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SOLUTIONS – INSIGHTS REVISION TEST for Preliminary Exam 2018: Test – 19 (Indian Polity )


SOLUTIONS 

INSIGHTS REVISION TEST for Preliminary Exam 2018: Test – 19 (Indian Polity )


1) Consider the following Statements.

  1. All the three levels of Panchayati Raj institutions are elected directly by the people.
  2. If the State government dissolves the Panchayat before the end of its five year term, fresh elections must be held within three months of such dissolution.

Which of the above is/are CORRECT?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c)Both 1 and 2

d) None

Solution: a

Similar Previous Questions: UPSC 2015 -On minimum age and Premature Dissolution; UPSC -2009 Premature dissolution

Explanation:

Statement 1: As per the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, All the members of Panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels shall be elected directly by the people. Hence statement 1 is  CORRECT.

Statement 2: The term of each Panchayat body is five years. If the State government dissolves the Panchayat before the end of its five year term, fresh elections must be held within SIX months of such dissolution. Hence statement 2 is INCORRECT.

Note: The newly elected panchayat remains in office only for remaining term of 5 years.

Source: NCERT-INDIAN CONSTITUTION AT WORK-CHAPTER 8: LOCAL GOVERNMENTS


2) Consider the following Statements regarding 73 rd Constitutional Amendment Act

  1. One third of the positions in all panchayat institutions are reserved for SCs and STs.
  2. Gram Sabhas role and functions shall be defined by the State Legislation.
  3. The State Election Commission, to be constituted by the State government, shall be subservient to the Election Commission of India.

Which of the above is/are CORRECT?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 only

d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: b

Why this question? : Similar previous questions on 73rd Constitutional amendment[UPSC-2011] and the role of Gram Sabha related to PESA Act, 1996 [UPSC-2012]

Explanation:

Statement 1: As per the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, Reservations for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes are also provided for at all the three levels, in proportion to their population. One third of the positions in all panchayat institutions are reserved for Women. Hence statement 1 is INCORRECT.

Statement 2: The amendment also made a provision for the mandatory creation of the Gram Sabha. The Gram Sabha would comprise of all the adult members registered as voters in the Panchayat area. Its role and functions are decided by State legislation. Hence statement 2 is CORRECT.

Statement 3: The State government is required to appoint a State Election Commissioner who would be responsible for conducting elections to the Panchayati Raj institutions. He/She  is an independent officer and is not linked to nor is this officer under the control of the Election Commission of India. Hence statement 3 is INCORRECT.

Source: NCERT-INDIAN CONSTITUTION AT WORK-CHAPTER 8: LOCAL GOVERNMENTS


3) Which of the following Statement(s) is/are CORRECT?

  1. The Constitution of India, being federal in structure, divides legislative, executive, financial and judicial powers between the Centre and the States.
  2. Seventh Schedule defines the territorial limits of the legislative powers vested in the Centre.
  3. The laws of the Parliament are also applicable to the Indian citizens and their property in any part of the World.

 a) 1 and 2 only

 b) 2 and 3 only

 c) 1 and 3 only

 d) 3 only

Solution: d

Why this Question?: Combination of Previous UPSC questions on 7th Schedule[ex: UPSC 2006] and nature of the Constitution, UPSC 2013 question related to Parliament legislation powers.

   Explanation:

 

Statement 1: The  Constitution  of  India,  being  federal  in  structure,  divides  all  powers (legislative,  executive  and  financial)  between  the  Centre  and  the  states. However,  there  is  no  division  of  judicial  power  as  the  Constitution  has established  an  integrated  judicial  system  to  enforce  both  the  Central  laws  as well as state laws. Hence statement 1 is INCORRECT.

Statement 2: Seventh Schedule defines the division of powers between the Centre and States in terms of Subject matters on which they can enact legislation. It does not define territorial limits. Hence statement 2 is INCORRECT.

Statement 3:

The  Constitution  defines  the  territorial  limits  of  the  legislative  powers  vested in the Centre and the states in the following way:

  • The Parliament  can make  laws  for  the  whole  or  any  part  of  the  territory  of India. 
  • A state  legislature  can  make  laws  for  the  whole  or  any  part  of  the  state
  • The Parliament alone can make ‘extra-territorial legislation’. Thus,  the laws  of  the  Parliament  are  also  applicable  to  the  Indian  citizens  and  their property in any part of the world.

Hence Statement 3 is CORRECT.

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5th Edition-M Laxmikanth-Chapter 14.


4)  Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India deals with Jurisdiction of the Union in relation to territories outside India?

a) Article  257

b) Article  261

c) Article 260

d) Article 258

Solution: c

Similar Previous Question: UPSC 2004 on Article 257

Explanation:

Article 257- Control of the Union over states in certain cases. Hence, option A is INCORRECT

Article 261- Public acts, records and judicial proceedings. Hence, option B is INCORRECT

Article 260- Jurisdiction of the Union in relation to territories outside India. Hence, option C is CORRECT

Article 258- Power of the Union to confer powers, etc., on states in certain cases.

Hence, option D is INCORRECT

 

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5th Edition-M Laxmikanth-Appendix-I Articles of the Constitution

 


5).Who among the following is/are empowered by the Indian Constitution to restrict the       territorial extent of Central Legislation?

          a) Governors of Tripura, Meghalaya and Mizoram

          b) President of India

          c) Both A and B

          d) National Commmission for STs

 

Solution: b

Why this question?: Previous UPSC questions related to Legislative Powers of the President and Governor  and UPSC 2013 question related to Parliament legislation powers.

 

Explanation:

The  Governor  of  Assam  may  likewise  direct  that  an  act  of  Parliament does  not  apply  to  a  tribal  area  (autonomours  district)  in  the  state  or  apply with  specified  modifications  and  exceptions. The  President  enjoys  the same  power  with  respect  to  tribal  areas  (autonomous  districts)  in Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. Hence, B is CORRECT.

 

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5th Edition-M Laxmikanth-Chapter 14.


6) The Constitution empowers the Parliament to make laws on any matter enumerated in the       State List under few extraordinary circumstances.

          1.When Rajya Sabha Passes a Resolution

          2.When States make a Request

          3.When President desires so for good governance

          4.During a National Emergency

          5.To implement International Agreements 

          Select them using the Codes below.

  a) 1,2,4 and 5 only

  b) 1,2,3 and 4 only

  c) 1,2,3 and 5 only

  d) 1,3,4 and 5 only

Solution: a

Explanation:

The Constitution empowers the Parliament to make laws on any matter enumerated in the State List under five extraordinary circumstances.

They are:

1.When Rajya Sabha Passes a Resolution

2.When States make a Request

3.During a National Emergency

4.To implement International Agreements 

5.During President’s Rule

 

The  President  can  make  regulations  for  the  peace,  progress  and  good government  of  the  four  Union  Territories—the  Andaman  and  Nicobar Islands,  Lakshadweep,  Dadra  and  Nagar  Haveli  and  Daman  and  Diu.  A regulation so made has the same force and effect as an act of Parliament. It may  also  repeal  or  amend  any  act  of  Parliament  in  relation  to  these  union territories. Hence, statement 3 is INCORRECT

 

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5th Edition-M Laxmikanth-Chapter 14.


7) Consider the following Statements.

          1.In general, the executive power with respect to matters in the Concurrent list rests with the State.

          2.In case of Essential Commodities Act, though it is a law pertaining to Concurrent list, the executive power is vested in the Centre.

          Which of the above statements is/are Correct?

     a) 1 only

     b) 2 only

     c) Both

     d) None

Solution: c

Why this question?: Improvisation from UPSC 2004 question related to executive powers of Centre and State [on Article 257]

 

Explanation:

Statement 1: In  respect  of  matters  on  which  both  the  Parliament  and  the  state legislatures  have  power  of  legislation  (i.e.,  the  subjects  enumerated  in  the Concurrent  List),  the  executive  power  rests  with  the  states  except  when  a Constitutional  provision  or  a  parliamentary  law  specifically  confers  it  on  the Centre.  Therefore,  a  law  on  a  concurrent  subject,  though  enacted  by  the Parliament,  is  to  be  executed  by  the  states  except  when  the  Constitution  or the Parliament has directed otherwise. Hence, statement 1 is CORRECT

 

Statement 2: The  Essential  Commodities  Act,  made  by  the Parliament  on  a  concurrent  subject,  the  executive  power  is  vested  in  the Centre. Hence, statement 2 is CORRECT

 

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5th Edition-M Laxmikanth-Chapter 14. [footnote-5]


8) Consider the following Statements regarding Administrative relations between the Centre and the States.

          1.The President cannot entrust the executive functions of the Centre to a State without the Consent of that state.

          2.The only possible way the State can entrust the executive functions of State to the Centre is through a legislation.

          3.A resolution supported by the two third members of the Rajya Sabha present and voting  alone can entrust the executive functions of the Centre to a State without the Consent of that state

          which of the above statements is/are Correct?

   a) 1 and 3 only

   b) 2 and 3 only

   c) 2 only

   d)1 only

Solution: d

Why this question?: Improvisation from UPSC 2004 question related to executive powers of Centre and State [on Article 257]

Explanation:

Statement 1:  The  President  may,  with  the  consent  of  the  state  government, entrust  to  that  government  any  of  the  executive  functions  of  the  Centre. The  Constitution  also  makes  a  provision  for  the  entrustment  of  the executive  functions  of  the  Centre  to  a  state  without  the  consent  of  that  state. But,  in  this  case,  the  delegation  is  by  the  Parliament  and  not  by  the  president. Hence statement 1 is CORRECT.

 

Statement 2:  It  is  clear  that  the  mutual  delegation  of  functions  between the  Centre  and  the  state  can  take  place  either  under  an  agreement  or  by  a legislationWhile  the  Centre  can  use  both  the  methods,  a  state  can  use  only the first method. Hence statement 2 is INCORRECT.

 

Statement 3:  There is no need of resolution supported by two-third members of Rajya Sabha. As disussed in the above statement, a simple legislation is sufficient. Hence statement 3 is INCORRECT.

 

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5th Edition-M Laxmikanth-Chapter 14.


9)  Which of the following Constitutional Authorities take a Oath – “I will to the best of my ability preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law”?

          1.Judges of Supreme Court and High Court and the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India

          2.Speaker and Chairman of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

          3.President of India and Governor of the State

          4.Prime Minister and Chief Minister of the State/UT with legislature

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 only

c) 4 only

d) 1 only

Solution: b

Why this question? When we compare and study , we can remember better. We try to make such questions as to bring clarity in concepts. This is one such question. Also, UPSC has asked few questions in the lines of who administers Oath?. This question can be seen as an improvisation.

Explanation:

Oath by the President:

I,  A.B., do  swear in the name of God/solemnly affirm    that  I  will  faithfully  execute  the  office  of President (or discharge  the  functions  of  the  President)  of  India  and  will  to  the

best  of  my  ability  preserve,  protect  and  defend  the  Constitution  and  the  law

and  that  I  will  devote  myself  to  the  service  and  well-being  of  the  people  of

India”.

Oath by the Governor:

I,  A.B., do  swear in the name of God/solemnly affirm that  I  will  faithfully  execute  the  office  of Governor  (or  discharge  the  functions  of  the  Governor)  of  …  (name  of  the

State)  and  will  to  the  best  of  my  ability  preserve,  protect  and  defend  the

Constitution and the law and that I will devote myself to the service and wellbeing of the people of … (name of the State).”

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5th Edition-M Laxmikanth- Appendix-IV Oath by the Constitutional and Other Authorities


10) Which of the following Articles Contain the definitions of various terms used in different provisions of the Constitution?

       a) Article 366

       b) Article 369

       c) Article 364

       d) Article 367

Solution: a

Why?: We know that it is necessary to by-heart important articles.

Explanation: Please refer to Appendix-V [Definitions under the Constitution] of INDIAN POLITY-5th Edition-M Laxmikanth. Please have a look at the terms for which the definitions have  been provided.  Some of the important terms for which definitions have been provided under Article 366 are Anglo-Indian, Proclamation of Emergency, Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes,Schedule, Union Territory etc.


11.Indian President is not vested with which of the following Veto power?

       a) Absolute veto

       b) Qualified veto

       c) Suspensive veto

       d) Pocket veto

Solution: b

Why this question?: Previous UPSC questions on President’s Veto Power.

Explanation: The veto power enjoyed by the executive in modern states can be classified

into the following four types:

  1. Absolute veto,  that  is,  withholding  of  assent  to  the  bill  passed  by  the

legislature.

In  1954,  President  Dr  Rajendra  Prasad  withheld  his  assent  to  the  PEPSU Appropriation  Bill.  The  bill  was  passed  by  the  Parliament  when  the President’s  Rule  was  in  operation  in  the  state  of  PEPSU.  But,  when  the  bill was  presented  to  the  President  for  his  assent,  the  President’s  Rule  was revoked.

  1. Suspensive veto,  which  can  be  over  ridden  by  the  legislature  with  an ordinary majority.

The Indian President does not possess this veto in the case of money  bills.

  1. Pocket veto, that is, taking no action on the bill passed by the legislature. In 1986, President  Zail  Singh  exercised  the  pocket  veto  with  respect  to  the Indian  Post  Office  (Amendment)  Bill.  The  bill,  passed  by  the  Rajiv  Gandhi Government,  imposed  restrictions  on  the  freedom  of  press  and  hence,  was widely  criticised.  After  three  years,  in  1989,  the  next  President  R Venkataraman  sent  the  bill  back  for  reconsideration,  but  the  new  National

Front Government decided to drop the bill.

  1. Qualified veto, which  can  be  overridden  by  the  legislature  with  a  higher

majority.

 

There  is  no  qualified  veto  in  the  case of  Indian  President;  it  is  possessed  by  the  American  President.

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5th Edition-M Laxmikanth-Chapter 17


12) Which of the following statements is/are INCORRECT?

  1. Laws which are retrospective in nature can be made through Ordinance route.
  2. No demand for a grant can be made except on President’s recommendation.
  3. The President can resign from his office by addressing his resignation to the Chief Justice of India.

  a) 1 and 2 only

  b) 2 only

  c) 3 only

  d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: c

Why ?: Combination of UPSC previous questions on President’s financial powers and legislative powers [Ex: UPSC 2003-On Ordinance]

Explanation:

Statement 1: An ordinance like any other legislation, can be retrospective, that is, it may

come  into  force  from  a  back  date.  It  may  modify  or  repeal  any  act  of Parliament  or  another  ordinance.  It  can  alter  or  amend  a  tax  law  also. However, it cannot be issued to amend the Constitution. Hence, i statement1 is CORRECT.

Statement 2:  The financial powers and functions of the President are:

(a)  Money  bills  can  be  introduced  in  the  Parliament  only  with  his  prior

recommendation.

(b)  He  causes  to  be  laid  before  the  Parliament  the  annual  financial  statement

(ie, the Union Budget).

(c) No demand for a grant can be made except on his recommendation.

(d)  He  can  make  advances  out  of  the  contingency  fund  of  India  to  meet  any

unforeseen expenditure.

(e)  He  constitutes  a  finance  commission  after  every  five  years  to  recommend

the distribution of revenues between the Centre and the states.

Hence Statement 2 is CORRECT.

Statement 3: The  President  holds  office  for  a  term  of  five  years  from  the  date  on  which  he enters  upon  his  office.  However,  he  can  resign  from  his  office  at  any  time  by

addressing the resignation letter to the Vice-President. Hence, statement 3 is INCORRECT.

 

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5th Edition-M Laxmikanth-Chapter 17

 


13) Consider the following statements:

  1. All the Zonal Councils including North -Eastern Council are Statutory bodies which are created through States Reorganisation Act of 1956.
  2. Chairman and Vice Chairman of Zonal Councils are Home Minister and Minister of State, Home Affairs  of Central government respectively
  3. The Zonal Council for each zone shall have one person nominated by the Niti Ayog as adviser to assist the Council.

          Which of the above are CORRECT?

      a) 3 only

      b) 1 and 2 only

      c) 1 and 3 only

      d) All

Solution: a

Why this question?: Improvisation from many previous UPSC questions on Zonal Councils. [ex: UPSC-2013]

Explanation:

Statement 1: The Zonal Councils are the statutory bodies. They are established by an Act of the Parliament, that is, States Reorganisation Act of  1956.  The  act  divided  the  country  into  five  zones  (Northern,  Central, Eastern, Western and Southern) and provided a zonal council for each zone. In  addition  to  the  above  Zonal  Councils,  a North-Eastern  Council  was  created  by  a  separate  Act  of  Parliament—the North-Eastern  Council  Act  of  1971. Its  members  include  Assam,  Manipur, Mizoram,  Arunchal  Pradesh,  Nagaland,  Meghalaya,  Tripura  and  Sikkim.

Hence Statement 1 is INCORRECT

Statement 2: The Home Minister is the Chairman of all Zonal Councils except for the North Eastern Council. The Chief ministers of States of the concerned council acts as vice-chairman by rotation, holding office for a period of one year at a time. Currently, Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER), MoS PMO, Personnel, Public Grievances, Pensions, Atomic Energy and Space, Dr Jitendra Singh, acts as Chairman of the North Eastern Council (NEC).

Hence Statement 2 is INCORRECT

Statement 3: The Zonal Council for each zone shall have the following persons as Advisers to assist the Council in the performance of its duties, namely :

(a) one person nominated by the Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog);

(b) the Chief Secretary to the Government of each of the States included in the Zone; and

(c) the Development Commissioner or any other officer nominated by the Government of each of the States included in the Zone.

Hence Statement 3 is CORRECT

 

Sources:

INDIAN POLITY-5th Edition-M Laxmikanth-Chapter 15

http://interstatecouncil.nic.in/structure/

 


14) Assertion(A): When a State is experiencing internal disturbances not amounting to internal subversion,it is improper to  impose Presidential Rule.

      Reason (R): Internal disturbances which do not amount to internal subversion reflect the case of Constitutional failure on part of State government.

       a) Both A and R are individually true and  R is the correct explanation of A.

       b) Both A and R are individually true but  R is not the correct explanation of A.

       c) A is true but R is false

       d) A is false but R is true

Solution: c

Why?

Explanation:

Assertion:

Based  on  the  report  of  the  Sarkaria  Commission  on  Centre–state  Relations (1988),  the  Supreme  Court  in  Bommai  case  (1994)  enlisted  the  situations where the exercise of power under Article 356 could be improper:

“Internal  disturbances  not  amounting  to  internal  subversion  or  physical breakdown” is one of such situations. Hence Assertion is True

Reason:

Internal disturbances which do not amount to internal subversion reflects the case of administrative failure but not Constitutional failure on part of State government. That is why Judiciary had opined that it would be improper to impose Presidential Rule. Had it been Constitutional failure, under Article 356 Supreme Court would have upheld the imposition of Presidential rule as proper.

Hence Reason is False

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5th Edition-M Laxmikanth-Chapter 16

 

15) Consider the following Statements:

  1. In general, a law made by the Parliament or President or any other specified authority can continue to be operative even after the President’s Rule.
  2. The maximum period prescribed for the President’s Rule in a State is two years. Thereafter, it must come to an end.
  3. President’s Rule automatically restricts the powers of the High court of the Concerned State.

          Which of the above are CORRECT?

       a) 2 only

       b) 2 and 3 only

       c) 1 and 3 only

       d) 1 only

Solution: d

Why?: President’s rule is an important topic-especially in the recent instances of Arunchal Pradesh and Uttarakhand episodes in 2016 . Though the direct questions asked in UPSC prelims are rare in this topic, clarity in this topic will be handy to eliminate options for other questions related to Centre-State relations.

Explanation:

Statement 1: A law made by  the Parliament or president or any other  specified authority

continues  to  be  operative  even  after  the  President’s  Rule.  This means  that  the

period  for  which  such  a  law  remains  in  force  is  not  co-terminous  with  the

duration of  the  proclamation.  Hence statement 1 is CORRECT.

Statement 2: There is a maximum period prescribed for President’s Rule operation, that is, three years. Thereafter, it must come to an end and the normal constitutional machinery must be restored in the state. Hence statement 2 is INCORRECT.

Statement 3: It  should  be  noted  here  that  the  President  cannot  assume  to  himself  the

powers  vested  in  the  concerned  state  high  court  or  suspend  the  provisions  of the  Constitution  relating  to  it.  In  other  words,  the  constitutional  position, status,  powers  and  functions  of  the  concerned  state  high  court  remain  same even during the President’s Rule. Hence statement 3 is INCORRECT.

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5th Edition-M Laxmikanth-Chapter 16


16) Consider the following Statements about different kinds of Emergency provisions in Indian Constitution:

      1.”proclamation of emergency” is only mentioned but not explicitly defined in the Constitution.

  1. A proclamation declaring financial emergency has to be approved by both the houses of the Parliament within two months from the date of issue.
  2. A resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency can be passed by either House of Parliament only by a simple majority.

          Which of the above are CORRECT?

      a) All

      b) 3 only

      c) 2 and 3 only

      d) 1 only

Solution: c

Why this question? : As we’ve already mentioned it is important to know the terms which are defined and not defined , not explicitly mentioned + UPSC 2007 question related to financial emergency+ UPSC 2006 question on powers of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha related to Emergency

Explanation:

Statement 1: Article  366  contains  the  definitions  of  various  terms  used  in  different

provisions of the constitution, including Proclamation  of  Emergency. 

“Proclamation of Emergency” means a  Proclamation  issued  under  clause (1) of article 352.

Hence statement 1 is INCORRECT.

Statement 2: A  proclamation  declaring  financial  emergency  must  be  approved  by  both  the

Houses  of  Parliament  within  two months  from  the  date  of  its  issue. However, if  the  proclamation  of  Financial  Emergency  is  issued  at  a  time  when  the  Lok Sabha  has  been  dissolved  or  the  dissolution  of  the  Lok  Sabha  takes  place during  the  period  of  two  months  without  approving  the  proclamation,  then the proclamation survives until 30 days from the first sitting of the Lok Sabha after  its  reconstitution,  provided  the  Rajya  Sabha  has  in  the  meantime approved it. Hence statement 2 is CORRECT.

Statement 3: A  resolution  approving  the  proclamation  of  financial  emergency  can  be

passed  by  either  House  of  Parliament  only  by  a  simple  majority,  that  is,  a

majority of the members of that house present and voting. Hence statement 3 is CORRECT.

 

Sources:

INDIAN POLITY-5th Edition-M Laxmikanth-Chapter 16 and Appendix-V [Definitions under the Constitution]

 


17) Article 365 lends legitimacy for the President’s rule in a State under which of the following Circumstances?

a) State Governor’s report providing the evidence of administrative failure in State

b) Chief Secretary’s report providing the evidence of Constitutional failure in State

c) President, on his own, taking cognizance of administrative failure in State.

d) When State fails to Comply with or to give effect to any direction from the Centre.

Solution: d

Why?: We know that it is necessary to by-heart important articles.

Explanation:

Option A: As per the SC verdict on S.R. Bommai case, administrative failure is not a valid ground for the imposition of President’s Rule. Hence it is INCORRECT

Option B: This is absurd as the Constitution does not empower the Chief Secretary to do so on his own. Hence it is INCORRECT

Option C: As per the SC verdict on S.R. Bommai case, administrative failure is not a valid ground for the imposition of President’s Rule. Hence it is INCORRECT

Option D: The  President’s  Rule  can  be  proclaimed  under  Article  356  on  two  grounds

—one mentioned in Article 356 itself and another in Article 365:

Article  365  says  that  whenever  a  state  fails  to  comply  with  or  to  give effect  to  any  direction  from  the  Centre,  it  will  be  lawful  for  the  president to  hold  that  a  situation  has  arisen  in  which  the  government  of  the  state cannot  be  carried  on  in  accordance  with  the  provisions  of  the Constitution. Hence it is CORRECT

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5th Edition-M Laxmikanth-Chapter 16


18) Which of the following is true with respect to Article 358 of Indian Constitution ?

a) The six fundamental rights under Article 19 are suspended only when the National Emergency is declared on the grounds of war or armed rebellion.

b)    When a proclamation of national emergency is made, the six fundamental rights under Article 19 are automatically suspended.

c) When the National Emergency ceases to operate,President has to issue an Order for restoring the suspended fundamental rights under Article 19

d)   Remedy for anything done during the Emergency lies in case of Article 358 , unlike in case of Article 359 where there will not be any remedy

Solution: b

Why?: Improvisation from UPSC previous questions related to Emergency.

Explanation:

Option A: The  44th  Amendment  Act  of  1978  restricted  the  scope  of  Article  358  in

two  ways.  Firstly,  the  six  Fundamental  Rights  under  Article  19  can  be suspended  only  when  the  National  Emergency  is  declared  on  the  ground  of war  or  external  aggression  and  not  on  the  ground  of  armed  rebellion. Secondly,  only  those  laws  which  are  related  with  the  Emergency  are protected  from  being  challenged  and  not  other  laws.  Also,  the  executive action taken only under such a law is protected.  Hence Option A is INCORRECT.

Option C: When the  National  Emergency  ceases  to  operate,  Article  19  automatically  revives and  comes  into  force.  Any  law  made  during  Emergency,  to  the  extent  of

inconsistency with Article 19, ceases to have effect. Hence option B is INCORRECT.

Option D: When the  National  Emergency  ceases  to  operate,  Article  19  automatically  revives and  comes  into  force.  Any  law  made  during  Emergency,  to  the  extent  of

inconsistency with Article 19, ceases to have effect. However, no remedy lies for  anything  done  during  the  Emergency  even  after  the  Emergency  expires. This  means  that  the  legislative  and  executive  actions  taken  during  the emergency cannot be challenged even after the Emergency ceases to operate. Hence option C is INCORRECT.

Option B: According  to  Article 358,  when  a  proclamation  of  national  emergency  is  made,  the  six Fundamental  Rights  under  Article  19  are  automatically  suspended.  No separate order for their suspension is required. Hence option D is CORRECT.

 

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5th Edition-M Laxmikanth-Chapter 16


19) Which of the following is true with respect to distinction between Article 358 and Article 359 of Indian Constitution?

a) Article 358 Operates only in the case of internal Emergency while Article 359 operates in case of both internal and external emergency

b) Article 358 suspends fundamental rights under Article 19 for the entire duration of emergency while Article 359 suspends the enforcement of fundamental rights as per the period specified by the President

c) Article 358 suspends Article 19 while Article 359 empowers the suspension of all the remaining fundamental rights

d) Article 358 is applicable only in the case of armed rebellion while Article 359 is applicable in the case of both war and armed rebellion

Solution: b

Why?: Improvisation from UPSC previous questions related to Emergency + Comparative study to gain clarity on concepts.

 

Explanation:

Option A: Article 358 operates only in case of External Emergency (that is, when the emergency  is  declared  on  the  grounds  of  war  or  external  aggression)  and not  in  the  case  of  Internal  Emergency  (ie,  when  the  Emergency  is declared  on  the  ground  of  armed  rebellion). Hence option A is INCORRECT.

Option C: Article  358  suspends  Article  19  completely  while  Article  359  does  not

empower the suspension of the enforcement of Articles 20 and 21. Hence option C is INCORRECT.

Option D: Article 358 operates only in case of External Emergency -that is, when the emergency  is  declared  on  the  grounds  of  war  or  external  aggression- not armed rebellion[Internal Emergency]. Hence option D is INCORRECT.

Option B: Article  358  suspends  Fundamental  Rights  under  Article  19  for  the  entire

duration  of  Emergency  while  Article  359  suspends  the  enforcement  of Fundamental  Rights  for  a  period  specified  by  the  president  which  may either be the entire duration of Emergency or a shorter period. Hence Ooption B is CORRECT.

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5th Edition-M Laxmikanth-Chapter 16


20) Which of the following is CORRECT with respect to Inter State Council and its Standing Committee?

a) Home minister of the Central government is the Chairman of Inter State Council.

b) Chief Minister of Rajasthan is the present Chairman of Inter State Council Standing Committee

c) Standing Committee will process all matters pertaining to Centre-State Relations before they are taken up for Consideration of the Inter-State Council

d) None of the above

Solution: c

Why this question? : Similar previous questions on different institutions dealing with Centre-State and Inter-State relations such as National Development Council and Zonal Councils.

Example: UPSC 2013 question on National Development Council membership.

Explanation:

Option A:

The Inter State Council consists of

          Prime Minister – Chairman

          Chief Ministers of all States – Members

          Chief Ministers of Union Territories having a Legislative Assembly and Administrators of UTs not having a Legislative Assembly – Members

          Six Ministers of Cabinet rank in the Union Council of Ministers to be nominated by the Prime Minister – Members

Hence option A is INCORRECT

 

Option B:

In the second meeting of the Inter-State Council held on 15.10.1996, the Council decided to set up a Standing Committee for continuous consultation and processing of matters for consideration of the Council. Accordingly, a Standing Committee was set up under the Chairmanship of the Home Minister.

The Standing Committee was last reconstituted vide Gazette notification dated 27th October, 2017.

Hence option B  is INCORRECT.

 

Option C:

The Standing Committee will process all matters pertaining to Centre-State Relations before they are taken up for Consideration of the Inter-State Council. Hence Option C is CORRECT.

Reference:

http://interstatecouncil.nic.in/isc-composition-2/

http://interstatecouncil.nic.in/isc-composition/


21) With reference to the Head On Generation (HOG) system in the Indian Railways, consider the following statements:

 

  1. In the HOG system,  electrical loads of passenger coaches is fed from the power cars placed at either ends of the rake
  2. HoG system does not create noise pollution

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 Only

b)2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Solution: b)

 

http://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/10/28/insights-daily-current-affairs-28-october-2017/

First statement refers to EOG – End on Generation which is currently in use in many trains.

HOG is newly introduced system and draws power from the Grid (overhead power lines)

Electric cars which provide power in EOG system are run by diesel, hence make noises. In HOG there is no such noise.

https://www.livemint.com/Politics/f6qhFGEyU3CvVjmCT8anEJ/Railways-introduces-HoG-system-to-save-power.html

 


 

22) With reference to Hambantota, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a sea port and a major city in the northern part of the Sri Lanka
  2. India has agreed to build 1,200 houses for the Tamil refugees in the city
  3. Tamilians form the majority community in Hambantota

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) 1 and 3 Only

d) None of them

 

Solution: d)

 

http://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/10/27/insights-daily-current-affairs-27-october-2017/

 

Hambantota is the main town in Hambantota District, Southern Province, Sri Lanka. This underdeveloped area was hit hard by the 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami and is undergoing a number of major development projects including the construction of a new sea port and international airport finished in 2013. These projects and others such as Hambantota Cricket Stadium are said to form part of the government’s plan to transform Hambantota into the second major urban hub of Sri Lanka, away from Colombo.

 

India has agreed to construct homes as an effort towards rebuilding this city which was affected by 2004 Tsunami.

 

Sinhala are the majority here.


 

23) The BharatMala Pariyojana is mainly a/an

a) Employment generation programme

b) Infrastructure development programme

c) Creation of Transportation network programme

d) Boosting of private investment programme

 

Solution: c)

 

http://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/10/26/insights-daily-current-affairs-26-october-2017/

 

 

Although other options are also correct, the Bharatmala project is mainly about building huge transportation network to move people and goods.

 

The development of any nation depends on the transportation networks and the ways in which they are being maintained. The same holds true for the development of a huge and populous nation like India. For connecting the areas and maintaining smooth flow of traffic, the construction of new and developed roads are a must. The same will be achieved with the implementation of the Bharatmala project. Under the scheme, a host of new roads will be laid down in the nation.

Bharatmala Pariyojana is a new umbrella program for the highways sector that focuses on optimizing efficiency of freight and passenger movement across the country by bridging critical infrastructure gaps through effective interventions like development of Economic Corridors, Inter Corridors and Feeder Routes, National Corridor Efficiency Improvement, Border and International connectivity roads, Coastal and Port connectivity roads and Green-field expressways.


 

24) To define what constitutes Integrity of Public Organizations and to identify the different factors of Integrity and their inter-linkages, an Integrity Index is being created by

a) The NITI Aayog

b) The Supreme Court of india

c) The CAG

d) The CVC

 

Solution: d)

 

http://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/10/25/insights-daily-current-affairs-25-october-2017/

 

In line with the broader strategy and emphasis on preventive vigilance, the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) believes that the next level of systemic change can be through the tool of Integrity Index.

The main objectives of Integrity Index:

  • Define what constitutes Integrity of Public Organizations.
  • Identify the different factors of Integrity and their inter-linkages.
  • Create an objective and reliable tool that can measure the performance of organizations along these above factors.
  • Validate the findings over a period of time to improve upon the robustness of the tool that measures Integrity.
  • Create an internal and external ecosystem that promotes working with Integrity where public organizations lead the way.

25) With reference to the Rashtriya Rail Sanraksha Rosh (RRSK), consider the following statements:

 

  1. It  is a dedicated fund for critical safety-related works in railways
  2. It is solely funded by the profits of the Indian railways

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Solution: a)

 

http://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/10/24/insights-daily-current-affairs-24-october-2017/

 

 

Rashtriya Rail Sanraksha Kosh (RRSK)

  • Rashtriya Rail Sanraksha Rosh (RRSK) is a dedicated fund for critical safety-related works.
  • In Budget 2017-18, Ministry had announced the setting up a special safety fund with a corpus of more than Rs. 1 lakh crore over a period of five years. Finance Ministry would contribute Rs. 15,000 crore annually towards the fund, the Ministry of Railways would fund the balance Rs. 5,000 crore every year.
  • Finance Ministry advised the Ministry of Railways to prioritise deploying RRSK funds on areas that reduce chances of human error and ensure training of safety staff.