systems to identify gaps in the knowledge systems and take steps for bridging them.
- To identify experts and institutions in setting examination questions.
- To produce and disseminate information and research on education and professional development standards.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- National Testing Agency (NTA) has been established as a premier, specialist, autonomous and self-sustained testing organization to conduct entrance examinations for admission/fellowship in higher educational institutions.
OBJECTIVES
- To conduct efficient, transparent and international standards tests in order to assess the competency of candidates for admission, and recruitment purposes.
- To undertake research on educational, professional and testing systems to identify gaps in the knowledge systems and take steps for bridging them.
- To identify experts and institutions in setting examination questions.
- To produce and disseminate information and research on education and professional development standards.
-
Question 25 of 25
25. Question
2 pointsThe ‘Women Entrepreneurship Platform’, a first of its kind, unified access portal which brings together women from different parts of India to realize their entrepreneurial aspirations, is an initiative of
Correct
Solution: D
The Women Entrepreneurship Platform (WEP) is a first of its kind, unified access portal which brings together women from different parts of India to realize their entrepreneurial aspirations.
It is an initiative of NITI Aayog.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The Women Entrepreneurship Platform (WEP) is a first of its kind, unified access portal which brings together women from different parts of India to realize their entrepreneurial aspirations.
It is an initiative of NITI Aayog.