INSIGHTS REVISION TEST for Preliminary Exam 2018:
(Indian Polity )
Test –21
Detailed Revision Timetable
INSIGHTS IAS REVISION PLAN FOR PRELIMS 2018 - DAILY REVISION TESTS
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Welcome to Insights IAS Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam – 2018.
If you are wondering why these questions are posted, please refer to the detailed Timetable provided HERE.
These questions serve TWO purposes: One to test your revision skills; Second is to give you a glimpse into topics that you might have missed during revision.
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Question 1 of 25
1. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following are some of the Standing Committees Of the Cabinet that have been discontinued by the Present government in 2014?
- Cabinet Committee on Accommodation
- Cabinet Committee on Management of Natural Calamities
- Cabinet Committee on WTO matters
- Cabinet Committee on Unique Identification Authority of India UIDAI
Correct
Answer: A
Why? [Cabinet Committees are frequently in news + Improvisation from UPSC questions on Parliamentary Conventions and on Parliamentary Committees.]
Explanation:
As on 2016, the following 6 Cabinet Committees are functional:
- Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs
- Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
- Appointments Committee of the Cabinet
- Cabinet Committee on Security
- Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs
- Cabinet Committee on Accommodation
The Prime Minister Narendra Modi on June 10, 2014, announced discontinuation of four Standing Committees of the Cabinet. A statement by the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) said the functions of Cabinet Committee on Management of Natural Calamities which stands discontinued will be handled by the Committee under the Cabinet Secretary whenever natural calamities occur. The functions of Cabinet Committee on Prices will be
handled by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs; of the Cabinet Committee on World Trade Organisation Matters by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs and, whenever necessary, by the full Cabinet. On the Cabinet Committee on Unique Identification Authority of India related issues it said that major decisions in this area have already been taken and the remaining issues will be brought to the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs.
Hence the answer is A.
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 21
Incorrect
Answer: A
Why? [Cabinet Committees are frequently in news + Improvisation from UPSC questions on Parliamentary Conventions and on Parliamentary Committees.]
Explanation:
As on 2016, the following 6 Cabinet Committees are functional:
- Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs
- Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
- Appointments Committee of the Cabinet
- Cabinet Committee on Security
- Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs
- Cabinet Committee on Accommodation
The Prime Minister Narendra Modi on June 10, 2014, announced discontinuation of four Standing Committees of the Cabinet. A statement by the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) said the functions of Cabinet Committee on Management of Natural Calamities which stands discontinued will be handled by the Committee under the Cabinet Secretary whenever natural calamities occur. The functions of Cabinet Committee on Prices will be
handled by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs; of the Cabinet Committee on World Trade Organisation Matters by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs and, whenever necessary, by the full Cabinet. On the Cabinet Committee on Unique Identification Authority of India related issues it said that major decisions in this area have already been taken and the remaining issues will be brought to the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs.
Hence the answer is A.
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 21
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Question 2 of 25
2. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following Statements is/are CORRECT?
- Non-Cabinet Ministers are debarred from Cabinet Committee membership.
- Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary affairs is headed by the Home Minister.
- Parliamentary Secretaries are part of the Political Executive.
Correct
Answer: C
Why? : [Cabinet Committees are frequently in news+”Parliamentary Secretaries” was in news in the Context of Office of Profit related to Delhi government.]
Explanation:
Statement 1: Cabinet Committees usually include only Cabinet Ministers. However, the non-cabinet Ministers are not debarred from their membership.
Hence Statement 1 is INCORRECT
Statement 2: Political Affairs, Economic Affairs, Appointments related Cabinet Committees are headed by the Prime Minister while the Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs is headed by the Home Minister.
Hence Statement 2 is CORRECT
Statement 3: Parliamentary Secretaries are the members of the last category of the council of ministers (which is also known as the ‘ministry’). They have no department under their control. They are attached to the senior ministers and assist them in the discharge of their parliamentary duties. However, since 1967, no parliamentary secretaries have been appointed except during the first phase of Rajiv Gandhi Government.
Hence Statement 3 is CORRECT.
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTERS 20& 21
Incorrect
Answer: C
Why? : [Cabinet Committees are frequently in news+”Parliamentary Secretaries” was in news in the Context of Office of Profit related to Delhi government.]
Explanation:
Statement 1: Cabinet Committees usually include only Cabinet Ministers. However, the non-cabinet Ministers are not debarred from their membership.
Hence Statement 1 is INCORRECT
Statement 2: Political Affairs, Economic Affairs, Appointments related Cabinet Committees are headed by the Prime Minister while the Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs is headed by the Home Minister.
Hence Statement 2 is CORRECT
Statement 3: Parliamentary Secretaries are the members of the last category of the council of ministers (which is also known as the ‘ministry’). They have no department under their control. They are attached to the senior ministers and assist them in the discharge of their parliamentary duties. However, since 1967, no parliamentary secretaries have been appointed except during the first phase of Rajiv Gandhi Government.
Hence Statement 3 is CORRECT.
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTERS 20& 21
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Question 3 of 25
3. Question
2 pointsAssertion (A): The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the ex-officio President of all the Parliamentary Forums
Reason (R): The Speaker is the directly elected Member of Parliament while the Chairman of Rajya Sabha is not directly elected by the People.
Correct
Answer: D
Why?: [Previous UPSC questions on Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha.]
Explanation:
Assertion: The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the ex-officio President of all the Forums except
the Parliamentary Forum on Population and Public Health wherein the Chairman of Rajya Sabha is the ex-officio President and the Speaker is the ex-officio Co-President. The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha, the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, the concerned Ministers and the Chairmen of Departmentally-Related Standing Committees are the ex-officio Vice Presidents of the respective Forums.
Hence Assertion is False.
Reason: The Speaker is chosen among the directly elected members of the Loksabha while the Vice-President, who is ex-officio chairman of Rajya Sabha is not directly elected by the people. He is elected by the Members of Parliament.
Hence Reason is True.
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 24
Incorrect
Answer: D
Why?: [Previous UPSC questions on Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha.]
Explanation:
Assertion: The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the ex-officio President of all the Forums except
the Parliamentary Forum on Population and Public Health wherein the Chairman of Rajya Sabha is the ex-officio President and the Speaker is the ex-officio Co-President. The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha, the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, the concerned Ministers and the Chairmen of Departmentally-Related Standing Committees are the ex-officio Vice Presidents of the respective Forums.
Hence Assertion is False.
Reason: The Speaker is chosen among the directly elected members of the Loksabha while the Vice-President, who is ex-officio chairman of Rajya Sabha is not directly elected by the people. He is elected by the Members of Parliament.
Hence Reason is True.
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 24
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Question 4 of 25
4. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following Constitutional Offices do not subscribe “To uphold the Sovereignty and Integrity of India” in their Oath?
- President
- Vice-President
- MLA
- MP
- Governor
Correct
Answer: D
Why?:UPSC-1997 Prelims question on Match the following -Functionaries and Oaths /Affirmations + UPSC-1996/2002 mains – Why does the Constitution of India contain different forms of Oath for the President, the Ministers, the Legislators and the members of the Judiciary? Discuss their significance.
Explanation:
Oath by the President:
“I, A.B., do swear in the name of God/solemnly affirm that I will faithfully execute the office of President (or discharge the functions of the President) of India and will to the
best of my ability preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law
and that I will devote myself to the service and well-being of the people of
India”.
Oath by the Vice-President:
“ I, A.B., do swear in the name of God/Solemnly affirm that I will bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India as by law established and that I will faithfully discharge
the duty upon which I am about to enter”.
Oath by the Governor:
“I, A.B., do swear in the name of God/solemnly affirm that I will faithfully execute the office of Governor (or discharge the functions of the Governor) of … (name of the
State) and will to the best of my ability preserve, protect and defend the
Constitution and the law and that I will devote myself to the service and wellbeing of the people of … (name of the State).”
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-APPENDIX IV
Incorrect
Answer: D
Why?:UPSC-1997 Prelims question on Match the following -Functionaries and Oaths /Affirmations + UPSC-1996/2002 mains – Why does the Constitution of India contain different forms of Oath for the President, the Ministers, the Legislators and the members of the Judiciary? Discuss their significance.
Explanation:
Oath by the President:
“I, A.B., do swear in the name of God/solemnly affirm that I will faithfully execute the office of President (or discharge the functions of the President) of India and will to the
best of my ability preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law
and that I will devote myself to the service and well-being of the people of
India”.
Oath by the Vice-President:
“ I, A.B., do swear in the name of God/Solemnly affirm that I will bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India as by law established and that I will faithfully discharge
the duty upon which I am about to enter”.
Oath by the Governor:
“I, A.B., do swear in the name of God/solemnly affirm that I will faithfully execute the office of Governor (or discharge the functions of the Governor) of … (name of the
State) and will to the best of my ability preserve, protect and defend the
Constitution and the law and that I will devote myself to the service and wellbeing of the people of … (name of the State).”
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-APPENDIX IV
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Question 5 of 25
5. Question
2 pointsConsider the following Statements:
1.An impeachment motion for the removal of a judge does not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
2.A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from his Office by an order of the president.
Which of the above is/are CORRECT?
Correct
Answer: C
Why?: [“Removal of Judges” is very frequently in news- Justice C S Karnan episode, Alleged Corruption charges against CJI + UPSC-2007 question on removal of High Court+ Lapse of bills on dissolution-Important topic + UPSC-2016 lapse of bills on Prorogation ]
Please go through the link for clarification
http://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/bringing-judges-to-justice/
Explanation:
Statement 1: Factual. It is CORRECT
Statement 2: A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from his Office by an order of the president. The President can issue the removal order only after an address by Parliament has been presented to him in the same session for such removal. The address must be supported by a special majority of each House of Parliament (ie, a majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting). The grounds of removal are two—proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
Hence Statement 2 is CORRECT
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER-26
Incorrect
Answer: C
Why?: [“Removal of Judges” is very frequently in news- Justice C S Karnan episode, Alleged Corruption charges against CJI + UPSC-2007 question on removal of High Court+ Lapse of bills on dissolution-Important topic + UPSC-2016 lapse of bills on Prorogation ]
Please go through the link for clarification
http://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/bringing-judges-to-justice/
Explanation:
Statement 1: Factual. It is CORRECT
Statement 2: A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from his Office by an order of the president. The President can issue the removal order only after an address by Parliament has been presented to him in the same session for such removal. The address must be supported by a special majority of each House of Parliament (ie, a majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting). The grounds of removal are two—proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
Hence Statement 2 is CORRECT
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER-26
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Question 6 of 25
6. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following is/are CORRECT?
- The Parliament has increased the number of Supreme Court Judges from eight (Originally) to thirty-one (Presently) through progressive Constitutional amendments, multiple times.
- The Chief Justice of India (CJI) is appointed by the President after consultation with both the Supreme Court and High Courts as he deems necessary.
- The SC in Second Judges case ruled that the advice tendered by the CJI is binding on the President in the case of references made by the President under Article 143 to Supreme Court.
Correct
Answer: C
Why?: [Improvisation from UPSC 2014 question- The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in+ UPSC 2010-Advisory Jurisdiction of Supreme Court]
Explanation:
Statement 1: Even if we don’t know the details, we’ve studied that increasing the number of Judges in the Supreme Court is outside the scope of Article 368 in the Chapter related to Constitution Amendment.
Hence it is INCORRECT
Additional information:
At present, the Supreme Court consists of thirty-one judges (one chief justice and thirty other judges). In February 2009, the centre notified an increase in the number of Supreme Court judges from twenty-six to thirty-one, including the Chief Justice of India. This followed the enactment of the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Act, 2008. Originally, the strength of the Supreme Court was fixed at eight (one chief justice and seven other judges). The Parliament has increased this number of other judges progressively to ten in 1956, to thirteen in 1960, to seventeen in 1977 and to twenty-five in 1986.
Statement 2: Appointment of Judges The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed
by the president. The chief justice is appointed by the president after consultation with such judges of the Supreme Court and high courts as he deems necessary. The other judges are appointed by president after consultation with the chief justice and such other judges of the Supreme Court and the high courts as he deems necessary. The consultation with the chief justice is obligatory in the case of appointment of a judge other than Chief justice.
Hence Statement 2 is CORRECT
Statement 3:
In the Second Judges case (1993), the Court reversed its earlier ruling and changed the meaning of the word consultation to concurrence. Hence, it ruled that the advice tendered
by the Chief Justice of India is binding on the President in the matters of
appointment of the judges of the Supreme Court. [Not with respect to Article 143]
Hence Statement 3 is INCORRECT
Additional relevant information: The Constitution (Article 143) authorises the president to seek the opinion of the Supreme Court in the two categories of matters. In both the cases, the opinion expressed by the Supreme Court is only advisory and not a judicial pronouncement. Hence, it is not binding on the president.
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER-26
Incorrect
Answer: C
Why?: [Improvisation from UPSC 2014 question- The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in+ UPSC 2010-Advisory Jurisdiction of Supreme Court]
Explanation:
Statement 1: Even if we don’t know the details, we’ve studied that increasing the number of Judges in the Supreme Court is outside the scope of Article 368 in the Chapter related to Constitution Amendment.
Hence it is INCORRECT
Additional information:
At present, the Supreme Court consists of thirty-one judges (one chief justice and thirty other judges). In February 2009, the centre notified an increase in the number of Supreme Court judges from twenty-six to thirty-one, including the Chief Justice of India. This followed the enactment of the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Act, 2008. Originally, the strength of the Supreme Court was fixed at eight (one chief justice and seven other judges). The Parliament has increased this number of other judges progressively to ten in 1956, to thirteen in 1960, to seventeen in 1977 and to twenty-five in 1986.
Statement 2: Appointment of Judges The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed
by the president. The chief justice is appointed by the president after consultation with such judges of the Supreme Court and high courts as he deems necessary. The other judges are appointed by president after consultation with the chief justice and such other judges of the Supreme Court and the high courts as he deems necessary. The consultation with the chief justice is obligatory in the case of appointment of a judge other than Chief justice.
Hence Statement 2 is CORRECT
Statement 3:
In the Second Judges case (1993), the Court reversed its earlier ruling and changed the meaning of the word consultation to concurrence. Hence, it ruled that the advice tendered
by the Chief Justice of India is binding on the President in the matters of
appointment of the judges of the Supreme Court. [Not with respect to Article 143]
Hence Statement 3 is INCORRECT
Additional relevant information: The Constitution (Article 143) authorises the president to seek the opinion of the Supreme Court in the two categories of matters. In both the cases, the opinion expressed by the Supreme Court is only advisory and not a judicial pronouncement. Hence, it is not binding on the president.
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER-26
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Question 7 of 25
7. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following Articles stipulate that “any case involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution” must be decided by a Bench of at least five judges?
Correct
Answer: C
Why?: Constitution Bench related debates are in news.[As many Constitutionally important cases were dealt by normal benches instead of Constitution Benches ex: Naz Foundation case]
Explanation:
Article 145(3) says that “any case involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution” must be decided by a Bench of at least five judges.
Hence C is CORRECT.
Option A -Article 141-Law declared by Supreme Court to be binding on all courts
Option B -Article 142- The Supreme Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER-26
Incorrect
Answer: C
Why?: Constitution Bench related debates are in news.[As many Constitutionally important cases were dealt by normal benches instead of Constitution Benches ex: Naz Foundation case]
Explanation:
Article 145(3) says that “any case involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution” must be decided by a Bench of at least five judges.
Hence C is CORRECT.
Option A -Article 141-Law declared by Supreme Court to be binding on all courts
Option B -Article 142- The Supreme Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER-26
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Question 8 of 25
8. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following Constitutional Amendments provided for the appointment of additional and acting judges of the high court?
Correct
Answer: B
Why? [In news-SC verdict on a petition challenging the appointment of 2 judges as additional judges of Rajasthan HC + Consitution Amendment related questions are abundant in UPSC]
Explanation:
7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956 -Provided for the appointment of additional and acting judges of the high court. Hence the right answer is B.
This amendment is also important in the context of Judiciary as
– It has provided for the establishment of a common high court for two or more states.
– Extended the jurisdiction of high courts to union territories.
15th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1963 is relevant to Judiciary in the following aspects:
-Enabled the high courts to issue writs to any person or authority even outside its territorial jurisdiction if the cause of action arise within its territorial limits.
-Increased the retirement age of high court judges from 60 to 62 years.
– Provided for appointment of retired judges of the high courts as acting judges of the same court.
–Enabled the retired judge of a high court to act as adhoc judge of the Supreme Court.
-Provided for the procedure for determining the age of the Supreme Court and high court judges
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-APPENDIX-VI
Incorrect
Answer: B
Why? [In news-SC verdict on a petition challenging the appointment of 2 judges as additional judges of Rajasthan HC + Consitution Amendment related questions are abundant in UPSC]
Explanation:
7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956 -Provided for the appointment of additional and acting judges of the high court. Hence the right answer is B.
This amendment is also important in the context of Judiciary as
– It has provided for the establishment of a common high court for two or more states.
– Extended the jurisdiction of high courts to union territories.
15th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1963 is relevant to Judiciary in the following aspects:
-Enabled the high courts to issue writs to any person or authority even outside its territorial jurisdiction if the cause of action arise within its territorial limits.
-Increased the retirement age of high court judges from 60 to 62 years.
– Provided for appointment of retired judges of the high courts as acting judges of the same court.
–Enabled the retired judge of a high court to act as adhoc judge of the Supreme Court.
-Provided for the procedure for determining the age of the Supreme Court and high court judges
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-APPENDIX-VI
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Question 9 of 25
9. Question
2 pointsUnder whose tenure as Chief Justice of India, Social Justice Bench was set up for the first time in Supreme Court?
Correct
Answer: D
Why? [UPSC 2008 question- related to PIL & Justice VR Krishna Iyer]
Explanation:
The social justice bench was set up by former CJI H.L. Dattu during his tenure in December 2014 and it was functioning for almost a year and it disposed of several important social justice matters. This was however discontinued by former CJI T.S. Thakur soon after he took over. Currently, such cases are heard by different benches. Later Justice Khehar has restored the bench with same composition of judges to sit every Friday.
Incorrect
Answer: D
Why? [UPSC 2008 question- related to PIL & Justice VR Krishna Iyer]
Explanation:
The social justice bench was set up by former CJI H.L. Dattu during his tenure in December 2014 and it was functioning for almost a year and it disposed of several important social justice matters. This was however discontinued by former CJI T.S. Thakur soon after he took over. Currently, such cases are heard by different benches. Later Justice Khehar has restored the bench with same composition of judges to sit every Friday.
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Question 10 of 25
10. Question
2 pointsConsider the following Statements:
- In Public Interest Litigation (PIL), there is no determination on adjudication of individual rights.
- Landlord-tenant matters will not be entertained as PIL by the Supreme Court.
Which of the above is/are CORRECT?
Correct
Answer: C
Why?: [Improvisation from UPSC 2008 question- related to PIL & Justice VR Krishna Iyer]
Explanation:
Statement 1: PIL is brought before the Court not for the purpose of enforcing the right
of one individual against another as happens in the case of ordinary litigation, but it is intended to promote and vindicate public interest. In a PIL, unlike traditional dispute resolution mechanism, there is no determination on adjudication of individual rights. PIL is essentially a co-operative effort on the part of the petitioner, the State or Public Authority, and the Court to secure observance of the constitutional or legal rights, benefits and privileges conferred upon the vulnerable sections of the community and to reach social justice to them.
Hence Statement 1 is CORRECT
Statement 2: In 1998, the Supreme Court formulated a set of guidelines to be followed for entertaining letters or petitions received by it as PIL. These guidelines were modified in 1993 and 2003. According to them, The cases falling under the following categories will not be entertained as PIL:
- 1. Landlord–tenant matters
- Service matter and those pertaining to pension and gratuity
- Complaints against Central/ State Government departments and Local Bodies except those relating to item numbers. (1)–(10) above
- Admission to medical and other educational institution
- Petitions for early hearing of cases pending in High Courts and Subordinate Courts
Hence Statement 2 is CORRECT
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER-29
Incorrect
Answer: C
Why?: [Improvisation from UPSC 2008 question- related to PIL & Justice VR Krishna Iyer]
Explanation:
Statement 1: PIL is brought before the Court not for the purpose of enforcing the right
of one individual against another as happens in the case of ordinary litigation, but it is intended to promote and vindicate public interest. In a PIL, unlike traditional dispute resolution mechanism, there is no determination on adjudication of individual rights. PIL is essentially a co-operative effort on the part of the petitioner, the State or Public Authority, and the Court to secure observance of the constitutional or legal rights, benefits and privileges conferred upon the vulnerable sections of the community and to reach social justice to them.
Hence Statement 1 is CORRECT
Statement 2: In 1998, the Supreme Court formulated a set of guidelines to be followed for entertaining letters or petitions received by it as PIL. These guidelines were modified in 1993 and 2003. According to them, The cases falling under the following categories will not be entertained as PIL:
- 1. Landlord–tenant matters
- Service matter and those pertaining to pension and gratuity
- Complaints against Central/ State Government departments and Local Bodies except those relating to item numbers. (1)–(10) above
- Admission to medical and other educational institution
- Petitions for early hearing of cases pending in High Courts and Subordinate Courts
Hence Statement 2 is CORRECT
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER-29
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Question 11 of 25
11. Question
2 pointsAssertion(A):The scope of judicial review in India is narrower than what exists in the USA
Reason (R): The American Constitution explicitly mentions the concept of Judicial Review
Correct
Answer: C
Why?: [Previous UPSC questions on Judicial review + Comparison between the Constitutions of India, USA and UK-ex: UPSC 1998 –India vs UK Parliamentary system]
Explanation: The scope of judicial review in India is narrower than what exists in the USA, though the American Constitution does not explicitly mention the concept of judicial review in any of its provisions. This is because, the American Constitution provides for ‘due process of law’ against that of ‘procedure established by law’ which is contained in the Indian Constitution.[So, the reason is false]
Hence the answer is C.
Additional relevant Info:
The difference between ‘due process of law’ and ‘procedure established by law’ is: “The due process of law gives wide scope to the Supreme Court to grant protection to the rights of its citizens. It can declare laws violative of these rights void not only on substantive grounds of being unlawful, but also on procedural grounds of being unreasonable. Our Supreme Court, while determining the constitutionality of a law, however examines only the substantive question i.e., whether the law is within the powers of the authority concerned or not. It is not expected to go into the question of its reasonableness, suitability or policy implications”
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER-27
Incorrect
Answer: C
Why?: [Previous UPSC questions on Judicial review + Comparison between the Constitutions of India, USA and UK-ex: UPSC 1998 –India vs UK Parliamentary system]
Explanation: The scope of judicial review in India is narrower than what exists in the USA, though the American Constitution does not explicitly mention the concept of judicial review in any of its provisions. This is because, the American Constitution provides for ‘due process of law’ against that of ‘procedure established by law’ which is contained in the Indian Constitution.[So, the reason is false]
Hence the answer is C.
Additional relevant Info:
The difference between ‘due process of law’ and ‘procedure established by law’ is: “The due process of law gives wide scope to the Supreme Court to grant protection to the rights of its citizens. It can declare laws violative of these rights void not only on substantive grounds of being unlawful, but also on procedural grounds of being unreasonable. Our Supreme Court, while determining the constitutionality of a law, however examines only the substantive question i.e., whether the law is within the powers of the authority concerned or not. It is not expected to go into the question of its reasonableness, suitability or policy implications”
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER-27
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Question 12 of 25
12. Question
2 pointsArticle 13 of the Indian Constitution expressively provides Judicial Review. Which of the following cannot be treated as “Law” for the purpose of Article 13?
Correct
Answer: B
Why?: [ Judicial Review+ Clarity on Important Articles]
Explanation:
The term ‘law’ in Article 13 has been given a wide connotation so as to include the following:
(a) Permanent laws enacted by the Parliament or the state legislatures;
(b) Temporary laws like ordinances issued by the president or the state governors;
(c) Statutory instruments in the nature of delegated legislation (executive legislation) like order, bye-law, rule, regulation or notification; and
(d) Non-legislative sources of law, that is, custom or usage having the force of law.
Further, Article 13 declares that a constitutional amendment is not a law and hence cannot be challenged. [To be specific, after Kesavananda Bharati case Constitutional amendments which do not fall under the ‘Basic Structure’ cannot be Challenged.]
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER-7
Incorrect
Answer: B
Why?: [ Judicial Review+ Clarity on Important Articles]
Explanation:
The term ‘law’ in Article 13 has been given a wide connotation so as to include the following:
(a) Permanent laws enacted by the Parliament or the state legislatures;
(b) Temporary laws like ordinances issued by the president or the state governors;
(c) Statutory instruments in the nature of delegated legislation (executive legislation) like order, bye-law, rule, regulation or notification; and
(d) Non-legislative sources of law, that is, custom or usage having the force of law.
Further, Article 13 declares that a constitutional amendment is not a law and hence cannot be challenged. [To be specific, after Kesavananda Bharati case Constitutional amendments which do not fall under the ‘Basic Structure’ cannot be Challenged.]
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER-7
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Question 13 of 25
13. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following are INCORRECT?
- The grounds mentioned for the impeachment of Judges in the Constitution are three-Violation of the Constitution or Proved misbehavior or incapacity
- Constitution has not used the word “Impeachment” for the removal of Judges of Supreme Court and High Court.
Correct
Answer: A
Why? [“Removal of Judges” is very frequently in news- Justice C S Karnan episode, Alleged Corruption charges against CJI + UPSC-2007 question on removal of High Court]
Explanation:
Statement 1: A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from his Office by an order of the president. The President can issue the removal order only after an address by Parliament has been presented to him in the same session for such removal. The address must be supported by a special majority of each House of Parliament (ie, a majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting). The grounds of removal are two—proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
Hence Statement 1 is INCORRECT.
Statement 2: REMOVAL OF a Supreme Court or High Court judge is governed by Articles 124 (4) and (5) and 217 (1) (b) and 218 of the Constitution on the ground of proven misbehaviour or incapacity. In these articles, Impeachment term has not been used.
Hence Statement 2 is CORRECT
Interested students can refer to these articles:
Article 124(4) and (5):
(4) A Judge of the Supreme Court shall not be removed from his office except by an order of the President passed after an address by each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than twothirds of the members of that House present and voting has been presented to the President in the same session for such removal on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
(5) Parliament may by law regulate the procedure for the presentation of an address and for the investigation and proof of the misbehaviour or incapacity of a Judge under clause (4).
Article 217(1) (b):
(b) a Judge may be removed from his office by the President in the manner provided in clause ( 4 ) of Article 124 for the removal of a Judge of the Supreme Court;
Article 218
Application of certain provisions relating to Supreme Court to High Courts The provisions of clauses ( 4 ) and ( 5 ) of Article 124 shall apply in relation to a High Court as they apply in relation to the Supreme Court with the substitution of references to the High Court for references to the Supreme Court
Incorrect
Answer: A
Why? [“Removal of Judges” is very frequently in news- Justice C S Karnan episode, Alleged Corruption charges against CJI + UPSC-2007 question on removal of High Court]
Explanation:
Statement 1: A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from his Office by an order of the president. The President can issue the removal order only after an address by Parliament has been presented to him in the same session for such removal. The address must be supported by a special majority of each House of Parliament (ie, a majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting). The grounds of removal are two—proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
Hence Statement 1 is INCORRECT.
Statement 2: REMOVAL OF a Supreme Court or High Court judge is governed by Articles 124 (4) and (5) and 217 (1) (b) and 218 of the Constitution on the ground of proven misbehaviour or incapacity. In these articles, Impeachment term has not been used.
Hence Statement 2 is CORRECT
Interested students can refer to these articles:
Article 124(4) and (5):
(4) A Judge of the Supreme Court shall not be removed from his office except by an order of the President passed after an address by each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than twothirds of the members of that House present and voting has been presented to the President in the same session for such removal on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
(5) Parliament may by law regulate the procedure for the presentation of an address and for the investigation and proof of the misbehaviour or incapacity of a Judge under clause (4).
Article 217(1) (b):
(b) a Judge may be removed from his office by the President in the manner provided in clause ( 4 ) of Article 124 for the removal of a Judge of the Supreme Court;
Article 218
Application of certain provisions relating to Supreme Court to High Courts The provisions of clauses ( 4 ) and ( 5 ) of Article 124 shall apply in relation to a High Court as they apply in relation to the Supreme Court with the substitution of references to the High Court for references to the Supreme Court
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Question 14 of 25
14. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following Statements is/are CORRECT?
- The Constitution has not fixed the tenure of Judge of a Supreme Court but mentioned the retirement age as 62 years.
- SC judge can resign his office by writing to the Chief Justice
Correct
Answer:D
Explanation:
Statement 1: The Constitution has not fixed the tenure of Judge of a Supreme Court. However, Constitution stipulated that he holds office until he attains the age of 65 years and any question regarding his age is to be determined by such authority and in such manner as provided by Parliament.
Hence Statement 1 is INCORRECT
Statement 2: Constitution stipulated that “He can resign his office by writing to the president.”[Not to the Chief Justice]
Hence Statement 2 is INCORRECT
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER-26
Incorrect
Answer:D
Explanation:
Statement 1: The Constitution has not fixed the tenure of Judge of a Supreme Court. However, Constitution stipulated that he holds office until he attains the age of 65 years and any question regarding his age is to be determined by such authority and in such manner as provided by Parliament.
Hence Statement 1 is INCORRECT
Statement 2: Constitution stipulated that “He can resign his office by writing to the president.”[Not to the Chief Justice]
Hence Statement 2 is INCORRECT
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER-26
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Question 15 of 25
15. Question
2 pointsAssertion (A): SC judge doesn’t subscribe “to bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India” in taking his Oath
Reason (R): He takes Oath to uphold the Constitution and the laws.
Correct
Answer: D
Why?-[UPSC-1997 Prelims question on Match the following -Functionaries and Oaths /Affirmations + UPSC-1996/2002 mains – Why does the Constitution of India contain different forms of Oath for the President, the Ministers, the Legislators and the members of the Judiciary? Discuss their significance+ Fundamental Duty related to “Uphold and protect sovereignty, unity and Integrity of India” in UPSC-2015]
Explanation:
In his oath, a judge of the Supreme Court swears:
- to bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India;
- to uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India;
- to duly and faithfully and to the best of his ability, knowledge and
judgement perform the duties of the Office without fear or favour,
affection or ill-will; and
- to uphold the Constitution and the laws.
Hence Assertion is false and Reason is True.
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER-26
Incorrect
Answer: D
Why?-[UPSC-1997 Prelims question on Match the following -Functionaries and Oaths /Affirmations + UPSC-1996/2002 mains – Why does the Constitution of India contain different forms of Oath for the President, the Ministers, the Legislators and the members of the Judiciary? Discuss their significance+ Fundamental Duty related to “Uphold and protect sovereignty, unity and Integrity of India” in UPSC-2015]
Explanation:
In his oath, a judge of the Supreme Court swears:
- to bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India;
- to uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India;
- to duly and faithfully and to the best of his ability, knowledge and
judgement perform the duties of the Office without fear or favour,
affection or ill-will; and
- to uphold the Constitution and the laws.
Hence Assertion is false and Reason is True.
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER-26
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Question 16 of 25
16. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following Articles of Indian Constitution deal with the Contempt of Court?
Correct
Answer: C
Why?-Important Articles
Explanation:
Article 129, of the Constitution of India, states that “The Supreme Court shall be a court or record and shall have all the powers of such a court including the power to punish for contempt of itself”.
The Corresponding Article for High Court is Article 215
Hence the answer is C.
Option D:
A217- Appointment and conditions of the office of a Judge of a High Court; It also deals with the removal
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER-26
Incorrect
Answer: C
Why?-Important Articles
Explanation:
Article 129, of the Constitution of India, states that “The Supreme Court shall be a court or record and shall have all the powers of such a court including the power to punish for contempt of itself”.
The Corresponding Article for High Court is Article 215
Hence the answer is C.
Option D:
A217- Appointment and conditions of the office of a Judge of a High Court; It also deals with the removal
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER-26
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Question 17 of 25
17. Question
2 pointsConsider the following:
- Constitution has declared Delhi as the Seat of Supreme Court.
- Only the Parliament is authorized by the Constitution to appoint other place or places as Seat of Supreme Court.
- The Constitutional cases or references made by the President under Article 143 are decided by a Bench consisting of at least seven judges.
Which of the above is/are CORRECT?
Correct
Answer: B
Statement 1: Factual. It is CORRECT.
Statement 2: Constitution authorises the chief justice of India to appoint other place or places as seat of the Supreme Court. He can take decision in this regard only with the approval of the President. This provision is only optional and not compulsory. This means that no court can give any direction either to the President or to the Chief Justice to appoint any other place as a seat of the Supreme Court.
Hence Statement 2 is INCORRECT.
Statement 3: The Constitutional cases or references made by the President under Article 143 are decided by a Bench consisting of at least five judges. All other cases are usually decided by a bench consisting of not less than three judges.
Hence Statement 3 is INCORRECT.
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER-26
Incorrect
Answer: B
Statement 1: Factual. It is CORRECT.
Statement 2: Constitution authorises the chief justice of India to appoint other place or places as seat of the Supreme Court. He can take decision in this regard only with the approval of the President. This provision is only optional and not compulsory. This means that no court can give any direction either to the President or to the Chief Justice to appoint any other place as a seat of the Supreme Court.
Hence Statement 2 is INCORRECT.
Statement 3: The Constitutional cases or references made by the President under Article 143 are decided by a Bench consisting of at least five judges. All other cases are usually decided by a bench consisting of not less than three judges.
Hence Statement 3 is INCORRECT.
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER-26
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Question 18 of 25
18. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following provisions help to safeguard and ensure the independent and impartial functioning of the Supreme Court.
- Judicial Review
- Security of tenure
- Mode of Appointment
- Power to punish for Contempt
Correct
Answer: B
Why? [UPSC 2012- What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?]
Judicial review: The power of the SC to examine the Constitutionality of the laws,bye-laws, amendments etc. helped in retaining the Independence of Judiciary. The evolution of Basic Structure and The recent strike down of NJAC are the instances which stand as testimony to the relevance of Judicial review for upholding the independence of Judiciary.
Hence it is CORRECT
Mode of Appointment The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President (which means the cabinet) in consultation with the members of the judiciary itself (ie, judges of the Supreme Court and the high courts). This provision curtails the absolute discretion of the executive as well as ensures that the judicial appointments are not based on any political or practical considerations.
Hence it is CORRECT
Security of Tenure The judges of the Supreme Court are provided with the Security of Tenure. They can be removed from office by the President only in the manner and on the grounds mentioned in the Constitution. This means that they do not hold their office during the pleasure of the President, though they are appointed by him. This is obvious from the fact that no judge of the Supreme Court has been removed (or impeached) so far.
Hence it is CORRECT
Power to Punish for its Contempt The Supreme Court can punish any person for its contempt. Thus, its actions and decisions cannot be criticized and opposed by any body. This power is vested in the Supreme Court to maintain its authority, dignity and honour.
Hence it is CORRECT
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER-26
Incorrect
Answer: B
Why? [UPSC 2012- What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?]
Judicial review: The power of the SC to examine the Constitutionality of the laws,bye-laws, amendments etc. helped in retaining the Independence of Judiciary. The evolution of Basic Structure and The recent strike down of NJAC are the instances which stand as testimony to the relevance of Judicial review for upholding the independence of Judiciary.
Hence it is CORRECT
Mode of Appointment The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President (which means the cabinet) in consultation with the members of the judiciary itself (ie, judges of the Supreme Court and the high courts). This provision curtails the absolute discretion of the executive as well as ensures that the judicial appointments are not based on any political or practical considerations.
Hence it is CORRECT
Security of Tenure The judges of the Supreme Court are provided with the Security of Tenure. They can be removed from office by the President only in the manner and on the grounds mentioned in the Constitution. This means that they do not hold their office during the pleasure of the President, though they are appointed by him. This is obvious from the fact that no judge of the Supreme Court has been removed (or impeached) so far.
Hence it is CORRECT
Power to Punish for its Contempt The Supreme Court can punish any person for its contempt. Thus, its actions and decisions cannot be criticized and opposed by any body. This power is vested in the Supreme Court to maintain its authority, dignity and honour.
Hence it is CORRECT
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER-26
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Question 19 of 25
19. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following is/are Correct?
- Constitution has not declared the Chief Justice of India as ‘master of the roster’.
- “Master of roster” refers to the privilege of the Chief Justice to constitute Benches to hear cases.
- A two level judicial discipline model is currently available to punish the Supreme Court and High Court judges under Judges(Protection) Act, 1985.
Correct
Answer: D
Why?- In news
Statement 1: It is “one of the well-settled principles” and a convention that is important for an orderly transaction of business. Constitution has not declared CJI as ‘master of the roster’. Hence it is CORRECT.
Statement 2: It is apt Definition.
Hence it is CORRECT.
Statement 3: Currently, the mechanisms available to take disciplinary action against errant Judges are inadequate. Hence, a two level judicial discipline model is only a suggested measure to admonish, fine or suspend judges in case of unruly behaviour-as it is reported in the case of Justice C S Karnan. Judges Protection Act, 1985 provides immunity for the Judges for their actions as part of their official duties. It does not contain two level discipline model.
Hence Statement 3 is INCORRECT.
Reference:http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/the-hindu-explains-master-of-the-roster/article22437561.ece
Incorrect
Answer: D
Why?- In news
Statement 1: It is “one of the well-settled principles” and a convention that is important for an orderly transaction of business. Constitution has not declared CJI as ‘master of the roster’. Hence it is CORRECT.
Statement 2: It is apt Definition.
Hence it is CORRECT.
Statement 3: Currently, the mechanisms available to take disciplinary action against errant Judges are inadequate. Hence, a two level judicial discipline model is only a suggested measure to admonish, fine or suspend judges in case of unruly behaviour-as it is reported in the case of Justice C S Karnan. Judges Protection Act, 1985 provides immunity for the Judges for their actions as part of their official duties. It does not contain two level discipline model.
Hence Statement 3 is INCORRECT.
Reference:http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/the-hindu-explains-master-of-the-roster/article22437561.ece
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Question 20 of 25
20. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
- A Commercial dispute between the Government of India and one or more States
- A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory
- Matters referred to Finance Commission
- A dispute between two or more States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Answer: B
Why? [Modification of UPSC 2012 question- Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court]
Explanation:
Regarding 4th and 2nd :
The Supreme Court as part of Original Jurisdiction decides the disputes between different units of the Indian Federation. More elaborately, any dispute between:
(a) the Centre and one or more states; or (b) the Centre and any state or states on one side and one or more states on the other; or (c) between two or more states.
If we observe keenly, there is no Union territory in the above mentioned cases.
Hence 4 is CORRECT and 2 is INCORRECT
[If anyone thinks this is too deep, UPSC in 2012 asked question specifically based on this]
Regarding 1st and 3rd :
The Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court does not extend to the following:
(a) A dispute arising out of any pre-Constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanad or other similar instrument.
(b) A dispute arising out of any treaty, agreement, etc., which specifically provides that the said jurisdiction does not extent to such a dispute.
(c) Inter-state water disputes.
(d) Matters referred to the Finance Commission.
(e) Adjustment of certain expenses and pensions between the Centre and the states.
(f) Ordinary dispute of Commercial nature between the Centre and the states.
(g) Recovery of damages by a state against the Centre
Hence 1 and 3 are INCORRECT
Overall -1, 2 and 3 are INCORRECT ; Hence the Answer is B
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER-26
Incorrect
Answer: B
Why? [Modification of UPSC 2012 question- Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court]
Explanation:
Regarding 4th and 2nd :
The Supreme Court as part of Original Jurisdiction decides the disputes between different units of the Indian Federation. More elaborately, any dispute between:
(a) the Centre and one or more states; or (b) the Centre and any state or states on one side and one or more states on the other; or (c) between two or more states.
If we observe keenly, there is no Union territory in the above mentioned cases.
Hence 4 is CORRECT and 2 is INCORRECT
[If anyone thinks this is too deep, UPSC in 2012 asked question specifically based on this]
Regarding 1st and 3rd :
The Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court does not extend to the following:
(a) A dispute arising out of any pre-Constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanad or other similar instrument.
(b) A dispute arising out of any treaty, agreement, etc., which specifically provides that the said jurisdiction does not extent to such a dispute.
(c) Inter-state water disputes.
(d) Matters referred to the Finance Commission.
(e) Adjustment of certain expenses and pensions between the Centre and the states.
(f) Ordinary dispute of Commercial nature between the Centre and the states.
(g) Recovery of damages by a state against the Centre
Hence 1 and 3 are INCORRECT
Overall -1, 2 and 3 are INCORRECT ; Hence the Answer is B
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER-26
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Question 21 of 25
21. Question
2 pointsThe ‘Ponseti method/technique’, recently in the news, is
Correct
Solution: d)
This is relevant only because the Global Clubfoot Conference was recently held in India for the first time.
Clubfoot is one of the most common orthopaedic birth defects. It can cause permanent disability if not treated early. This affects the child’s mobility and confidence. Inevitably, education and schooling suffer – and the child cannot fulfil his or her potential. The irony is clubfoot is curable. Till recently most children who suffered from clubfoot needed to be treated surgically. A relatively recent method – the Ponseti method (developed in USA) – has been developed to treat and correct clubfoot without surgery.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
This is relevant only because the Global Clubfoot Conference was recently held in India for the first time.
Clubfoot is one of the most common orthopaedic birth defects. It can cause permanent disability if not treated early. This affects the child’s mobility and confidence. Inevitably, education and schooling suffer – and the child cannot fulfil his or her potential. The irony is clubfoot is curable. Till recently most children who suffered from clubfoot needed to be treated surgically. A relatively recent method – the Ponseti method (developed in USA) – has been developed to treat and correct clubfoot without surgery.
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Question 22 of 25
22. Question
2 pointsSection 126 of the Representation of People’s Act currently prohibits publication of ads/displaying any election matter during the period of 48 hours before the hour fixed for conclusion of poll in a constituency by means of
1.Television
2.Social Media
3.Radio
4.Print Media
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: c)
The Election Commission of India draws the attention of all Print Media to guidelines issued by the Press Council of India (in 2010) to be followed for observance during elections. Print Media is currently not included in Section 126 of the RPA, 1951.
From August, 2016 (http://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-news-india/election-commission-to-govt-need-permanent-powers-to-curb-political-ads-2960601/): “The poll panel, under Article 324 of the Constitution, had imposed an unprecedented restriction on political advertisements in print, a day ahead of Bihar elections last year after it deemed BJP’s “cow ads” as communal and divisive. The ad, which appeared in four Hindi newspapers on November 4, 2015, had alleged that Bihar Chief Minister Nitish Kumar’s allies had “repeatedly insulted every Indian’s venerable cow” and yet he had remained “silent”…”
“The ECI… requested that print media should also be included in Section 126 of the RP Act. The provision currently prohibits publication of ads by political parties in electronic media — TV, radio and, more recently, social media — 48 hours before voting ends. This proposal was first mooted by the EC on April 13, 2012, and it has been endorsed by the Law Commission, but the government hasn’t acted on it..”
Source/Improvisation: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=173297
Incorrect
Solution: c)
The Election Commission of India draws the attention of all Print Media to guidelines issued by the Press Council of India (in 2010) to be followed for observance during elections. Print Media is currently not included in Section 126 of the RPA, 1951.
From August, 2016 (http://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-news-india/election-commission-to-govt-need-permanent-powers-to-curb-political-ads-2960601/): “The poll panel, under Article 324 of the Constitution, had imposed an unprecedented restriction on political advertisements in print, a day ahead of Bihar elections last year after it deemed BJP’s “cow ads” as communal and divisive. The ad, which appeared in four Hindi newspapers on November 4, 2015, had alleged that Bihar Chief Minister Nitish Kumar’s allies had “repeatedly insulted every Indian’s venerable cow” and yet he had remained “silent”…”
“The ECI… requested that print media should also be included in Section 126 of the RP Act. The provision currently prohibits publication of ads by political parties in electronic media — TV, radio and, more recently, social media — 48 hours before voting ends. This proposal was first mooted by the EC on April 13, 2012, and it has been endorsed by the Law Commission, but the government hasn’t acted on it..”
Source/Improvisation: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=173297
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Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsThe Central Water Commission (CWC) has given its approval to Kaleshwaram Irrigation Project for inter-state clearance for it following the compliance of required aspects. Which of the statements is/are correct about Kaleshwaram Project.
1) It is a project on River Krishna.
2) It is an interstate project between Telangana and Andhra Pradesh.
Select correct answer using codes below:
Correct
Solution: d)
It is a project on River Godavari.
It is an interstate project between Telangana and Maharashtra.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
It is a project on River Godavari.
It is an interstate project between Telangana and Maharashtra.
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Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsBalfour declaration was issued a hundred years ago on November 2, 1917. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Balfour declaration?
1) It marked the end of World War I.
2) It is related to Zionism
Select correct answer using codes below:
Correct
Solution: b)
The Balfour Declaration was a public statement issued by the British government during World War I announcing support for the establishment of a “national home for the Jewish people” in Palestine, then an Ottoman region with a minority Jewish population.
It greatly increased popular support for Zionism, the national movement of the Jewish people that supports the re-establishment of a Jewish homeland.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
The Balfour Declaration was a public statement issued by the British government during World War I announcing support for the establishment of a “national home for the Jewish people” in Palestine, then an Ottoman region with a minority Jewish population.
It greatly increased popular support for Zionism, the national movement of the Jewish people that supports the re-establishment of a Jewish homeland.
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Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsMany Indian companies are looking at raising funds through Initial Coin Offerings (ICO). Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding ICO?
1) It is an issuance of digital tokens that can be converted into crypto currencies and are mostly used to raise funds by start-up firms.
2) SEBI regulates ICO in India
Select correct answer using codes below:
Correct
Solution: a)
An ICO, like an equity initial public offer (IPO), is an issuance of digital tokens that can be converted into crypto currencies and are mostly used to raise funds by start-up firms dealing in block chain technology and virtual currencies like bitcoins and ethereum.
Unlike an IPO, which is governed by SEBI regulations, there is no regulatory body for ICOs in India.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
An ICO, like an equity initial public offer (IPO), is an issuance of digital tokens that can be converted into crypto currencies and are mostly used to raise funds by start-up firms dealing in block chain technology and virtual currencies like bitcoins and ethereum.
Unlike an IPO, which is governed by SEBI regulations, there is no regulatory body for ICOs in India.
Wish you all the best!.