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SOLUTIONS – INSIGHTS REVISION TEST for Preliminary Exam 2018: Test – 22 (Indian Polity )


SOLUTIONS 

INSIGHTS REVISION TEST for Preliminary Exam 2018: Test – 22 (Indian Polity )


  1. Which Constitutional Amendment Act facilitated the appointment of the same person as a governor for two or more states?

a) 1st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951

b) 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956

c) 15th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1963

d) 4th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1955

Solution: b

Why?- UPSC-2001 Match the following -69th,75th,80th,83rd ; UPSC 2002-44th  and 93rd ;UPSC 2003-1st,7th and 31st; UPSC 2005-44th  and 98th; 2006-104th amendment bill, 86th and 42nd ; 2007-91st etc. + UPSC 2013- -CORRECT/INCORRECT -In  India,  the  same  person  cannot  be  appointed  as  Governor  for  two  or more States at the same time

Explanation: 

Usually,  there  is  a  governor  for  each  state,  but  the  7th  Constitutional Amendment  Act  of  1956  facilitated  the  appointment  of  the  same  person  as  a governor for two or more states.

 

7th Constitutional Amendment also provided for the appointment of additional and acting judges of the high court; It has provided for the establishment of a common high court for two or more states; It has extended the jurisdiction of high courts to union territories.

 

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 30


2.Consider the following Statements:

  1. Indian Constitution did not stipulate that the Governor should be an outsider. It is only a Convention.
  2. It is mandatory as per the Constitution that the President is required to consult the chief minister.
  3. During his term  of  office,  Governor  is  immune  from  any  criminal proceedings,  even  in  respect  of  his  personal  acts

Which of the above is/are CORRECT?

a) 1  and 3 Only

b) 1 and 2 Only

c) 2 and 3 Only

d) All

Solution: a

Why?[UPSC 2013-CORRECT/INCORRECT- No  procedure  has  been  laid  down  in  the  Constitution  of  India  for  the removal of a Governor from his/her post]

Explanation:

Statement 1 :

The  Constitution  lays  down  only  two  qualifications  for  the  appointment  of

a person as a governor. These are:

  1. He should be a citizen of India.
  2. He should have completed the age of 35 years.

Additionally,  two  conventions  have  also  developed  in  this  regard  over  the years. First, he should be an outsider, that is, he should not belong to the state where he is appointed, so that he is free from the local politics.  HENCE STATEMENT 1 is CORRECT

 

Statement 2:

Second, while appointing the governor, the president is required to consult the chief minister of  the  state  concerned,  so  that  the  smooth  functioning  of  the  constitutional machinery  in  the  state  is  ensured.  However,  both  the  conventions  have  been violated in some of the cases.

Hence Statement 2 is INCORRECT

 

Statement 3:

Like  the  President,  the  governor  is  also  entitled  to  a  number  of  privileges and  immunities.  He  enjoys  personal  immunity  from  legal  liability  for  his official  acts.  During  his  term  of  office,  he  is  immune  from  any  criminal proceedings,  even  in  respect  of  his  personal  acts.  He  cannot  be  arrested  or imprisoned.  However,  after  giving  two  months’  notice,  civil  proceedings  can be  instituted  against  him  during  his  term  of  office  in  respect  of  his  personal acts.

Hence Statement 3 is CORRECT

 

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 30


3.Which of the following Statements is/are INCORRECT?

  1. Governor can nominate one  member  to  the  state  legislature  assembly  from  the Anglo-Indian Community.
  2. Governor decides on the  question  of  disqualification  of  members  of  the  state legislature in consultation with the Election Commission.

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both

d) None

Solution: d

Why? [UPSC 2015-Governor powers with respect to Legislative Council]

Statement 1:

The  governor  can  nominate  one  member  from  the Anglo-Indian  community,  if  the  community  is  not  adequately  represented  in the assembly. Originally, this provision was to operate for  ten years (ie, upto 1960).  But  this  duration  has  been  extended  continuously  since  then  by  10 years  each  time.  Now,  under  the  95th  Amendment  Act  of  2009,  this  is  to  last until 2020.

Hence Statement 1 is CORRECT

 

Statement 2:

On the question whether a member has become subject to any of the disqualification criteria,  the  governor’s  decision  is  final.  However, he  should  obtain the opinion of the Election Commission and act accordingly.

 

Hence Statement 2 is CORRECT

 

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 30


 

  1. Assertion (A): Ordinance making power of Governor is a discretionary Power

Reason (R): After the 42nd  Constitutional  Amendment  (1976),  ministerial  advice  has

been made binding on the President, but no such provision has been made with respect to the governor.

(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A

(C) Both are false

(D) A is false, but R is true

Solution: d

Why? [UPSC 2014-Discretionary powers of Governor]

Explanation:

Assertion:

Governor’s ordinance-making power is not a discretionary power. This means that he can promulgate or withdraw an ordinance only on the advice of the council of ministers headed by the chief minister. Hence it is FALSE

Reason: Factual. It is TRUE.

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 30


5.Currently, Which of the following State Legislatures do not have bicameral system?

1.Tamil Nadu

2.Maharastra

3.Andhra Pradesh

4.Jammu and Kashmir

5.Gujarat

a) 1 Only

b) 1 and 5 Only

c) 2, 3 and 4 Only

d) 1 and 4 Only

Solution: b

Why? [UPSC 1995- Which  one  of  the  following  States  of  India  does  not  have  a  Legislative Council  so  far  even  though  the  Constitution  (Seventh  Amendment)  Act 1956 provides for it?]

Explanation:

There  is  no  uniformity  in  the  organisation  of  state  legislatures.  Most  of  the states  have  an  unicameral  system,  while  others  have  a  bicameral  system.  At present  (2016),  only  seven  states  have  two  Houses  (bicameral).  These  are Andhra  Pradesh,  Telangana,  Uttar  Pradesh,  Bihar,  Maharashtra,  Karnataka, and  Jammu  and  Kashmir

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 33


6.Consider the following statements:

  1. The Parliament has fixed the maximum and minimum strength of a Legislative Council through Representation of People Act, 1951.
  2. Some members of the legislative assemblies in Manipur and Mizoram are also indirectly elected.
  3. There is no mechanism of joint sitting of both the Houses at State level to resolve the disagreement between the two Houses over a bill.

Which of the above is/are CORRECT?

a) 1 and 2 Only

b) 2 and 3 Only

c) 3 Only

d) All

Solution: c

Why? [Improvisation from UPSC 2015 question related to Legislative Council and Governor powers ]

Statement 1:

The  maximum  strength  of  the council  is  fixed  at  one-third  of  the  total  strength  of  the  assembly  and  the minimum  strength  is  fixed  at  40.    It  means  that  the  size  of  the  council depends  on  the  size  of  the  assembly  of  the  concerned  state.  This  is  done  to

ensure  the  predominance  of  the  directly  elected  House  (assembly)  in  the legislative  affairs  of  the  state.  Though  the  Constitution  has  fixed  the maximum  and  the  minimum  limits,  the  actual  strength  of  a  Council  is  fixed by Parliament.

 

Hence Statement 1 is INCORRECT

 

Statement 2:

The  legislative  assembly  consists  of  representatives  directly elected  by  the  people  on  the  basis  of  universal  adult  franchise.  Its maximum strength is fixed at 500 and minimum strength at 60. It means that its strength varies  from  60  to  500  depending  on  the  population  size  of  the  state. However,  in  case  of  Arunachal  Pradesh,  Sikkim  and  Goa,  the  minimum number  is  fixed  at  30  and  in  case  of  Mizoram  and  Nagaland,  it  is  40  and  46

respectively.  Further, some members of the legislative assemblies in Sikkim and Nagaland [NOT IN MANIPUR AND MIZORAM] are also elected indirectly.

 

HENCE STATEMENT 2 is INCORRECT

 

Statement 3:

The  ultimate  power  of  passing  an  ordinary  bill  is  vested  in  the assembly.  At  the  most,  the  council  can  detain  or  delay  the  bill  for  a  period  of four  months—three  months  in  the  first  instance  and  one  month  in  the  second instance. The Constitution does not provide for the mechanism of joint sitting of  both  the  Houses  to  resolve  the  disagreement  between  the  two  Houses  over a  bill.  On  the  other  hand,  there  is  a  provision  for  joint  sitting  of  the  Lok Sabha  and  the  Rajya  Sabha  to  resolve  a  disagreement  between  the  two  over an  ordinary  bill.  Moreover,  when  a  bill,  which  has  originated  in  the  council and  was  sent  to  the  assembly,  is  rejected  by  the  assembly,  the  bill  ends  and becomes dead.

 

Hence Statement 3 is CORRECT

 

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 33


 

  1. Assertion (A): The privileges of State Legislature do not extend to the Governor

Reason (R): Governor is not an integral part of the State Legislature

(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A

(C) A is true, but R is false

(D) A is false, but R is true

Solution: c

The  Constitution  has  also  extended  the  privileges  of  the  state  legislature  to those  persons  who  are  entitled  to  speak  and  take  part  in  the  proceedings  of  a House  of  the  state  legislature  or  any  of  its  committees.  These include advocate-general of the state and state ministers. It  must  be  clarified  here  that  the  privileges  of  the  state  legislature  do  not extend to the governor who is also an integral part of the state legislature.

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 32


 

  1. Currently, which of the following States/UTs have the lowest number of seats in the Legislative Assembly?

A.Goa

B.Puducherry

C.Sikkim

D.Mizoram

Solution: b

Explanation:

Goa- 40;

Puducherry- 30;

Sikkim- 32 ;

 Mizoram-40

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 33


9.Which of the following Statements is/are CORRECT?

  1. A distinguished jurist cannot be appointed as a judge of a high court.
  2. A duly qualified person can be appointed as an additional judge by the parliament for a temporary period not exceeding two years.

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both

d) None

Solution: a

WHY?- [UPSC 2013- CORRECT/INCORRECT- The  Judges  of  the  High  Court  of  the  States  in  India  are  appointed  by the  Governor  of  the  State  just  as  the  Judges  of  the  Supreme  Court  are appointed by the President ]

Explanation:

STATEMENT 1:

A  person  to  be  appointed  as  a  judge  of  a  high court, should have the following qualifications:

  1. He should be a citizen of India.
  2. (a) He  should  have  held  a  judicial  office  in  the  territory  of  India  for  ten

years; or

(b)  He  should  have  been  an  advocate  of  a  high  court  (or  high  courts  in

succession) for ten years.

From  the  above,  it  is  clear  that  the  Constitution  has  not  prescribed  a minimum age for appointment as a judge of a high court. Moreover, unlike in the  case  of  the  Supreme  Court,  the  Constitution  makes  no  provision  for appointment of a distinguished jurist as a judge of a high court.

 

Hence Statement 1 is CORRECT

 

STATEMENT 2:

The  President[NOT PARLIAMENT]  can  appoint  duly  qualified  persons  as  additional  judges  of  a high court for a temporary period not exceeding two years.

 

Hence Statement 2 is INCORRECT

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 34


10. Consider the following statements:

  1. The appellate jurisdiction of a high court is wider than its original jurisdiction.
  2. The writ jurisdiction  of  the  high  court  is  wider  than that of the Supreme Court
  3. The expression ‘Contempt of Court’ has no concrete definition either in the constitution or in a legislation.

 

Which of the above is/are CORRECT?

a) All

b) 2 and 3 Only

c) 1 and 3 Only

d) 1 and 2 Only

Solution: d

Why? [UPSC 2009- CORRECT/INCORRECT-As provided  in  Civil  Procedure  Code,  High  Courts  have  original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction at the State level]

Statement 1: A  high  court  is  primarily  a  court  of  appeal.  It  hears  appeals  against  the judgements  of  subordinate  courts  functioning  in  its  territorial  jurisdiction.  It has  appellate  jurisdiction  in  both  civil  and  criminal  matters.  Hence,  the appellate jurisdiction of a high court is wider than its original jurisdiction. [Original Jurisdiction doesn’t deal with Criminal matters]

Hence Statement 1 is CORRECT

Statement 2: The writ jurisdiction of the high court is wider than that of the Supreme Court. This is because, the Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of fundamental rights and not for any other purpose, that is, it does not extend to a case where the breach of an ordinary legal right is alleged.

Hence Statement 2 is CORRECT.

 

Statement 3:

The  expression  ‘contempt  of  court’  has  not  been  defined  by  the Constitution.  However,  the  expression  has  been  defined  by  the  Contempt  of Court  Act  of  1971.  Under  this,  contempt  of  court  may  be  civil  or  criminal.

Hence Statement 3 is INCORRECT.

 

Additional relevant information:

Civil  contempt  means  wilful  disobedience  to  any  judgement,  order,  writ  or other  process  of  a  court  or  wilful  breach  of  an  undertaking  given  to  a  court. Criminal contempt means the publication of any matter or doing an act which —(i)  scandalises  or  lowers  the  authority  of  a  court;  or  (ii)  prejudices  or interferes  with  the  due  course  of  a  judicial  proceeding;  or  (iii)  interferes  or obstructs the administration of justice in any other manner.

 

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 34


11.Which of the following are Correctly Matched [In terms of Article related to Special Provisions and Corresponding State]

  1. Article 371 B — Assam
  2. Article 371 H — Arunachal Pradesh
  3. Article 371 F — Sikkim

a) 1 and 2 Only

b) 1 and 3 Only

c) 2 and 3 Only

d) All

Solution: d

Why? [UPSC 2005- CORRECT/INCORRECT- Articles  371–A  to  371–I  were  inserted  in  the  Constitution  of  India  to meet  regional  demands  of  Nagaland,  Assam,  Manipur,  Andhra

Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa]

 

Explanation: Factual.

 

Other Special Provisions related Articles – 371A-NAGALAND; 371C-MANIPUR; 371D,E-ANDHRA PRADESH[COMBINED], 371F-SIKKIM, 371G-MIZORAM,371I-GOA

 

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 37


12.Which of the following are Correctly Matched [in terms of High Court and its Seat] ?

  1. Rajasthan – Jaipur
  2. Orissa – Bhuvaneshwar
  3. Kerala-Ernakulam
  4. Andhra Pradesh-Amaravati
  5. Chattisgarh-Bilaspur

 

a) 3 and 5 Only

b) 3,4 and 5 Only

c) 1,2 and 5 Only

d) 1, 2 and 4 Only

Solution: a

Explanation:

Rajasthan – Jodhpur; Orissa-Cuttack; Andhra Pradesh-Hyderabad;

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 34


13.Consider the following statements with respect to Subordinate Courts [District and Lower Levels]:

  1. The Chief Judicial Magistrate exercises unlimited pecuniary jurisdiction over civil suits.
  2. The subordinate judge decides criminal cases which are punishable with imprisonment for a term up to seven years.
  3. Panchayat Courts try both petty civil and criminal cases.
  4. At the lowest  level,  on  the  civil  side,  is  the  Court  of  Munsiff

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: c

Why?  [UPSC 2004-Gave four statements regarding “The  highest  criminal  court  of  the  district  is  the  Court  of  District  and Sessions Judge” and asked which of them are CORRECT]

Statement 1 :  Below  the  District  and  Sessions  Court  stands  the  Court  of  Subordinate Judge  on  the  civil  side  and  the  Court  of  Chief  Judicial  Magistrate  on  the criminal  side.  The  subordinate  judge  [Not the  Chief Judicial Magistrate  ]exercises  unlimited  pecuniary jurisdiction  over  civil  suits.

Hence Statement 1 is INCORRECT

Statement 2: The  Chief Judicial Magistrate  [Not the  subordinate  judge] decides  criminal cases which are punishable with imprisonment for a term up to seven years.

Hence Statement 2 is INCORRECT

Statement 3: In  some  states,  Panchayat  Courts  try  petty  civil  and  criminal  cases.  They are  variously  known  as  Nyaya  Panchayat,  Gram  Kutchery,  Adalati Panchayat, Panchayat Adalat and so on.

Hence Statement 3 is CORRECT

Statement 4: Below  the  District  and  Sessions  Court  stands  the  Court  of  Subordinate Judge  on  the  civil  side  and  the  Court  of  Chief  Judicial  Magistrate  on  the criminal  side.  The  subordinate  judge  exercises  unlimited  pecuniary jurisdiction  over  civil  suits .  The  chief  judicial  magistrate  decides  criminal cases which are punishable with imprisonment for a term up to seven years. At  the  lowest  level,  on  the  civil  side,  is  the  Court  of  Munsiff  and  on  the criminal  side,  is  the  Court  of  Judicial  Magistrate.

Hence Statement 4 is CORRECT

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 35


14.Which of the following Statements is/are CORRECT?

  1. All questions of disqualification from Panchayat membership shall be referred to the State Election Commission, as per the 73rd Constitution Amendment Act.
  2. The Conditions of Service and tenure of the State Election Commissioner are determined by the State Legislature

a)1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both

d) None

Solution: d

Explanation:

Statement 1:

As per the 73rd Constitution Amendment Act, a person shall be disqualified  for  being  chosen  as  or  for being  a  member  of  panchayat  if  he  is  so  disqualified,  (a)  under  any  law  for the  time  being  in  force  for  the  purpose  of  elections  to  the  legislature  of  the state  concerned,  or  (b)  under  any  law made  by  the  state  legislature. However, no  person  shall  be  disqualified  on  the  ground  that  he  is  less  than  25  years  of age  if  he  has  attained  the  age  of  21  years.  Further,  all  questions  of disqualifications  shall  be  referred  to  such  authority  as  the  state  legislature determines.

Hence Statement 1 is INCORRECT.

Statement 2:

The  superintendence,  direction  and  control of  the  preparation  of  electoral  rolls  and  the  conduct  of  all  elections  to  the panchayats  shall  be  vested  in  the  state  election  commission.  It  consists  of  a state  election  commissioner  to  be  appointed  by  the  governor.  His  conditions of  service  and  tenure  of  office  shall  also  be  determined  by  the  governor.  He shall not be removed from the office except in the manner and on the grounds prescribed  for  the  removal  of  a  judge  of  the  state  high  court.

Hence Statement 2 is INCORRECT.

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 38

 


15.Which of the following is/are CORRECT?

  1. Notified Area Committee is partly elected and partly Nominated Body
  2. Notified Area Committee is a Statutory Body
  3. 74th Constitutional Amendment Act lays down that four-fifths of the members of a Metropolitan planning committee should be elected by the elected members of the Municipalities and chairpersons of the Panchayats in the metropolitan area from amongst themselves.

a) 1 and 2 Only

b) 2 and 3 Only

c) 3 Only

d) None

Solution: d

Why? [UPSC 2005-CORRECT/INCORRECT -Part  IX–A  of  the  Constitution  of  India  contains  provisions  for municipalities  and  the  Article  243–Q  envisages  two  types  of municipalities  –  a  Municipal  Council  and  a  Municipal  Corporation  for every State.]

 

Statement 1 and 2:

Unlike  the municipality,  Notified Area Committee is an  entirely  nominated  body,  that  is,  all  the  members  of  a  notified  area committee  including  the  chairman  are  nominated  by  the  state  government. Thus, it is neither an elected body nor a statutory body.

 

Hence Statement 1 and Statement 2 are INCORRECT

 

Statement 3: The  act  lays  down  that  two-thirds  of  the  members[ Not four-fifths]  of  a  metropolitan planning  committee  should  be  elected  by  the  elected  members  of  the

municipalities  and  chairpersons  of  the  panchayats  in  the  metropolitan  area from  amongst  themselves.

Hence Statement 3 is INCORRECT

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 39


16.Consider the following Statements:

  1. Municipal Corporations in Union territories are established by the acts of Parliament of India.
  2. Special purpose agencies such as Urban Development authorities are subordinate agencies of the local Municipal bodies.

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both

d) None

Solution: a

Why?-

 

Explanation:

Statement 1: Municipal  corporations  are  created  for  the  administration  of  big  cities  like Delhi,  Mumbai,  Kolkata,  Hyderabad,  Bangalore  and  others.  They  are established  in  the  states  by  the  acts  of  the  concerned  state  legislatures,  and  in the  union  territories  by  the  acts  of  the  Parliament  of  India.

Hence Statement 1 is CORRECT

 

Statement 2: Special Purpose  agencies such as Urban Development authorities functional  local  bodies  are  established  as  statutory  bodies  by  an  act of  state  legislature  or  as  departments  by  an  executive  resolution.  They function  as  autonomous  bodies  and  deal  with  the  functions  allotted  to  them independently of the local urban governments, that is, municipal corporations or  municipalities  and  so  forth.  Thus, they are not subordinate  agencies  of  the local municipal bodies.

 

Hence Statement 2 is INCORRECT

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 39

 


 17.In alignment with the established Acts, Rules and Conventions, which of the following type of urban government would be a prudent choice, for a fast developing town due to industrialization?

a) Town Area Committee

b) Township

c) Notified Area Committee

d) Town improvement trust

Solution: c

Why?-

Explanation:

A  notified  area  committee  is  created  for  the  administration  of  two  types  of areas—a  fast  developing  town  due  to  industrialisation,  and  a  town  which does  not  yet  fulfil  all  the  conditions  necessary  for  the  constitution  of  a municipality,  but  which  otherwise  is considered  important  by  the  state government.  Since  it  is  established  by  a  notification  in  the  government gazette,  it  is called as notified area committee.

 

Other Options:

 

Town Area Committee: A town area committee is set up for the administration of a small town. It is a semi-municipal  authority  and  is  entrusted  with  a  limited  number  of  civic functions  like  drainage,  roads,  street  lighting,  and  conservancy.

 

Township: This  type  of  urban  government  is  established  by  the  large  public  enterprises

to  provide  civic  amenities  to  its  staff  and  workers  who  live  in  the  housing

colonies  built  near  the  plant.

 

Town improvement trust: The  states  have  set  up  certain  agencies  to  undertake  designated  activities  or  specific  functions  that  ‘legitimately’  belong  to  the  domain  of

municipal corporations or municipalities or other local urban governments. In other  words,  these  are  function-based  and  not  area-based. They  are  known  as ‘single  purpose’,  ‘uni-purpose’  or  ‘special  purpose’  agencies  or  ‘functional local bodies’. Town improvement trust is one such agency.

 

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 39


18.According to 69th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1991, Union territory of Delhi has been provided with a legislative assembly. But, it is not allowed to make laws on which of the following subjects in State List?

  1. Public Order
  2. Police
  3. Communications
  4. Land
  5. Electricity

Select the answer using the Codes below:

a) All

b) 1,2,3 and 4 Only

c) 1, 2 and 4 Only

d) 2, 4 and 5 Only

Solution: c

Why?-[ UPSC 2013-CORRECT/INCORRECT-In  the  case  of  a  Union  Territory  having  a  legislative  setup,  the  Chief Minister  is  appointed  by  the  Lt.  Governor  on  the  basis  of  majority support + In news- Frequent tussle between Centre and Delhi govt.]

Explanation:

The legislative assembly  of  Delhi  can  make  laws  on  any  subject  of  the  State  List  (except public order, police and land) and the Concurrent List.

Hence the answer is C.

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 40

 


19.Which of the following Statements is/Are CORRECT?

  1. The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration of tribal areas in the four northeastern States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Manipur.
  2. Under fifth Schedule, Tribal Advisory council in the States having scheduled areas shall Consist of 20 Members.
  3. Under fifth Schedule, The Governor is empowered to declare an area to be a Scheduled Area.

a) 1 and 3 Only

b) 2 Only

c) 3 Only

d) All

Solution: b

Why? – [UPSC previous questions related to Fifth and Sixth Schedules+ Powers of the President and Governor to restrict the Parliamentary laws]

Explanation: 

Statement 1: The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration of tribal areas in the four northeastern States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram [Not Manipur].

Hence Statement 1 is INCORRECT

Statement 2: According to fifth Schedule, Each  state  having  scheduled  areas  has  to establish  a  tribes  advisory  council  to  advise  on  welfare  and  advancement of  the  scheduled  tribes.  It  is  to  consist  of  20  members,  three-fourths  of whom  are  to  be  the  representatives  of  the  scheduled  tribes  in  the  state legislative  assembly.

 

Hence Statement 2 is CORRECT

 

Statement 3: Under fifth Schedule, The  president [Not the Governor] is  empowered  to  declare an  area  to  be  a  scheduled  area.  He can  also  increase  or  decrease  its  area, alter  its  boundary  lines,  rescind  such  designation  or make  fresh  orders  for such  redesignation  on  an  area  in  consultation  with  the  governor  of  the state concerned.

 

Hence Statement 3 is INCORRECT

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 41


 

  1. Assertion: There is a possibility of Influencing Election Commission of India by the political parties, especially the ruling party.

Reason: The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election Commissioners from any further appointment by the government

(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A

(C) A is true, but R is false

(D) A is false, but R is true

Solution: a

Why? -UPSC 2002 question on Chief Election Commissioner.

Explanation: 

The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election Commissioners from any further appointment by the government. Hence, the election commissioners can be influenced by the ruling party or any other party with the promise of lucrative posting after retirement. So , many experts have advised for the necessary amendment to ensure the independence of Election watchdog –i.e. Election Commission of India.

Hence the Answer is A

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 42


21) With reference to the National Anti-profiteering Authority (NAA) under GST, consider the following statements:

  1. It will be headed by the Finance Secretary
  2. Its aim is to ensure that the full benefits of input tax credits and reduced GST rates on supply of goods or services flow to the consumers

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Solution: b)

 

http://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/11/17/insights-daily-current-affairs-17-november-2017/

 

 

The establishment of the NAA, to be headed by a senior officer of the level of Secretary to the Government of India with four Technical Members from the Centre and/or the States, is one more measure aimed at reassuring consumers that Government is fully committed to take all possible steps to ensure the benefits of implementation of GST in terms of lower prices of the goods and services reach them.

 

The “anti-profiteering” measures enshrined in the GST law provide an institutional mechanism to ensure that the full benefits of input tax credits and reduced GST rates on supply of goods or services flow to the consumers. This institutional framework comprises the NAA, a Standing Committee, Screening Committees in every State and the Directorate General of Safeguards in the Central Board of Excise & Customs (CBEC).


 

22) With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana, consider the following statements:

  1. It seeks to provide energy access to all rural residents by last mile connectivity and electricity connections, however urban regions are excluded
  2. Under the scheme poor households would be provided electricity connections free of cost

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Solution: b)

 

http://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/11/17/insights-daily-current-affairs-17-november-2017/

 

 

First statement is wrong as it should be both rural and urban.

 

Qs. No. 1     What is the objective of this new scheme?

Ans.   The objective of the ‘Saubhagya’ is to provide energy access to all by last mile connectivity and electricity connections to all remaining un-electrified households in rural as well as urban areas to achieve universal household electrification in the country.

Qs. No. 2     What all is included in the last mile connectivity and electricity connection to households?

Ans.   The electricity connection to households include release of electricity connections by drawing a service cable from the nearest electricity pole to the household premise, installation of energy meter, wiring for a single light point with LED bulb and a mobile charging point. In case the electricity pole is not available nearby from household for drawing service cable, the erection of additional pole along with conductor and associated accessories shall also be covered under the scheme.

Qs. No. 3     Will electricity connection would be totally free of cost for every un-electrified households?

Ans.   Yes. Poor households would be provided electricity connections free of cost. Other households would also be provided electricity connections under the scheme on payment of Rs.500 only which shall be recovered by the DISCOMs/Power Departments in ten (10) instalments along with electricity bills.

Qs. No.4      Does the free electricity connection also includes free power for consumption?

Ans.   There is no provision in the scheme to provide free power to any category of consumers. The cost of electricity consumption shall have to be paid by the respective consumers as per prevailing tariff of the DISCOM/Power Deptt.


 

23) Which of the following organisations/institutions publish annually the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI)?

a) Greenpeace

b) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)

c) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)

d) None of the above

 

Solution: d

 

http://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/11/16/insights-daily-current-affairs-16-november-2017/

 

 

The Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) is an annual publication by Germanwatch and Climate Action Network Europe. It evaluates the climate protection performance of 58 countries, responsible for over 90% of global energy-related CO2 emissions. CCPI 2013 publication covers CO2 emissions from the fossil fuels, except emissions from the shipping industry.


 

24) With reference to the Bank for International Settlements (BIS), consider the following statements:

  1. It is an international financial organisation owned by all the UN members
  2. One of its mission is to act as a bank for central banks

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Solution: b)

 

http://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/11/16/insights-daily-current-affairs-16-november-2017/

 

Established on 17 May 1930, the Bank for International Settlements (BIS) is an international financial organisation owned by 60 member central banks, representing countries from around the world that together make up about 95% of world GDP. Its head office is in Basel, Switzerland and it has two representative offices: in the Hong Kong Special Administrative Region of the People’s Republic of China and in Mexico City. The mission of the BIS is to serve central banks in their pursuit of monetary and financial stability, to foster international cooperation in those areas and to act as a bank for central banks.


 

25) Accessible India Campaign (AIC) is the nationwide flagship campaign of the

a) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

b) Ministry of Tourism

c) Ministry of Rural Development

d) None of the above

 

Solution: a)

 

http://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/11/15/insights-daily-current-affairs-15-november-2017/

 

Accessible India Campaign (AIC) is the nationwide flagship campaign of the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (DEPwD), Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.

Aim:

The aim of the Campaign is to make a barrier free and conducive environment for Divyangjans all over the country. The campaign has the vision to build an inclusive society in which equal opportunities are provided for the growth and development of Persons with Disabilities (PwDs) so that they can lead productive, safe and dignified lives.