SOLUTIONS – INSIGHTS REVISION TEST for Preliminary Exam 2018: Test – 16


SOLUTIONS 

INSIGHTS REVISION TEST for Preliminary Exam 2018: Test – 16


 

 

  1. Which of the statements is/are correct about lichens and mosses?
    1. Lichen is a composite organism.
    2. Mosses lack the stems and leaves.
    3. Both lichens and mosses grow on trees and rocks.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

(a)  1 and 2 only

(b)   2 and 3 only

(c)   1 and 3 only

(d)   1, 2, and 3

Solution: c

Answer Justification:

Mosses and lichens are both simple organisms seen growing on trees and rocks. (Hence Statement 3 is correct)

Mosses are defined as simple plants with the most basic of root structures, leaves, and stems. (Hence Statement 2 is incorrect)

Lichens are a very different type of creature, called a composite organism. Not just a plant, lichens are actually a single entity created from a joining of algae and fungus. (Hence Statement 1 is correct)

Mosses are one of the most primitive types of plants, and their simple structures have remained largely unchanged over the course of millions of years. Thought to have evolved from green algae, mosses are characterized by their simple, basic root structures, stems and leaves. There are around 14,500 different types of mosses, and because of their simple structure and low nutrient requirements, they will often be found thriving in places that other plants can’t grow.

Lichens can very easily be mistaken for mosses, but lack the stems and leaves of the moss. (Some lichens have even been given confusing names, such as reindeer moss.) Made up of a symbiotic combination of algae and fungi, lichen can be divided into four main groups based on their appearance.

Source:

http://knowledgenuts.com/2014/01/13/the-difference-between-moss-and-lichen/


  1. Which of the following statements is/are correct about black carbon?
    1. It is the result of incomplete combustion.
    2. It reduces the albedo when deposited on snow and ice.
    3. Life span of it in the atmosphere is more than CO2.

 

Select the correct answer using the code below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: a

Answer Justification:

Black carbon (BC) is the result of incomplete combustion of fossil fuels, biofuel, and biomass. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

 

It consists of elemental carbon in several forms.

 

Black carbon warms the atmosphere due to its absorption and by reducing albedo when deposited on snow and ice. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

 

Life time of black carbon in the atmosphere is only a few days to weeks compared to CO2, which has an atmospheric lifetime of more than 100 years. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect)

 

Source:

 

http://www.moef.nic.in/downloads/public-information/Black%20Carbon%20Research%20Initiative.pdf


 

  1. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Minamata Convention on Mercury?
    1. India is a signatory to the convention.
    2. It has the objective to protect human health and environment from the anthropogenic emissions and releases of mercury and mercury compounds.
    3. The first meeting of Conference of Parties took place in 2017.

 

 Select the correct answer using the code below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: d

Answer Justification:

 

The Union Cabinet has approved the proposal for ratification of Minamata Convention on Mercury and depositing the instrument of ratification enabling India to become a Party of the Convention.

The approval entails Ratification of the Minamata Convention on Mercury along with flexibility for continued use of mercury-based products and processes involving mercury compound up to 2025. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

 

The Minamata Convention on Mercury will be implemented in the context of sustainable development with the objective to protect human health and environment from the anthropogenic emissions and releases of mercury and mercury compounds. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

 

The work to prepare the Minamata Convention on Mercury was undertaken by an intergovernmental negotiating committee supported by the Chemicals Branch of the UNEP.

The first meeting of the Conference of the Parties to the Minamata Convention on Mercury (COP1) took place from 24 to 29 September 2017 at the International Conference Centre in Geneva, Switzerland. (Hence, statement 3 is correct)

 

Source:

http://www.mercuryconvention.org/

http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=176356


  1. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Hoolock Gibbons?
    1. These are the only apes found in India.
    2. Eastern Hoolock Gibbon is listed as ‘Endangered’ whereas Western Hoolock Gibbon is in vulnerable list of IUCN Red list.
    3. Populations of both Western and Eastern Hoolock Gibbon is declining.

 

Select the correct answer using the code below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: c

Answer Justification:

The forests of north-east India are well known for the rich biodiversity they support, both faunal and floral. These forests also support the highest diversity of primates in India, including the only apes found in the country, the western hoolock gibbon (Hoolock hoolock) and the eastern hoolock gibbon (Hoolock leuconedys). (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

 

Often confused as one species, both the gibbons inhabit different ranges in India.

 

The western hoolock gibbon has a much wider range, as it is found in all the states of the north-east, restricted between the south of the Brahmaputra river and east of the Dibang river. Outside India, it is found in eastern Bangladesh and north-west Myanmar.

 

The eastern hoolock gibbon inhabits specific pockets of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam in India, and southern China and north-east Myanmar.

 

Of the two, the western hoolock is listed as Endangered in the IUCN Redlist, while the eastern hoolock is listed as Vulnerable. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect)

 

Both species’ populations have been declining due to habitat destruction of various forms and hunting for meat. (Hence, statement 3 is correct)

 

Source:

https://www.wwfindia.org/about_wwf/priority_species/lesser_known_species/hoolock_gibbons_/


  1. ‘Human-Wildlife Conflict Mitigation in India’ Project is being implemented in which three of the following states?
    1. Assam
    2. West Bengal
    3. Uttarakhand
    4. Karnataka
    5. Tamilnadu

 

Select the correct answer using the code below:

a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) 2, 3 and 4 only

c) 1, 2 and 4 only

d) 2, 3 and 5 only

Solution: b

Answer Justification:

A new Indo-German Technical Cooperation project on ‘Human-Wildlife Conflict Mitigation in India’ was conceptualized on 5th February, 2018 at New Delhi.

 

The project is being commissioned by Federal Ministry for Economic Cooperation and Development (BMZ) and is being implemented by MoEF&CC, State Forest Departments of Karnataka, Uttarakhand, West Bengal and Deutsche Gesellschaft fur Internationale Zusammenarbeit (GIZ) GmbH.

 

The Project aims at providing technical support at the National level and in selected partner states of Karnataka, West Bengal and Uttarakhand for effective implementation of Human Wildlife Conflict mitigation measures.

(Hence only 2, 3 and 4 are correct)

 

Source:

http://envfor.nic.in/sites/default/files/march2018.PDF


  1. Which of the following statements is/are correct about BIOFIN?
    1. It includes private and public financial resources used to conserve biodiversity.
    2. It invests in commercial activities that produce positive biodiversity outcomes.
    3. It is being implemented by United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).

 

Select the correct answer using the code below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: a

Answer Justification:

Biodiversity Finance (BIOFIN) is the practice of raising and managing capital and using financial incentives to support sustainable biodiversity management. It includes private and public financial resources used to conserve biodiversity, investments in commercial activities that produce positive biodiversity outcomes and the value of the transactions in biodiversity-related markets such as habitat banking. (Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct)

 

The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) is implementing a global multi country project on Biodiversity Finance Initiative (BIOFIN). (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.)

 

BIOFIN is a country-wide programme, it is being piloted in two states – Maharashtra and Uttarakhand through the two State Biodiversity Boards. The project in the earlier stage has been supported by technical assistance from the National Institute for Public Finance and Policy and Wildlife Institute of India.  UNDP India manages the BIOFIN programme. The programme is guided by a Technical Advisory Group. BIOFIN in India is a country-driven process and builds on the activities undertaken for assessing funding for Biodiversity as part of preparing NBAP Addendum 2014.

 

Source:

http://www.biodiversityfinance.net/

http://envfor.nic.in/sites/default/files/press-releases/Press%20Release_BIOFIN.pdf


  1. Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to The Draft National Forest Policy?
    1. It proposes the levy of green tax.
    2. It recommends to abolish the contracts between forest-dependent industries and farmers to fix price and quantity.
    3. It indicates to use CAMPA funds to be used for purchasing wildlife corridors from people.

 

Select the correct answer using the code below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: c

Answer Justification:

The draft National Forest Policy (NFP) proposes the levy of a green tax for facilitating ecologically responsible behaviour and supplementing financial resources essential to address forestry woes. (Hence, statement 1 is correct). “The budget of the forestry sector should be appropriately enhanced so that the objectives enshrined in this policy can be achieved. Environmental cess, green tax, carbon tax may be levied on certain products and services for facilitating ecologically responsible behaviour, garnering citizen’s contribution and supplementing financial resources,” the draft policy says.

 

The policy recommends contracts between forest-dependent industries and farmers to fix price and quantity to ensure supply for the wood industry. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect).

 

The draft policy indicates that CAMPA funds from diversion of forest land by industry are to be used for purchasing wildlife corridors from people. (Hence, statement 3 is correct).

 

Source:

http://www.downtoearth.org.in/factsheet/10-highlights-of-the-new-draft-national-forest-policy-54521


  1. Which of the following countries is/are not among Snow Leopard range countries?
    1. Pakistan
    2. China
    3. Nepal
    4. Bhutan
    5. Myanmar
    6. Afghanistan
    7. Bangladesh

 

Select the correct answer using the code below:

a) 1 and 7 only

b) 2 and 5 only

c) 5 and 7 only

d) 1 and 5 only

Solution: c

Answer Justification:

The snow leopard’s habitat extends through twelve countries: Afghanistan, Bhutan, China, India, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Mongolia, Nepal, Pakistan, Russia, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan.

 

China is one of the most influential countries for our conservation efforts, as it contains as much as 60% of all snow leopard habitat areas.

 

In the Himalayas, snow leopards are usually found between 3,000 and 5,400 meters above sea level. In Mongolia and Russia, these cats are found at lower altitudes of 1000 meters.

At the snow leopard’s typical elevation, the climate is cold and dry, and only grasses and small shrubs can grow on the steep mountain slopes.

 

Snow leopards prefer the broken terrain of cliffs, rocky outcrops, and ravines. This type of habitat provides good cover and clear views to help them find prey, and sneak up on it.

 

Hence, Myanmar and Bangladesh are not among Snow Leopard range countries.

Source:

http://www.globalsnowleopard.org/who-we-are/range-countries/


  1. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Ramsar Convention on Wetlands?
    1. Ramsar Convention is the only global environment treaty dealing with a particular ecosystem.
    2. Nal Sarovar in Gujarat is the latest Ramsar site in India.
    3. Kerala has the highest number of Ramsar sites among the Indian states.

 

Select the correct answer using the code below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) None

Solution: a

Answer Justification:

Ramsar Convention on Wetlands

The Convention on Wetlands, signed in Ramsar, Iran, in 1971, is an intergovernmental treaty which provides the framework for national action and international cooperation for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources.

 

Ramsar Convention is the only global environment treaty dealing with a particular ecosystem. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

 

Nal sarovar is the latest Ramsar site in India which entered the list in 2012. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

 

Jammu and Kashmir has the highest number of Ramsar sites i.e. 4 whereas Kerala has 3. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect)

Source:

http://www.moef.nic.in/division/ramsar-convention-wetland


  1. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Khangchendzonga National Park?
    1. It is the only UNESCO’s mixed (natural and cultural) heritage site in India.
    2. It qualifies in 4 out of 10 criteria to be a heritage site.
    3. It is also a Biosphere Reserve under World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR).

 

Select the correct answer using the code below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

Answer Justification:

Kanchenjunga National Park also Kanchenjunga Biosphere Reserve is a National Park and a Biosphere reserve located in Sikkim, India. It was inscribed to the UNESCO World Heritage Sites list on July 17, 2016, becoming the first “Mixed Heritage” site of India. The park gets its name from the mountain Kangchenjunga (alternative spelling Khangchendzonga). (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

It does not come  under World Network of Biosphere Reserves in India. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect)

Refer Insights MoEF report highlights.

It qualifies as heritage under 4 Criteria: (iii),(vi),(vii) and (x). (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

Khangchendzonga National Park Located at the heart of the Himalayan range in northern India (State of Sikkim), the Khangchendzonga National Park includes a unique diversity of plains, valleys, lakes, glaciers and spectacular, snow-capped mountains covered with ancient forests, including the world’s third highest peak, Mount Khangchendzonga. Mythological stories are associated with this mountain and with a great number of natural elements (caves, rivers, lakes, etc.) that are the object of worship by the indigenous people of Sikkim. The sacred meanings of these stories and practices have been integrated with Buddhist beliefs and constitute the basis for Sikkimese identity.

Source:

http://whc.unesco.org/en/criteria/

http://whc.unesco.org/en/statesparties/IN


  1. Arrange the following classes (canopy-wise) of forests in the decreasing order of their areas.
    1. Very Dense Forest
    2. Moderately Dense Forest
    3. Open Forest
    4. Scrub

 

Select the correct answer using the code below:

a) 3-2-4-1

b) 3-2-1-4

c) 2-3-1-4

d) 2-3-4-1

Solution: c

Answer Justification:

Source:

http://fsi.nic.in/details.php?pgID=sb_64


  1. Which of the following pairs of Missions and Objectives are correctly matched?
Mission Objective
1.       CHESS To discover thousands of exoplanets.
2.       AZURE To study the processes occurring inside the Earth’s polar cusp.
3.       TESS To measure light filtering through the interstellar medium.

 

Select the correct answer using the code below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: b

Answer Justification:

CHESS — short for the Colorado High-resolution Echelle Stellar Spectrograph — is a sounding rocket payload that will fly on a Black Brant IX suborbital sounding rocket early in the morning of June 27, 2017. CHESS measures light filtering through the interstellar medium to study the atoms and molecules within, which provides crucial information for understanding the lifecycle of stars.

 

Source:

https://www.nasa.gov/feature/goddard/2017/nasa-funded-chess-mission-will-check-out-the-space-between-stars

 

AZURE is the first of eight sounding rocket missions as part of an international collaboration of scientists known as The Grand Challenge Initiative – Cusp. These missions study the processes occurring inside the Earth’s polar cusp — where the planet’s magnetic field lines bend down into the atmosphere and allow particles from space to intermingle with those of Earthly origin — and nearby auroral oval, which AZURE will focus on.

 

Source:

https://www.nasa.gov/feature/goddard/2018/sounding-rocket-mission-will-trace-auroral-winds

 

NASA’s Transiting Exoplanet Survey Satellite (TESS) is an all-sky survey mission that will discover thousands of exoplanets around nearby bright stars. TESS is scheduled for launch aboard a SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket no earlier than April 16, 2018, and no later than June 2018.

Source:

https://www.nasa.gov/tess-transiting-exoplanet-survey-satellite

Only 2nd pair is correctly matched.


  1. Which of the following statements is/are correct about food irradiation?
    1. It disrupts the biological processes that lead to decay.
    2. It impairs the ability of vegetables to sprout.
    3. It can be used to treat pre-packed commodities.

 

Select the correct answer using the code below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d

Answer Justification:

Irradiation works by disrupting the biological processes that lead to decay. (Hence, statement 1 is correct). In their interaction with water and other molecules that make up food and living organisms, radiation energy is absorbed by the molecules they contact. The reactions with the DNA cause the death of microorganisms and insects and impair the ability of potato and onion to sprout. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

 

Irradiation is a cold process and can be used to pasteurize and sterilize foods without causing changes in freshness and texture of food unlike heat. Unlike chemical fumigants, irradiation does not leave any harmful toxic residues in food and is more effective. It is efficient and can be used to treat pre-packed commodities. (Hence, statement 3 is correct)

 Source:

 http://www.barc.gov.in/bsg/ftd/faq2.html


  1. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Moscow Declaration?
    1. It was adopted at the first WHO Global Ministerial Conference.
    2. India is a signatory to the declaration.
    3. Extensively – Drug TB (XDR-TB) will be tackled as national public health crisis.

 

Select the correct answer using the code below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: a

Answer Justification:

Moscow declaration

  • Health ministers, NGOs, and private sector representatives from 120 countries adopted the Moscow Declaration at the recently held first WHO Global Ministerial Conference. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

 

The declaration calls for eliminating additional deaths from HIV co-infection by 2030 and achieving synergy in coordinated action against Tuberculosis.

 

India is among signatories to the declaration. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

Moscow declaration:

  • Moscow declaration emphasis need for fixing multi sectoral responsibility towards ending TB by 2035.
  • Multi-drug resistant TB will be tackled as national public health crisis. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect)
  • National inter-ministerial commission will be set up by 2018 to achieve fast-tracking universal access to health care.

 

Source:

http://www.who.int/tb/Moscow_Declaration_MinisterialConference_TB/en/


  1. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Red Blood Cells?
    1. They are the most abundant of all the cells in the blood.
    2. They get destroyed in the spleen after their life span.
    3. They are nucleated cells.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: a

Answer Justification:

Red Blood cells

 

Erythrocytes, leucocytes and platelets are collectively called formed elements and they constitute nearly 45 per cent of the blood.

 

Erythrocytes or red blood cells (RBC) are the most abundant of all the cells in blood. RBCs are formed in the red bone marrow in the adults. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

 

RBCs are devoid of nucleus in most of the mammals and are biconcave in shape. They have a red coloured, iron containing complex protein called haemoglobin, hence the colour and name of these cells. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect)

 

These molecules play a significant role in transport of respiratory gases.

 

RBCs have an average life span of 120 days after which they are destroyed in the spleen (graveyard of RBCs). (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

 

Source:

NCERT Class XI Biology Chapter 18.


  1. Which of the following is/are example/s of pesticides?
    1. Microbial pesticides consisting fungi or viruses.
    2. Sandalwood oil.
    3. Bacillus Thuringiensis.

 

Select the correct answer using the code below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d

Answer Justification:

Biopesticides can be classified into these classes:

 

  • Microbial pesticides which consist of bacteria, entomopathogenic fungi or viruses (and sometimes includes the metabolites that bacteria or fungi produce).

 

  • Bio-derived chemicals. Four groups are in commercial use: pyrethrum, rotenone, neem oil, and various essential oils are naturally occurring substances that control (or monitor in the case of pheromones) pests and microbial diseases. Eg: Sandalwood oil.

 

  • Plant-incorporated protectants (PIPs) have genetic material from other species incorporated into their genetic material (i.e. GM crops). Eg: Bacillus Thuringiensis

 

Hence, all 3 statements are correct.

 Source:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Biopesticide

   


            

  1. Which of the pairs of the studies/fields and their definitions are correctly matched?

 

Study/field Definition
1.       Bioinformatics Application of biological methods/systems in the design of Engineering systems
2.       Bionics As an interdisciplinary field of science combines Computer Science, Biology, Mathematics, and Engineering to analyse and interpret biological data.

 

 

Select the correct answer using the code below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d

Answer Justification:

Bio-informatics: As an interdisciplinary field of science combines Computer Science, Biology, Mathematics, and Engineering to analyse and interpret biological data.

 

Bioinformatics, a hybrid science that links biological data with techniques for information storage, distribution, and analysis to support multiple areas of scientific research, including biomedicine. Bioinformatics is fed by high-throughput data-generating experiments, including genomic sequence determinations and measurements of gene expression patterns. 

 

Bionics: Bionics, inter-science discipline of constructing artificial systems that have some of the characteristics of living systems. It is about application of biological methods/systems in the design of Engineering systems and modern technology.

 

(Hence, statements 1 and 2 are incorrect)

 

Source:

https://www.britannica.com/science/bioinformatics

https://www.britannica.com/technology/bionics


  1. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) and Chemical Oxygen demand (COD)?
    1. Both COD and BOD test methods aim to give an indication of the amount of pollution in a water.
    2. COD is the amount of oxygen required to chemically breakdown the inorganic pollutants.
    3. BOD is the amount of oxygen required to breakdown the organic pollutants biologically through micro-organisms.

 

Select the correct answer using the code below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: a

Answer Justification:

Both COD and BOD test methods aim to give an indication of the amount of pollution in a water sample. COD is the amount of oxygen required to chemically breakdown the pollutants whereas BOD is the amount of oxygen required to do this biologically through micro-organisms.

 

Since the pollutants can be both organic and inorganic, statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.

 

There is a strong correlation between COD and BOD, however COD analysis is a much faster and more accurate method.

 

BOD analysis is performed to determine what effect dirty water, containing bacteria and organic materials, will have on animal and plant life when released into a stream or lake. Bacteria will need to take in oxygen in order to break down the organic materials (pollution) in the water. The test measures the potential of the incoming water to deplete the oxygen of the receiving waters due to the bacterial activity.

 

If there are high levels of organic waste and bacteria in the water it will have a detrimental effect on the surrounding ecosystem. Low levels of organic waste and fewer bacteria present mean the BOD will be lower and the dissolved oxygen levels higher. The BOD test involves taking an initial dissolved oxygen (DO) reading and a second reading after five days of incubation at 20°C.

 

COD analysis on the other hand is a measurement of the oxygen-depletion capacity of a water sample contaminated with organic waste matter. Specifically, it measures the equivalent amount of oxygen required to chemically oxidize organic compounds in water thus removing the pollution. COD is an integral part of all water quality management programmes.

 

Source:

http://camblab.info/wp/index.php/what-are-the-differences-between-chemical-oxygen-demand-cod-and-biological-oxygen-demand-bod/


  1. Which three of the following appliances should get the energy efficiency star labelling under mandatory scheme?
    1. Electric geyser
    2. Colour TV
    3. Frost-free refrigerators
    4. Induction motors
    5. Agricultural pump sets
    6. Domestic LPG stoves

 

Select the correct answer using the code below:

a) 1, 2 and 3only

b) 3, 4 and 5 only

c) 4, 5 and 6 only

d) 1,4 and 5 only

Solution: a

Answer Justification:

The Objectives of Standards & Labelling Program is to provide the consumer an informed choice about the energy saving and thereby the cost saving potential of the marketed household and other equipment. This is expected to impact the energy savings in the medium and long run while at the same time it will position domestic industry to compete in such markets where norms for energy efficiency are mandatory. 

 

For the labelling program, the Bureau works through technical committees of experts and stakeholders, comprising of representatives from industry, industry association, consumer organizations, academia, Non-Government Organizations (NGOs), Research & Development (R&D) institutions, testing laboratories, government organizations and regulatory bodies etc. The appliances covered under the S&L scheme are as follows:

Mandatory scheme:

Frost Free and Direct cool Refrigerators, TFLs, Room ACs, Distribution Transformers, Electric geysers, Colour TV, LED etc.,

 

Voluntary scheme:

Induction motors, Agricultural pump sets, Ceiling fans, Domestic LPG stove, washing machine, Computer etc.,

(Hence 1, 2 and 3 are correct)

Source:

https://www.beestarlabel.com/#


  1. Which of the following statements is/are correct about protocols and conventions?
    1. The Conventions—on Biodiversity, Climate Change and Desertification—derive directly from the 1992 Earth Summit.
    2. Nagoya Protocol and Cartegena Protocol are the protocols to Convention on Biological Diversity.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Answer Justification:

The three Rio Conventions—on Biodiversity, Climate Change and Desertification—derive directly from the 1992 Earth Summit. Each instrument represents a way of contributing to the sustainable development goals of Agenda 21. The three conventions are intrinsically linked, operating in the same ecosystems and addressing interdependent issues.

 

Convention on Biological Diversity

The objectives of the CBD are the conservation of biological diversity, the sustainable use of its components, and the fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising from commercial and other utilization of genetic resources. The agreement covers all ecosystems, species, and genetic resources.

 

Nagoya Protocol

The Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their Utilization (ABS) to the Convention on Biological Diversity 

 

Cartegena Protocol on Biosafety

The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety to the Convention on Biological Diversity is an international treaty governing the movements of living modified organisms (LMOs) resulting from modern biotechnology from one country to another.

 

United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification

The UNCCD aims to combat desertification and mitigate the effects of drought in countries experiencing serious drought and/or desertification, particularly in Africa, through effective actions at all levels, supported by international co-operation and partnership arrangements, in the framework of an integrated approach which is consistent with Agenda 21, with a view to contributing to the achievements of sustainable development in affected areas.

 

United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change

The UNFCCC sets an overall framework for intergovernmental efforts to tackle the challenge posed by climate change. Its objectives are to stabilize greenhouse-gas concentrations in the atmosphere at a level that would prevent dangerous anthropogenic interference with the climate system, within a time-frame sufficient to allow ecosystems to adapt naturally to climate change; to ensure that food production is not threatened; to enable economic development to proceed in a sustainable manner.

 

Source:

https://www.cbd.int/rio/default.shtml

http://www.moef.nic.in/division/convention-biological-diversity-cbd


21) With reference to Majuli, consider the following statements:

  1. The island is shrinking due to excessive erosion
  2. The tribal communities in Majuli include the Misings, the Deoris and the Sonowal Kacharis
  3. It belongs to Jorhat district

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3 Only

b) 1 Only

c) 1 and 2 Only

d) 2 and 3 Only

Solution: c)

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/09/21/insights-daily-current-affairs-21-september-2017/

Mājuli or Majoli is the world’s biggest river island in the Brahmaputra River, Assam and in 2016 became the first island to be made a district in India. It had an area of 880 square kilometres (340 sq mi) at the beginning of the 20th century, but having lost significantly to erosion it covers 352 square kilometres (136 sq mi) as at 2014. Majuli has shrunk as the river surrounding it has grown. It is recognised as the world’s largest river island, although Ilha do Bananal meets the same qualifications and is much larger.

The population of Majuli comprises the tribals, non-tribals and the scheduled castes.The tribal communities include the Misings, the Deoris and the Sonowal Kacharis.The scheduled castes include the Kaivartas, the Brittial Banias etc.The non-tribal communities includes Koch, Kalitas, Ahoms, Chutiyas, Keot, Yogis etc.The Mising community has the largest population in the island who immigrated from Arunachal Pradesh to Majuli centuries ago .

Third statement is wrong as Majuli is itself a District since 2016.

 


22) If there is a direct shipping link between Chennai and Vladivostok, which of the following water bodies should a ship pass through?

 

  1. Strait of Malacca
  2. South China Sea
  3. Banda Sea
  4. East China Sea
  5. Sea of Japan

 

Select the correct answer using codes below:

 

a) 1,2,3, and 4 Only

b) 2,3,4 and 5 Only

c) 1,2,4 and 5 Only

d) 1,2,3,4 and 5

 

Solution: c)

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/09/13/insights-daily-current-affairs-13-september-2017/

Aiming to put in place a key maritime route connecting India with Northeast Asia and Western Pacific region Delhi is contemplating to put in place a major connectivity initiative — direct shipping link between Chennai and Vladivostok amid China’s ambitious Maritime Silk Route (MSR) connecting Asia with Africa.

Banda Sea is located south of Indonesia.

(Check world map on Google to see the route)


23) India has 26 sedimentary basins, out of which 7 are categorised as basins with established commercial production. Which of the following belongs to these 7 basins?

  1. Cambay
  2. Cauvery
  3. Narmada
  4. Krishna Godavari
  5. Mumbai Offshore

Select the correct answer using codes below:

a) 1, 4 and 5 Only

b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 Only

c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 Only

d) 1, 2, 4 and 5 Only

 

Solution: d)

 

The existing 26 Sedimentary Basins have an area of approximately 3.14 million Sq. Kms.

The sedimentary basins of the country have been classified into four categories as below::

 

Category-I

Basins with established commercial production. Cambay, Mumbai Offshore, Rajasthan, Krishna Godavari, Cauvery, Assam Shelf and Assam-Arakan Fold Belt

 

Category-II

Basins with known accumulation of hydrocarbons but no. commercial production achieved so far

Kutch, Mahanadi-NEC (North East Coast) Basin,Andaman-Nicobar, Kerala-Konkan-Lakshadweep Basin.

 

Category-III

Basins having hydrocarbon shows that are considered geologically prospective Himalayan Foreland Basin, Ganga Basin, Vindhyan basin, Saurashtra Basin, Kerela Konkan Basin, Bengal Basin

 

Category-IV

Basins having uncertain potential which may be prospective by analogy with similar basins in the world. Karewa basin, Spiti-Zanskar basin, Satpura–South Rewa–Damodar basin, Chhattisgarh Basin, Narmada basin, Deccan Syneclise, Bhima-Kaladgi, Bastar Basin, PranhitaGodavari basin, Cuddapah basin.


 

24) Consider the following statements:

 

  1. Pyongyang is a port city
  2. Pyongyang and Seoul are located on the same longitude
  3. Pyongyang is nearest to Shanghai compared to Seoul

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 2 Only

b) 1 and 2 Only

c) 3 Only

d) None of the above

 

Solution: d)

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/09/12/insights-daily-current-affairs-12-september-2017/

As Pyongyang is in news all the time, we just made up a question.


 

25)  With reference to the United Nations Security Council (UNSC), consider the following statements:

 

  1. It has 15 members, including five permanent
  2. The Council’s 10 non-permanent seats are allocated according to a rotation pattern to ensure a proportionate representation over time from the different parts of the world
  3. United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is one of the six principal organs of the United Nations

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3 Only

b) 2 and 3 Only

c) 1 and 2 Only

d) 1,2 and 3

 

Solution: d)

 

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/09/12/insights-daily-current-affairs-12-september-2017/

 

About the UNSC:

The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is one of the six principal organs of the United Nations and is charged with the maintenance of international peace and security. Its powers include the establishment of peacekeeping operations, the establishment of international sanctions, and the authorization of military action through Security Council resolutions; it is the only UN body with the authority to issue binding resolutions to member states.

  • The Security Council has 15 members, including five permanent. The five permanent members, each with the power of veto, are China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom and the United States.
  • The Council’s 10 non-permanent seats are allocated according to a rotation pattern set by the Assembly in 1963, to ensure a proportionate representation over time from the different parts of the world: five from African and Asian States; one from Eastern Europe; two from Latin American States; and two from Western European and Other States.The Security Council is also responsible for determining the existence of a threat against peace and to respond to an act of aggression. It is also responsible for finding peaceful means to settle a conflict or a dispute between States.In some cases, the Council can resort to sanctions or even authorize the use of force to maintain or restore international peace and security.