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SOLUTIONS – INSIGHTS REVISION TEST for Preliminary Exam 2018: Test – 20 (Indian Polity )


SOLUTIONS

INSIGHTS REVISION TEST for Preliminary Exam 2018: Test – 20 (Indian Polity )


1)Consider the following Statements:

  1. Unlike the Rajya Sabha Chairman , the Speaker of Lok Sabha cannot suspend a member without calling for adoption of motion.
  2. While the Rajya Sabha Chairman is empowered to place a member under suspension, the authority for revocation of this order is not vested in him.

Which of the above are true?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

 

Solution: d

Why this Question?: Recent action of the Lok Sabha Speaker with regard to Suspension of 25 members + Previous UPSC questions on the Office of the Speaker

Explanation:

Statement 1:  The Speaker may invoke Rule 374A in case of “grave disorder occasioned by a member coming into the well of the House or abusing the Rules of the House, persistently and wilfully obstructing its business by shouting slogans or otherwise…”. The member concerned, “on being named by the Speaker, stands automatically suspended from the service of the House for five consecutive sittings or the remainder of the session, whichever is less”.  This clause was incorporated in the Rule Book on December 5, 2001. Obviously, the intention was to skirt around the necessity of moving and adopting a motion for suspension.

Hence Statement 1 is INCORRECT.

 

While the Speaker is empowered to place a member under suspension, the authority for revocation of this order is not vested in her. It is for the House, if it so desires, to resolve on a motion to revoke the suspension.

 

Statement 2:  The Chairman may “name a member who disregards the authority of the Chair or abuses the rules of the Council by persistently and wilfully obstructing” business. In such a situation, the House may adopt a motion suspending the member from the service of the House for a period not exceeding the remainder of the session. The House may, however, by another motion, terminate the suspension. Unlike the Speaker, the Rajya Sabha Chairman does not have the power to suspend a member.

Hence Statement 2 is INCORRECT.

 

Reference: http://indianexpress.com/article/explained/the-history-and-circumstances-of-suspending-mps/


2)Assertion(A):Rajya Sabha is not permitted to make use of Adjournment motion

Reason(R):It involves an element of censure against the government

(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A

(C) A is true, but R is false

(D) A is false, but R is true

 

Solution: a 

Why?:Previous UPSC questions on Adjournment motion [Ex:UPSC 2012]

Explanation:

Adjournment Motion: It  is  introduced  in  the Parliament  to draw attention  of  the  House  to  a  definite  matter  of  urgent  public  importance,  and  needs  the  support of 50 members to be admitted. As it interrupts  the  normal  business  of  the House, it is regarded as an extraordinary device. It involves an element of  censure  against  the  government  and  hence  Rajya  Sabha  is  not  permitted  to  make  use  of  this  device.  The  discussion  on  an  adjournment  motion  should  last for not less than two hours and thirty minutes.

 

Source: Indian Polity-5th Edition-M Laxmi Kanth-Chapter22


 

3)Consider the following Statements :

1.Parliament can reduce or abolish a tax but cannot increase it.

2.The budget shall distinguish expenditure on revenue account from other expenditure.

3.There is no legal or Constitutional obligation on the ruling party to launch an interim budget during election year. It is only a convention.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) All

 

Solution: d

Why?: Previous UPSC questions with respect to Parliamentary Control over Budget [Ex:UPSC 2011-Vote on Account vs. Interim Budget; UPSC 2011-Parliamentary Control over Public Finance]

Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2:

The Constitution of India contains the following provisions with regard to the  enactment of budget:

  1. The  President  shall  in  respect  of  every  financial  year  cause  to  be  laid  before  both  the  Houses  of  Parliament  a  statement  of  estimated  receipts

and expenditure of the Government of India for that year.

  1. No  demand  for  a  grant  shall  be  made  except  on  the  recommendation  of  the President.
  2. No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except  under appropriation made by law.
  3. No  money  bill  imposing  tax  shall  be  introduced  in  the  Parliament  except  on  the  recommendation  of  the  President,  and  such  a  bill  shall  not  be

introduced in the Rajya Sabha.

  1. No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law.
  2. Parliament can reduce or abolish a tax but cannot increase it.

7.TheConstitution  has  also  defined  the  relative  roles  or  position  of  both  the  Houses  of  Parliament  with  regard  to  the  enactment  of  the  budget

  1. The  estimates  of  expenditure  embodied  in  the  budget  shall  show  separately the expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India and the expenditure made from the Consolidated Fund of India.

 

Hence Both the Statements 1 and 2 are Correct.

 

Statement 3:

An excerpt from the news report:

“What about the convention of interim budgets? Why should the finance minister of a government that is going to polls in a few weeks be allowed to wax eloquent on what the achievements were in the previous five years”

Hence Statements 3 is Correct.

 

Reference: http://www.rediff.com/money/2009/feb/11guest-why-interim-budgets-are-irrelevant.htm

 

Source: Indian Polity-5th Edition-M Laxmi Kanth-Chapter22


4)Consider the following Statements:

1.The  Prime  Minister  has  to  resign  if  he  loses  majority  in  the  Lower  House- This is just a rule of the Parliament but not mentioned in the Constitution.

2.In  the  event  of  both  the  President  and  the  Vice-President  demitting  office  simultaneously  before  the  end  of  their  tenure  the  Speaker  of  the  Lower House of the Parliament will officiate as the President.

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

 

Solution: d

Why?: Combination of Previous UPSC questions[UPSC-1997- Which of the following is not explicitly stated but followed as convention?; UPSC 1996-Correct Statements about Prime Minister etc.]

Explanation:

Statement1:It is just an unwritten convention that the  Prime  Minister  has  to  resign  if  he  loses  majority  in  the  Lower  House. It is neither mentioned in the Constitution nor mentioned in the Rule book of the Parliament.

Hence statement 1 is INCORRECT.

Statement 2: When a vacancy occurs in the office of the President due to his resignation, removal,  death  or  otherwise,  the  Vice-President  acts  as  the  President  until  a new  President  is  elected.  Further,  when  the  sitting  President  is  unable  to  discharge  his  functions  due  to  absence,  illness  or  any  other  cause,  the  Vice-president discharges his functions until the President resumes his office.  In  case  the  office  of Vice-President is vacant, the Chief  Justice  of  India  (or  if  his  office  is  also  vacant,  the  seniormo-st  judge  of  the  Supreme  Court  available) acts as the President or discharges the functions of the President.

Hence Statement 2 is INCORRECT.

Source: Indian Polity-5th Edition-M Laxmi Kanth-Chapter22


 

5)Which of the following are CORRECT with respect to Rajya Sabha?

  1. As per the Indian Constitution, Candidate Contesting an election to the Rajya Sabha from a particular State need not be an elector in that Particular State.
  2. The Constitution has not fixed the term of Office of a member of the Rajya Sabha as six years. It is decided by the Rules of the Rajya Sabha.
  3. The question of disqualification under the Tenth Schedule is decided by the Chairman in the case of Rajya Sabha.

A.1 and 2 only

B.All

C.3 only

D.1 and 3 only

 

Solution: c

Why?: Previous UPSC questions related to Rajya Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha+ Importance of distinction between Rules, Conventions, Acts and Constitutional provisions[ex:UPSC-1997- Which of the following is not explicitly stated but followed as convention? ]

Explanation:

Statement1: The Parliament has laid down the following  additional  qualifications  in  the  Representation of People Act (1951)[Not the Indian Constitution]

 

  1. He must be registered  as  an  elector  for  a  parliamentary  constituency.  This is  same  in  the  case  of  both,  the  Rajya  Sabha  and  the  Lok  Sabha.  The requirement  that  a  candidate  contesting  an  election  to  the  Rajya  Sabha from  a  particular  state  should  be  an  elector  in  that  particular  state  was dispensed  with  in  2003.  In  2006,  the  Supreme  Court  upheld  the constitutional validity of this change.
  2. He  must  be  a  member  of  a  scheduled  caste  or  scheduled  tribe  in  any  state  or  union  territory,  if  he  wants  to  contest  a  seat  reserved  for  them.

However,  a  member  of  scheduled  castes  or  scheduled  tribes  can  also  contest a seat not reserved for them.

Hence Statement 1 is INCORRECT

Statement2: The  Constitution  has  not  fixed  the  term  of  office  of  members  of  the  Rajya  Sabha  and  left  it  to  the  Parliament.  Accordingly,  the  Parliament  in  the Representation  of  the  People  Act  (1951)[Not the Rules of Rajya Sabha]   provided  that  the  term  of  office  of  a  member  of  the  Rajya  Sabha  shall  be  six 

 years.

Hence Statement 2 is INCORRECT.

Statement 3:

The  question  of  disqualification  under  the  Tenth  Schedule  is  decided  by  the  Chairman  in the  case  of  Rajya  Sabha  and  Speaker  in  the  case  of  Lok  Sabha  (and  not  by  the  president  of  India).  In  1992,  the  Supreme  Court  ruled  that  the  decision  of  the  Chairman/Speaker  in  this  regard  is  subject  to  judicial  review.

Hence Statement 3 is CORRECT.


6)For which of the following Committees , the Chairman is invariably from the Ruling Party?

a) Estimates Committee

b) Public Accounts Committee

c) Committee on Public Undertakings

d) None

 

Solution: a

Why? [UPSC 2002-Question on Public Accounts Committee]

Explanation:

Option B:

Public Accounts Committee:

The  chairman  of  the  committee  is appointed  from  amongst  its  members  by  the  Speaker.  Until 1966 –  ‘67,  the chairman of the committee belonged to the ruling party. However, since 1967 a  convention  has  developed  whereby  the  chairman  of  the  committee  is selected invariably from the Opposition.

Other important aspects-

1.22 members [15LS+7 RS]

2.Came into existence through GoI Act-1919

 

Option C:

Committee on Public Undertakings: The term of office of the members is one year.  A minister cannot be elected  as  a  member of the committee. The chairman of the committee is appointed by the  Speaker  from  amongst  its  members  who  are  drawn  from  the  Lok  Sabha  only.

Hence, it is INCORRECT.

Other important aspects-

1.Created in 1964 on the recommendation of the Krishna Menon Committee

2.Originally 15 members, later increased to 22 members

 

Option A:                                                                

Estimates Committee: A  minister  cannot  be  elected  as  a  member  of  the  committee.  The  chairman  of  the  committee  is  appointed  by  the  Speaker  from  amongst its members and he is invariably from the ruling party.

Hence, it is CORRECT.

Other important aspects-

1.Origin can be traced to Standing Financial Committee set up in 1921.

2.Originally 25 members, later increased to 30

3.Rajya Sabha has no representation in this Committee.

 

Common to all the three committees- 

  1. All parties get due representation [Proportional Method].
  2. Term of the members-1 year. 
  3. Minister cannot be elected as the member.
  4. Chairman is appointed by the Speaker from the members of the Committee.

 

Source: Indian Polity-5th Edition-M Laxmikanth-Chapter23


7) For which of the following Committees, Speaker of Lok Sabha acts as Chairman?

  1. Rules Committee
  2. Committee on Private Members’ Bills and Resolutions
  3. Business Advisory Committee
  4. General Purposes Committee

a) 1 and 3 only

b) 1, 3 and 4 only

c) 2 and 4 only

d) 1 only

 

Solution: b

Why?: [UPSC 2002 & 2013-Question on Public Accounts Committee]

Explanation:

Committee on Private Members’ Bills and Resolutions-Chairman is Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha. Hence the Answer is B.

Source: Indian Polity-5th Edition-M Laxmikanth-Chapter23


8) Assertion (A): The normal function of the Vice-President is to preside over the council of states

Reason(R): The electoral college of the Vice-President does not include the members of the State Legislative assemblies

(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A

(C) A is true, but R is false

(D) A is false, but R is true

 

Solution:b

Why?:Previous UPSC questions related to President and Vice-President Elections

Explanation:

Dr  B  R  Ambedkar observed:

“The  President  is  the  head  of  the  State  and  his  power  extends  both  to  the  administration  by  the  Centre  as  well  as  to  the  states.  Consequently,  it  is  necessary  that  in  his  election,  not  only  members  of  Parliament  should  play  their  part,  but  the  members  of  the   state  legislatures  should  have  a  voice.But,  when  we  come  to  the  Vice-President,  his  normal  functions  are  to  preside over  the council of states.  It  is only on a rareoccasion,and  that  too  for  a  temporary  period,  that  he  may  be  called  upon  to  assume  the  duties  of  the  president.  That  being  so,  it  does  not  seem  necessary  that  the  members  of the state legislatures should also be invited to take part in the election of  the Vice-President”.

Hence Both A and R are individually true.

As per the above text,

The assertion [EFFECT] is “The electoral college of the Vice-President does not include the members of the State Legislative assemblies” 

The reason [CAUSE] is “normal function of the Vice-President is to preside over the council of states”

In the question, it is given the other way.  So, R in the question is not a correct explanation of A. Hence, the answer is B.

 

Source: Indian Polity-5th Edition-M Laxmikanth -Chapter-18


9) Which of the following statements are INCORRECT with respect to the Office of Vice President?

  1. The only valid ground for the removal of Vice President provided by the Indian Constitution is proved misbehavior or incapacity.
  2. When a vacancy occurs in the Office of the President due to resignation, the Vice-President can only act as President for a maximum period of six months with in which a new President has to be elected.
  3. Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha is responsible to the Vice-President in Rajya Sabha as he is ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) None

Solution:c

Why? [UPSC 2004 -related to Resolution for the removal of Vice President]

Explanation:

Statement 1:

The Vice-  President  holds  office  for  a  term  of  five  years  from  the  date  on  which  he  enters  upon  his  office.  However,  he  can  resign  from  his  office  at  any  time  by  addressing  the  resignation  letter  to  the  President.  He  can  also  be  removed  from  the  office  before  completion  of  his  term.  A  formal  impeachment  is  not  required  for  his  removal.  He  can  be  removed  by  a  resolution  of  the  Rajya  Sabha  passed  by  an  absolute  majority  (i.e.,  a  majority  of  the  total  members  of  the  House)  and  agreed  to  by  the  Lok  Sabha.  But,  no such  resolution  can  be  moved  unless  at  least  14  days’  advance  notice  has  been  given.  Notably,  no  ground  has  been  mentioned  in  the  Constitution  for  his removal.

Hence, Statement 1 is INCORRECT.

 

Statement2: He  acts  as  President  when  a  vacancy  occurs  in  the  office  of  the  President  due  to  his  resignation,  removal,  death  or  otherwise.  He  can  act  as  President  only  for  a  maximum  period  of  six  months  within  which  a  new  President  has  to  be  elected.  Further,  when  the  sitting  President  is  unable  to  discharge  his  functions  due  to  absence,  illness  or  any  other cause, Vice-President  discharges  his  functions  until  the  President  resumes  his  office.

Hence Statement 2 is CORRECT.

 

Statement 3: The  Deputy  Chairman  is  not  subordinate  to the Chairman. He is directly responsible to the Rajya Sabha.

Hence Statement 3 is INCORRECT.

Source: Indian Polity-5th Edition-M Laxmikanth-Chapter22


10) Consider the following Statements:

1.”Leader of Opposition” position in Lok Sabha has statutory recognition.

2.Currently, Shri Ghulam Nabi Azad is the Leader of Opposition in Rajya Sabha.

3.The requirement that concerned party must have at least 10% of the total strength of the House is incorporated by amending Representation of People Act, 1951.

A.1 only

B.1 and 3 only

C.2 only

D.1 and 2 only

 

Solution: d

Why?: Leader of Opposition-often in news

Explanation:

Statement 1: In  a  parliamentary  system  of  government,  the  leader  of  the  opposition  has  a  significant  role  to  play.  His  main  functions  are  to  provide  a  constructive  criticism  of  the  policies  of  the  government  and  to  provide  an  alternative  government.  Therefore,  the  leader  of Opposition  in  the  Lok  Sabha  and  the  Rajya  Sabha  were  accorded  statutory  recognition  in  1977.  They  are  also  entitled  to  the  salary,  allowances  and  other  facilities  equivalent  to  that  of  a cabinet minister.  It was  in 1969  that an official  leader of  the opposition was  recognised  for  the  first  time.  The  same  functionary  in  USA  is  known  as  the  ‘minoriy leader’. Hence Statement 1 is CORRECT.

 

Statement 2: Factual. It is CORRECT.

Statement 3: The requirement that concerned party must have at least 10% of the total strength of the House is incorporated by  Salary and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977 . Hence Statement 3 is INCORRECT.

 

Source: Indian Polity-5th Edition-M Laxmikanth-Chapter22

Reference:https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Leader_of_the_Opposition_(India)#cite_note-Salary_and_Allowances_of_Leaders_of_Opposition_in_Parliament_Act,_1977-1


11) Which of the following shows that Indian Constitution has given preference to Common identity over diversity in few circumstances?

a) Asymmetric federalism 

b) Protection for Minorities

c) Joint electorates

d) None

 

Solution: c

Why?:NCERTs importance cannot be overemphasized[UPSC-2017]

Explanation:

Option A: Asymmetric federalism in Indian Polity, unlike in US’s symmetric federalism, is sensitive to the distinct socio-economic,cultural,geographic and historical circumstances. Article 370 related to Jammu and Kashmir and Special provisions related to North Eastern and other states stand as testimony to the Constitution’s recognition for diversity. Hence option A is INCORRECT.

 

Option B: Protection to the minorities in the form of Religious freedom, prohibition of discrimination on the grounds of religion only is not antithetical to the recognition of diversity over common Identity. Hence option B is INCORRECT.

 

Option C: The Indian Constitution tried to balance various identities. Yet, preference was given to common  identity under certain conditions. This is clarified in the debate over separate electorates based on religious identity  which the Constitution rejects. Hence option C is CORRECT.

“Separate electorates have been a curse to India, have  done incalculable harm to this country… Separate  electorates have barred our progress… We (Muslims)  want to merge in the nation. …for God’s sake keep  your hands off reservation for the Muslim  community.” -Tajamul Husain,  CAD, Vol. VIII, p. 333, 26 May 1949

Source: NCERT-INDIAN CONSTITUTION AT WORK-Chapter-10


12) Assertion (A): Fraternity cannot be divorced from Liberty and Equality.

Reason(R): Without fraternity, liberty and equality could not become a natural course of things

(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A

(C) A is true, but R is false

(D) A is false, but R is true

 

Solution: a

Why?: NCERTs importance cannot be overemphasized [Question related to Philosophy behind Indian Constitution]

Explanation: 

” ….principles of liberty, equality and fraternity  are not to be treated as separate items in a trinity. They form a  union of trinity in the sense that to divorce one from the other is to

defeat the very purpose of democracy. Liberty cannot be divorced  from equality, equality cannot be divorced from liberty. Nor can  liberty and equality be divorced from fraternity. Without equality, liberty would produce the supremacy of the few over the many.  Equality without liberty would kill individual initiative. Without  fraternity, liberty and equality could not become a natural course

Of things…

Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, CAD, Vol. XI, p.979, 25 November 1949

 

Source: NCERT-INDIAN CONSTITUTION AT WORK-Chapter-1


13) Which of the following are CORRECT ?

  1. Quorum-the minimum number to transact any business, is prescribed in the Indian Constitution. 
  2. The institution of Speaker and Deputy Speaker has originated under the provisions of the Government of India Act, 1919.
  3. The Representatives of each Union Territory in the Rajya Sabha are indirectly elected by members of an electoral college specially constituted for the purpose.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) All

 

Solution: d

why?:Important Articles+UPSC questions on Office of Speaker, Rajya Sabha membership

Explanation:

Statement 1: Article 100(3) Until Parliament by law otherwise provides, the quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament shall be one tenth of the total number of members of the House. 

Hence Statement 1 is CORRECT. 

 

Statement 2:The institutions of Speaker and Deputy Speaker originated in India in 1921  under  the  provisions  of  the  Government  of  India  Act  of  1919  (Montague–Chelmsford  Reforms).  At  that  time,  the  Speaker  and  the  Deputy  Speaker  were  called  the President  and  Deputy  President  respectively  and  the  same  nomenclature  continued  till  1947.  

Hence Statement 2 is CORRECT.  

Statement3: The  representatives  of  each  union  territory  in  the  Rajya  Sabha  are  indirectly  elected  by  members  of  an  electroral  college  specially  constituted  for  the  purpose.  This  election  is  also  held  in  accordance  with  the  system  of  proportional  representation  by  means  of  the  single  transferable  vote.  Out  of  the  seven  union  territories,  only  two

(Delhi and  Puducherry)  have  representation  in  Rajya  Sabha. Hence Statement 3 is CORRECT

Source: Indian Polity-5th Edition-M Laxmikanth-Chapter22


14) Which of the following are Correct with regard to the Rule 377 related to Lok Sabha proceedings?

  1. Matters which cannot be raised under the Rules relating to questions, short notice questions, calling attention, motions, etc. can be raised under Rule 377.
  2. Presently 30 MPs are permitted to raise matters under Rule 377 per day.
  3. Matters are selected based on party strength.

a) 1 and 3 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1 only

 

Solution: b

why?: Rule 377 is often in news and has greater significance in the proceedings of Lok Sabha.

Explanation:

Statement 1: After the laying of papers, matters which cannot be raised under the Rules relating to questions, short notice questions, calling attention, motions, etc. can be raised under Rule 377. MPs may raise issues under this Rule with the consent of the Speaker. Notice needs to be given before 10 am on the day of the sitting and the text of the notice cannot exceed 250 words.

Hence Statement 1 is CORRECT. 

 

Statement 2: Presently 20 MPs are permitted to raise matters under Rule 377 per day. Hence Statement 2 is INCORRECT.  

 

Statement 3: Matters are selected based on party strength. Hence Statement 3 is CORRECT

Reference:http://www.prsindia.org/administrator/uploads/general/1408616558_Primer%20on%20Parliamentary%20Procedures.pdf


15) In  accordance  with which of the following ,the  President  generally  appoints  the  leader  of  the  majority  party  in  the  Lok Sabha  as  the  Prime  Minister?

a) Representation of People Act, 1951

b) Article 75 of the Indian Constitution

c) Conventions of the Parliamentary System

d) Rules of Lok Sabha.

 

Solution: c

Why? UPSC 2013, 2015-Question on Parliamentary government+ Distinction between conventions, rules, Acts and Constitutional provisions.

Explanation: The  Constitution  does  not  contain  any  specific  procedure  for  the  selection  and  appointment  of  the  Prime  Minister.  Article  75  says  only  that  the  Prime  Minister  shall  be  appointed  by  the  president.  However,  this  does  not  imply  that  the  president  is  free  to  appoint  any  one  as  the  Prime  Minister.  In  accordance  with  the  conventions  of  the  parliamentary  system  of  government,  the  President  has  to  appoint  the  leader  of  the  majority  party  in  the  Lok  Sabha  as  the  Prime  Minister.

Source: Indian Polity-5th Edition-M Laxmikanth-Chapter 19


16) A Bill pending in parliament shall not lapse by reason of the prorogation of the House. It is because of which of the following?

a) Rule 336 of the Lok Sabha

b) Article 107(3)

c) Article 100(3)

d) None of the above. It is just a Convention.

 

Solution: b

Why?:UPSC 2016 question on lapse of bills on Prorogation

Explanation: 

Option A: Under  Rule  336  of  the  Lok  Sabha,  a  motion,  resolution  or  an  amendment,  which  has  been  moved  and  is  pending  in  the  House,  shall  not  lapse  by reason only of the prorogation of the House. Hence option A is INCORRECT 

 

Option C: Article 100(3) Until Parliament by law otherwise provides, the quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament shall be one tenth of the total number of members of the House. Hence option C is INCORRECT.

 

Option B:Under  Article  107  (3)  of  the  Constitution,  a  bill  pending  in  Parliament  shall not lapse by reason of the prorogation of the Houses. Hence option B is CORRECT.

 

Source: Indian Polity-5th Edition-M Laxmikanth-Chapter 22


17) If a person gets elected to both the Parliament and the State Legislature at the Same time, his seat in Parliament becomes vacant if he does not resign his seat in the State Legislature with in ‘X’ days -as stipulated by ‘Y’. X and Y are respectively

A.10 days and Representation of People Act, 1951

B.14 days and Representation of People Act, 1951

C.14 days and Rules made by the President

D.10 days and Rules made by the Parliament

 

Solution: c

Why?: UPSC has the tendency of framing questions from what we observe commonly during elections and immediately after it by relating them to the subject. We can also enjoy such learning. The foot notes provided by Laxmi Kanth book provide some valuable insights to understand the things happening in Contemporary polity.  

Explanation: A  person  cannot  be  a  member  of  both  the  Parliament  and  the  state  legislature  at  the  same  time.  If  a  person  is  so  elected,  his  seat  in  Parliament  becomes  vacant  if  he  does  not  resign  his  seat  in  the  state  legislature within 14 days, according  to  the  Prohibition  of  Simultaneous  Membership  Rules  (1950)  made by the President.

Source: Indian Polity-5th Edition-M Laxmikanth-Chapter22


18) Assertion (A): The form of oath of office and secrecy for the Prime Minister is different from other Union ministers

Reason(R): The resignation of an incumbent Prime Minister automatically dissolves the council of ministers while the resignation of other Union minister merely creates a vacancy.

(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A

(C) A is true, but R is false

(D) A is false, but R is true

 

Solution: d

Why?: [UPSC-1997- Which of the following is not explicitly stated but followed as convention?; UPSC 1996-Correct Statements about Prime Minister etc.]

Explanation: 

Assertion: The form of oath of office and secrecy for the Prime Minister is similar to  that for any Union minister. Hence it is FALSE. 

Reason: Since  the  Prime  Minister  stands  at  the  head  of  the  council  of  ministers,  the  other  ministers  cannot  function  when  the  Prime  Minister  resigns  or  dies.  In

other  words,  the  resignation  or  death  of  an  incumbent  Prime  Minister  automatically  dissolves  the  council  of  ministers  and  thereby  generates  a  vacuum.  The  resignation  or  death  of  any  other  minister,  on  the  other  hand,  merely  creates  a  vacancy  which  the  Prime  Minister  may  or  may  not  like  to  fill. Hence it is TRUE.

Source: Indian Polity-5th Edition-M Laxmikanth-Chapter19


19) Which of the following Articles of the Constitution can be termed the essence of Parliamentary system of government?

(A) Articles 74 and 75

(B) Articles 77 and 78

(C) Articles 78 and 88

(D) Articles 110 and 112

 

Solution: a

Why?:UPSC 2013,2015-Question on Parliamentary government+ Important Articles.

Explanation: The  principles  of  parliamentary  system  of  government  are  not  detailed  in  the  Constitution,  but  two  Articles  (74  and  75)  deal  with  them  in  a  broad,  sketchy  and  general manner. Article  74  deals with  the  status  of  the  council of  ministers  while  Article  75  deals  with  the  appointment,  tenure,  responsibility,  qualification, oath and salaries and allowances of the ministers. Hence Option A is CORRECT.

Other Options:-

Article 77-Conduct of Business of the Government of India

Article 78-Duties of Prime Minister

Article 88-Rights of Minister as Respects the Houses

Article 110-Definition of Money Bill

Article 112-Annual Financial Statement (Budget)

 

Source: Indian Polity-5th Edition-M Laxmikanth-Chapter20


20) Which of the following are CORRECT?

1.Unlike in Britain, In  India  there  is no provision  in  the Constitution  for  the  system  of  legal  responsibility  of  a  minister.

2.The term “Cabinet” has been introduced but not defined in the Constitution through the 44th Constitutional amendment.

3.Council of Ministers size and classification are mentioned in the Articles 74 and 75

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1 only

 

Solution: d

Why?:

Comparative study to gain clarity + Necessary to know which are just mentioned but not defined, explicitly defined + UPSC questions on Comparison between India, USA and UK Political systems

 

Explanation:

Statement 1: In  Britain,  every  order  of  the  King  for  any  public  act  is  countersigned  by  a  minister.  If  the  order  is  in  violation  of  any  law,  the  minister  would  be  held  responsible  and  would  be  liable  in  the  court. The  legally  accepted  phrase  in  Britain  is,  “The  king  can  do  no  wrong.”  Hence,  he  cannot  be  sued  in  any  court. In  India, on  the other hand,  there  is no provision  in  the Constitution  for  the  system  of  legal  responsibility  of  a  minister.  It  is  not  required  that  an  order  of  the  President  for  a  public  act  should  be  countersigned  by  a  minister.  Moreover,  the  courts  are  barred  from  enquiring  into  the  nature  of  advice  rendered by the ministers to the president. Hence Statement 1 is CORRECT.

 

Statement 2: It was inserted in Article 352 of the Constitution in 1978 by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act. Thus, it did not find a place in the original text of the Constitution. Now also, Article

352 only defines the cabinet  saying that it is ‘the council  consisting of the prime minister  and other ministers of cabinet  rank appointed under Article 75’  and does not describe its powers  and functions. Hence statement 2 is INCORRECT 

 

Statement 3: Council of Ministers is a constitutional body, dealt in detail by the Articles 74 and 75 of the Constitution. Its size and classification are, however, not mentioned in the Constitution. Its size is determined by the prime minister according to the exigencies of the time and requirements of the situation. Its classification into a three-tier body is based on the conventions of parliamentary government as developed in Britain. It has, however, got a legislative sanction. Thus, the Salaries and Allowances Act of 1952 defines a ‘minister’ as a ‘member of the council of ministers, by whatever  name called, and includes a deputy  minister’. Hence Statement 3 is INCORRECT.

 

Source: Indian Polity-5th Edition-M Laxmikanth-Chapter20


21) With reference to the Article 35A of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:

 

  1. It was incorporated into the Constitution by an order of the First President of India
  2. Incorporation of the Article 35A involved bypassing of the parliamentary route of lawmaking
  3. This Article gives special powers to Jammu and Kashmir Legislature

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 Only

b) 1 and 3 Only

c) 2 and 3 Only

d) 1,2 and 3

 

Solution: d

 

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/10/31/insights-daily-current-affairs-31-october-2017/

 

 

Article 35A is a provision incorporated in the Constitution giving the Jammu and Kashmir Legislature a carte blanche to decide who all are ‘permanent residents’ of the State and confer on them special rights and privileges in public sector jobs, acquisition of property in the State, scholarships and other public aid and welfare. The provision mandates that no act of the legislature coming under it can be challenged for violating the Constitution or any other law of the land.

 

Article 35A was incorporated into the Constitution in 1954 by an order of the then President Rajendra Prasad on the advice of the Jawaharlal Nehru Cabinet. The controversial Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order of 1954 followed the 1952 Delhi Agreement entered into between Nehru and the then Prime Minister of Jammu and Kashmir Sheikh Abdullah, which extended Indian citizenship to the ‘State subjects’ of Jammu and Kashmir.

 

 The Presidential Order was issued under Article 370 (1) (d) of the Constitution. This provision allows the President to make certain “exceptions and modifications” to the Constitution for the benefit of ‘State subjects’ of Jammu and Kashmir.

 

Third statement, though vague, is correct because this Article indeed give J&K legislature special powers compared to other states.


 

22) With reference to the Constitution bench in the Indian judiciary, consider the following statements:

  1. It is the name given to the benches of the Supreme Court of India which consist of at least five judges of the court
  2. Setting up of these benches is mandated by the Constitution of India
  3. The basic structure doctrine verdict was delivered by a constitution bench of the Supreme Court
  4. These benches are set-up by the Supreme Court collegium

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2 and 3 Only

b) 1, 2 and 4 Only

c) 1 and 3 Only

d) 1,2, 3 and 4

 

Solution: a)

 

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/10/31/insights-daily-current-affairs-31-october-2017/

 

 

Constitution bench is the name given to the benches of the Supreme Court of India which consist of at least five judges of the court which sit to decide any case “involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation” of the Constitution of India. This provision has been mandated by Article 145 (3) of the Constitution of India.

 

The Chief Justice of India has the power to constitute a Constitution Bench and refer cases to it.[3] Constitution benches have decided many of India’s best-known and most important Supreme Court cases, such as A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras, Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (basic structure doctrine) and Ashoka Kumar Thakur v. Union of India (OBC reservations) etc.

 


23) Recently, India sent its maiden shipment of wheat from India’s western seaport of Kandla to Afghanistan. Which of the following geographical regions were involved in this transit?

 

  1. Chabahar
  2. Zahedan
  3. Zaranj

Select the correct answer using codes below:

a) 1 and 2 Only

b) 2 and 3 Only

c) 1 and 3 Only

d) 1,2 and 3

 

Solution: d)

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/10/30/97917/

 

The Chabahar-Zahedan-Zaranj corridor was used to transit wheat from India.

 

http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-ships-wheat-to-afghanistan-via-chabahar/article19945498.ece


 

24) The parasite Leishmania donovani causes

  1. Black fever
  2. Yellow fever
  3. Elephantiasis
  4. None of the above

 

Solution: a)

 

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/10/28/insights-daily-current-affairs-28-october-2017/

 

Leishmania donovani is a species of intracellular parasites belonging to the genus Leishmania, a group of haemoflagellate kinetoplastids that cause the disease leishmaniasis. It is a human blood parasite responsible for visceral leishmaniasis or kala-azar, the most severe form of leishmaniasis.

 

Black fever  is also known as kala azar.