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SOLUTIONS – INSIGHTS REVISION TEST for Preliminary Exam 2018: Test – 15


SOLUTIONS 

INSIGHTS REVISION TEST for Preliminary Exam 2018: Test – 15


 

 

  1. The rate of evaporation increases with which of the following?
    1. An increase of surface area.
    2. An increase of temperature.
    3. An increase in humidity.
    4. An increase in wind speed.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 1, 2 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: c

Answer Justification:

Evaporation increases with –

  • An increase of surface area:

Evaporation is a surface phenomenon. If the surface area is increased, the rate of evaporation increases. For example, while putting clothes for drying up we spread them out.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • An increase of temperature:

With the increase of temperature, more number of particles get enough kinetic energy to go into the vapour state.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • A decrease in humidity:

Humidity is the amount of water vapour present in air. The air around us cannot hold more than a definite amount of water vapour at a given temperature. If the amount of water in air is already high, the rate of evaporation decreases.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

  • An increase in wind speed:

It is a common observation that clothes dry faster on a windy day. With the increase in wind speed, the particles of water vapour move away with the wind, decreasing the amount of water vapour in the surrounding.

Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Source:

NCERT Class IX Science Chapter 1.


  1. Which of the following is/are correct about Molecule?
    1. It the smallest particle of an element or a compound that is capable of an independent existence.
    2. Atoms of the same element or of different elements can join together to form molecules.
    3. A molecule shows all the properties of the substance.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d

Answer Justification:

A molecule is in general a group of two or more atoms that are chemically bonded together that is, tightly held together by attractive forces. Atoms of the same element or of different elements can join together to form molecules. (Hence, statement 2 is correct.)

 

A molecule can be defined as the smallest particle of an element or a compound that is capable of an independent existence and shows all the properties of that substance. (Hence, statement 1 and 3 are correct.)

Source:

NCERT Class IX Science Chapter 3.


  1. Which of the following statements is/are correct about isotopes and isobars?
    1. Isotopes of same element have different number of protons but same number of neutrons.
    2. Isobars have different number of protons and different number of neutrons.
    3. Many elements consist of a mixture of isotopes.
    4. The chemical properties of isotopes are similar but their physical properties are different.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 and 4 only

c) 2, 3 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: c

Answer Justification:

Isotopes are defined as the atoms of the same element, having the same atomic number but different mass numbers.  The atomic number is nothing but the number of protons. The difference in the mass numbers is due to the different number of neutrons.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

In the equation Z = A + N, since A is constant, Z will vary with respect to only N.

Many elements consist of a mixture of isotopes. (Hence, statement 3 is correct.)

 Of the 80 elements with a stable isotope, the largest number of stable isotopes observed for any element is ten (for the element tin). No element has nine stable isotopes. Xenon is the only element with eight stable isotopes. Four elements have seven stable isotopes, eight have six stable isotopes, ten have five stable isotopes, nine have four stable isotopes, five have three stable isotopes, 16 have two stable isotope and 26 elements have only a single stable isotope.

Each isotope of an element is a pure substance. The chemical properties of isotopes are similar but their physical properties are different.  (Hence, statement 4 is correct.)

Atoms of different elements with different atomic numbers, which have the same mass number, are known as isobars. (Hence, statement 2 is correct.)

Along with different atomic numbers, the isobars have different number of neutrons to match the mass numbers.

In the equation, Z = A + N, for different values of A, we get different values of N to get constant Z.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Source:

NCERT Class IX Science Chapter 4


  1. Which of the following statements is/are correct about lysosomes?
    1. Lysosomes break food, bacteria and old organelles.
    2. Lysosomes contain powerful digestive enzymes capable of breaking down all organic material.
    3. Autophagy delivers cytoplasmic components and organelles to the lysosomes for digestion.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d

Answer Justification:

Lysosomes are a kind of waste disposal system of the cell. Lysosomes help to keep the cell clean by digesting any foreign material as well as worn-out cell organelles. Foreign materials entering the cell, such as bacteria or food, as well as old organelles end up in the lysosomes, which break them up into small pieces. (Hence, statement 1 is correct.)

Lysosomes are able to do this because they contain powerful digestive enzymes capable of breaking down all organic material. (Hence, statement 2 is correct.)

 During the disturbance in cellular metabolism, for example, when the cell gets damaged, lysosomes may burst and the enzymes digest their own cell. Therefore, lysosomes are also known as the ‘suicide bags’ of a cell. Structurally, lysosomes are membrane-bound sacs filled with digestive enzymes.

Autophagy (a Greek word that means “self-eating”) is a catabolic process in eukaryotic cells that delivers cytoplasmic components and organelles to the lysosomes for digestion. (Hence, statement 3 is correct.)

Disruption of autophagy processes of the cell has been linked to Parkinson’s disease, type 2 diabetes.

Yoshinori Ohsumi’s work on mechanisms underlying autophagy has won Nobel Prize in Medicine in 2016. 

Source:

NCERT Class IX Science Chapter 5 section 5.2.5(iii).


  1. Which of the following statements is/are correct about transport tissues in plants?
    1. Xylem and phloem constitute a vascular bundle.
    2. Xylem is involved in translocation whereas phloem helps plants in transpiration.
    3. These tissues have made the survival of the plants possible in terrestrial environment.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: b

Answer Justification:

Plants have two different types of transport tissue xylem and phloem. They are both conducting tissues and constitute a vascular bundle. (Hence, statement 1 is correct.)

Vascular or conductive tissue is a distinctive feature of the complex plants, one that has made possible their survival in the terrestrial environment. (Hence, statement 3 is correct.)

Xylem

Xylem vessels are involved in the movement of water through a plant from its roots to its leaves. Water is absorbed from the soil through root hair cells and transported through the xylem vessels up the stem to the leaves. Finally, water evaporates from the leaves (transpiration).

Phloem

Phloem vessels are involved in translocation. This is the movement of food substances from the stems to growing tissues and storage tissues (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.)

Source:

NCERT Class IX Science Chapter 6, section 6.2.2 (ii)


  1. Which of the following pairs of plant types and their characteristics are correctly matched?
PlantsCharacteristics
1. ThallophytesHave no well-differentiated body design.
2. BryophytesHave specialised conductive tissue.
3. PteridophytesNo specialised conductive tissue.

 

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) None

Solution: a

Answer Justification:

THALLOPHYTA

Plants that do not have well-differentiated body design fall in this group. The plants in this group are commonly called algae. These plants are predominantly aquatic. Examples are Spirogyra, Ulothrix, Cladophora and Chara.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

BRYOPHYTA

These are called the amphibians of the plant kingdom. The plant body is commonly differentiated to form stem and leaf-like structures. However, there is no specialised tissue for the conduction of water and other substances from one part of the plant body to another. Examples are moss (Funaria) and Marchantia.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

PTERIDOPHYTA

In this group, the plant body is differentiated into roots, stem and leaves and has specialised tissue for the conduction of water and other substances from one part of the plant body to another. Some examples are Marsilea, ferns and horse-tails.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

 

The thallophytes, the bryophytes and the pteridophytes have naked embryos that are called spores. The reproductive organs of plants in all these three groups are very inconspicuous, and they are therefore called ‘cryptogamae’, or ‘those with hidden reproductive organs’.

Source:

NCERT Class IX Science Chapter 7.


  1. While catching a fast moving cricket ball, a fielder in the ground gradually pulls his hands backwards with the moving ball. Which of the following is/are the reason for this action?

a) It increases the time during which the high velocity of the moving ball decreases to zero.

b) It decreases the time during which the high velocity of the moving ball decreases to zero.

c) The acceleration of the ball is increased.

d) None of the above.

Solution: a

                Answer Justification:

While catching a fast moving cricket ball, a fielder in the ground gradually pulls his hands backwards with the moving ball. In doing so, the fielder increases the time during which the high velocity of the moving ball decreases to zero. Thus, the acceleration of the ball is decreased and therefore the impact of catching the fast moving ball is also reduced. If the ball is stopped suddenly then its high velocity decreases to zero in a very short interval of time. Thus, the rate of change of momentum of the ball will be large. Therefore, a large force would have to be applied for holding the catch that may hurt the palm of the fielder.

Source:

NCERT Class IX Science Chapter 9.


  1. Which of the following statements is/are correct about echo?
    1. The time interval between the original sound and the reflected one can be zero seconds to hear the distinct echo.
    2. The distance of the obstacle from the source of sound can be less than 10m to hear the echo.
    3. The distance of the obstacle from the source of sound to hear the echo will change with the temperature of air.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 3 only

d) None

Solution: c

Answer Justification:

 

 

If we shout or clap near a suitable reflecting object such as a tall building or a mountain, we will hear the same sound again a little later. This sound which we hear is called an echo. The sensation of sound persists in our brain for about 0.1 s. To hear a distinct echo the time interval between the original sound and the reflected one must be at least 0.1s.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

If we take the speed of sound to be 344 m/s at a given temperature, say at 22 ºC in air, the sound must go to the obstacle and reach back the ear of the listener on reflection after 0.1s. Hence, the total distance covered by the sound from the point of generation to the reflecting surface and back should be at least (344 m/s) × 0.1 s = 34.4 m. Thus, for hearing distinct echoes, the minimum distance of the obstacle from the source of sound must be half of this distance, that is, 17.2 m.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

In the Earth’s atmosphere, the chief factor affecting the speed of sound is the temperature. For a given ideal gas with constant heat capacity and composition, the speed of sound is dependent solely upon temperature. Even the minimum distance of the obstacle from the source of sound must be half of this distance will change with the temperature of air.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

In the Earth’s atmosphere, the chief factor affecting the speed of sound is the temperature. For a given ideal gas with constant heat capacity and composition, the speed of sound is dependent solely upon temperature.

Echoes may be heard more than once due to successive or multiple reflections. The rolling of thunder is due to the successive reflections of the sound from a number of reflecting surfaces, such as the clouds and the land.

Source:

NCERT Class IX Science Chapter 12, section 12.3.1.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Speed_of_sound


  1. Which of the following statements is/are correct about antibiotics?
    1. Antibiotics commonly block biochemical pathways important for bacteria.
    2. Antibiotic penicillin blocks the bacterial processes that build the cell wall.
    3. Antibiotic penicillin blocks the human cells from making cell walls.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: a

Answer Justification:

Antibiotics commonly block biochemical pathways important for bacteria. (Hence, statement 1 is correct.)

Many bacteria, for example, make a cell-wall to protect themselves. The antibiotic penicillin blocks the bacterial processes that build the cell wall. (Hence, statement 2 is correct.)As a result, the growing bacteria become unable to make cell-walls, and die easily.

Human cells don’t make a cell-wall anyway, so penicillin cannot have such an effect on us. Penicillin will have this effect on any bacteria that use such processes for making cell-walls. Similarly, many antibiotics work against many species of bacteria rather than simply working against one.

(Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.)

Source:

NCERT Class IX Science Chapter 12, section 13.3.1.


  1. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Infuenza?
    1. Letters H and N are associated with the glycolproteins which occur on the surface of viral particles.
    2. Only Influenza A virus is subdivided based on the antibody responses to glycoproteins occur on the surface of viral particles.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Answer Justification:

Hemagglutinin (HA) and neuraminidase (NA) are the two large glycoproteins on the outside of the viral particles. HA is a lectin that mediates binding of the virus to target cells and entry of the viral genome into the target cell, while NA is involved in the release of progeny virus from infected cells, by cleaving sugars that bind the mature viral particles. Thus, these proteins are targets for antiviral drugs. Furthermore, they are antigens to which antibodies can be raised.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Influenza A viruses are classified into subtypes based on antibody responses to HA and NA. These different types of HA and NA form the basis of the H and N distinctions in, for example, H5N1. There are 16 H and 9 N subtypes known, but only H 1, 2 and 3, and N 1 and 2 are commonly found in humans.

Influenza B viruses are not divided into subtypes, but can be further broken down into lineages and strains. Currently circulating influenza B viruses belong to one of two lineages: B/Yamagata and B/Victoria.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Source:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Influenza

https://www.cdc.gov/flu/about/viruses/types.htm


  1. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Measles-Rubella vaccination campaign?
    1. The vaccine being given in the Measles-Rubella campaign is an imported one.
    2. Measles-Rubella vaccination campaign dose is in addition to routine immunization dose.
    3. Measles-Rubella vaccination campaign will replace measles vaccine, currently given at 9-12months and 16-24 months of age of child.

 

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: b

Answer Justification:

The vaccine being given in the Measles-Rubella campaign is produced in India and is WHO prequalified. The same vaccine is being given in the routine immunisation programme of India and in many countries, including neighbouring countries like Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Nepal and Myanmar.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect

Under the measles-rubella (MR) vaccination campaign, all children in the age group of 9 months to less than 15 years will be vaccinated in a phased manner across the nation.

Measles-Rubella vaccination campaign dose is in addition to routine measles immunization dose. (Hence, statement 2 is correct.)

Following the campaign, MR vaccine will become a part of routine immunization and will replace measles vaccine, currently given at 9-12 months and 16-24 months of age of child. (Hence, statement 3 is correct.)

Source:

http://www.searo.who.int/india/topics/measles/faqs_measles_rubella_vaccine_english.pdf


  1. Which of the following statements is/are correct about zoonotic TB?
    1. It is a name for animal TB.
    2. Animal TB is communicated to humans through consumption of non-heat-treated dairy products or raw.
    3. Animal TB is communicated to humans through consumption of improperly cooked meat from diseased animals.
    4. Animal TB is communicated to humans through direct transmission from infected animals.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

a) 2, 3 and 4 only

b) 1, 3 and 4 only

c) 1, 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: a

Answer Justification:

Transmission of Animal tuberculosis (bovine TB) to humans is referred to as zoonotic TB.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Bovine TB is most often communicated to humans through food consumption, usually non-heat-treated dairy products or raw, or improperly cooked meat from diseased animals.

Direct transmission from infected animals or animal products to people can also occur.

Hence, statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

There is no cure for bovine TB and it threatens animal welfare and those with livelihoods based on livestock.

Refer Insights Exclusive Science and Technology Revision Module.

Source:

http://www.who.int/tb/areas-of-work/zoonotic-tb/en/


  1. Which of the following is/are correct about Poliovirus Vaccines?
    1. OPV contains killed virus and IPV contains live weakened virus.
    2. There is a risk of vaccine derived polio from OPV.
    3. A case of Vaccine Derived Polio Virus (VDPV) was reported in India after it received a polio-free certificate from WHO.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c

Answer Justification:

                There are two types of vaccine that protect against polio:

  • Inactivated poliovirus vaccine (IPV)
  • Oral poliovirus vaccine (OPV).

IPV contains killed virus and OPV contains live weakened virus.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

OPV is made up of attenuated or weakened poliovirus and there is a risk of vaccine derived polio.

Hence statement 2 is correct.

IPV is made up of inactivated (killed) polio virus and will provide immunity from all three strains of polio.

On November 30, 2015 India introduced an IPV in its routine immunisation programme, stating that it “will be an important step in the Polio Endgame Strategy”, a case of Vaccine Derived Polio Virus (VDPV) was reported from New Delhi. This was the second such case to be reported that year.

India received a polio-free certificate from the World Health Organisation (WHO) in 2014.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Refer Insights Exclusive Science and Technology Revision Module.

Source:

http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/is-india-actually-free-of-polio/article7945687.ece


  1. Which of the following statements is/are correct about VAJRA scheme?
    1. It offers visiting faculty assignments to scientists, faculty members and R&D professionals among Overseas Citizens of India (OCIs).
    2. The initial Faculty assignment is given for a period of one year.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Answer Justification:

The Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB), a statutory body of the Department of Science and Technology (DST) has recently launched a ‘Visiting Advanced Joint Research (VAJRA) Faculty Scheme’ to connect the Indian academic and research and development (R&D) systems to the best of global science and scientists for a sustained international collaborative research.

 

The scheme offers adjunct / visiting faculty assignments to overseas scientists, faculty members and R&D professionals including Non-resident Indians (NRI) and Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect) to undertake high quality collaborative research in cutting edge areas of science and technology including interdisciplinary areas of priority such as energy, water, health, security, nutrition, materials and manufacturing, etc. with one or more Indian collaborators of public funded academic and research institutions of India.

 

The VAJRA Faculty should be an active researcher working in an overseas leading academic / research / industrial organization with significant accomplishments in R&D. The initial Faculty assignment is given for a period of one year (Hence, statement 2 is correct).

extendable to subsequent years based on the collaborative outcome and interest. The residency period of VAJRA Faculty in the host institution would be for a minimum of 1 month and a maximum of 3 months every year. VAJRA Faculty is provided US Dollars 15000 in the first month of residence and US Dollars 10000 in each of the subsequent month. Presently, call for applications is made open for prospective researchers.

 

Source:

 

http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=169081


 

  1. Which of the following statements is/are correct about JIGYASA programme?
    1. Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR), has joined hands with Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan (KVS) and Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti (NVS) to implement this programme. 
    2. The program will enable the students and teachers to practically live the theoretical concepts taught in science by visiting CSIR laboratories and by participating in mini-science projects.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Answer Justification:

Jigyasa, a student- scientist connect programme was officially launched in the national capital today. Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR), has joined hands with Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan (KVS) to implement this programme. The focus is on connecting school students and scientists so as to extend student’s classroom learning with that of a very well planned research laboratory based learning.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

The program will also enable the students and teachers to practically live the theoretical concepts taught in science by visiting CSIR laboratories and by participating in mini-science projects. The model of engagement includes:

  • Student Residential Programmes;
  • Scientists as Teachers and Teachers as Scientists; 
  • Lab specific activities / Onsite Experiments;
  • Visits of Scientists to Schools/Outreach Programmes;
  • Science and Maths Clubs;
  • Popular Lecture Series/ demonstration programme at Schools;
  • Student Apprenticeship Programmes;
  • Science Exhibitions;
  • Projects of National Children’s Science Congress;
  • Teacher Workshops; and
  • Tinkering Laboratories.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Source:

http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=167194


  1. Which of the following is/are correct about stem cells?
    1. Both embryonic stem cells and adult stem cells have potential to differentiate.
    2. Pluripotent stem cells have ability to differentiate into almost all cell types.
    3. Embryonic stem cells are reprogrammed to obtain induced pluripotent stem (iPS) cells.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: a

Answer Justification:

In mammals, there are two broad types of stem cells: embryonic stem cells and adult stem cells.

Both are generally characterized by their potential to differentiate into different cell types. For eg: Pluripotent stem cells have the ability to differentiate into almost all cell types.

Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Adult stem cells are reprogrammed into induced pluripotent cells to function like embryonic stem cells.

Although the methods pioneered by Yamanaka and others have demonstrated that adult cells can be reprogrammed to iPS cells, there are still challenges associated with this technology.

Statement 3 is incorrect.

Refer Insights Exclusive Science and Technology Revision Module.

Source:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Induced_pluripotent_stem_cell


  1. Which of the following statements is/are correct about atomic clock?
    1. SI unit second is the time it takes a caesium-133 atom in a precisely defined state to oscillate exactly.
    2. Atomic clock uses light in the visible spectrum to measure atomic oscillations.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a

Answer Justification:

An atomic clock is a clock device that uses an electron transition frequency of the electromagnetic spectrum of atoms as a frequency standard for its timekeeping element.

(Hence, statement 2 is incorrect).

 

Atomic clocks are designed to measure the precise length of a second, the base unit of modern timekeeping. The International System of Units (SI) defines the second as the time it takes a caesium-133 atom in a precisely defined state to oscillate exactly.

An atomic clock is a clock device that uses an electron transition frequency of the electromagnetic spectrum of atoms as a frequency standard for its timekeeping element.

Scientists are currently developing a device that is even more accurate than the current atomic clocks.

The optical atomic clock uses light in the visible spectrum to measure atomic oscillations. The resonance frequency of the light rays is about 50,000 times higher than that of microwave radiation, allowing for a more precise measurement. The expected deviation of the new optical clock is 1 second in 15 billion years.

(Hence, statement 1 is correct )

Refer Insights Exclusive Science and Technology Revision Module.

Source:

https://www.timeanddate.com/time/how-do-atomic-clocks-work.html


  1. Which of the following is/are referred as recorded forest area?
    1. All the geographic areas recorded as ‘Forests’ in government records.
    2. Reserved Forests and Protected Forests notified under Indian Forests Act.
    3. Reserved Forests and Protected Forests notified under State Acts.
    4. Areas recorded as forests in the revenue records.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

a) 2, 3 and 4 only

b) 1, 3 and 4 only

c) 1, 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: d

Answer Justification:

What is Recorded Forest Area?

It refers to all the geographic areas recorded as ‘Forests’ in government records. (Hence, statement 1 is correct).

 

It mainly consists of Reserved Forests (RF) and Protected Forests (PF), which have been notified under the provisions of Indian Forests Act, 1927 or State acts. (Hence, statement 2 and 3 are  correct).

Besides RFs and PFs, the recorded forest area may also include all such areas, which have been recorded as forests in the revenue records or have been constituted so under any state act or local laws. (Hence, statement 4 is correct).

Source:

http://fsi.nic.in/details.php?pgID=sb_64


  1. Which of the following items is/are covered under Indian State of Forest Report for the first time in 2017 report?
    1. Carbon stock
    2. Forest fire
    3. Information on water bodies
    4. Timber production from outside forest

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

a) 2, 3 and 4 only

b) 1, 3 and 4 only

c) 1, 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: a

Answer Justification:

The report for the first time contains:

  • Information on decadal change in water bodies in forest during 2005-2015
  • Forest fire
  • Production of timber from outside forest
  • State wise carbon stock in different forest types and density classes

(Earlier reports also covered country’s carbon stock but not state-wise carbon stock)

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

All other statements are correct.

Source:

http://fsi.nic.in/details.php?pgID=sb_64


  1. Arrange the following states in the decreasing order of the net negative change in area in the forest cover.
    1. Arunachal Pradesh
    2. Mizoram
    3. Meghalaya
    4. Nagaland

 

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

a) 4-2-1-3

b) 2-4-1-3

c) 4-2-3-1

d) 2-4-1-3

Solution: b

Answer Justification:

Top 5 states where forest cover has decreased are:

  • Mizoram (531 sq.km)
  • Nagaland (450 sq.km)
  • Arunachal Pradesh (190 sq.km)
  • Tripura (164 sq.km)
  • Meghalaya (116 sq.km)

Source:

http://fsi.nic.in/details.php?pgID=sb_64


 

21) The Paris Principles are related to

a) Animal rights

b) Human rights

c) Climate change

d) International trade

 

Solution: b)

http://www.insightsonindia.com/2018/04/05/insights-daily-current-affairs-05-april-2018/

 

The Paris Principles were defined at the first International Workshop on National Institutions for the Promotion and Protection of Human Rights held in Paris on 7–9 October 1991. They were adopted by the United Nations Human Rights Commission by Resolution 1992/54 of 1992, and by the UN General Assembly in its Resolution 48/134 of 1993. The Paris Principles relate to the status and functioning of national institutions for the protection and promotion of human rights. In addition to exchanging views on existing arrangements, the workshop participants drew up a comprehensive series of recommendations on the role, composition, status and also functions of national human rights institutions (NHRIs).

 


22) Which of the following is NOT part of the Chota Char Dham?

 

a) Yamunotri

b) Gangotri

c) Rudranath

d) Kedarnath

 

Solution: c)

http://www.insightsonindia.com/2018/04/05/insights-daily-current-affairs-05-april-2018/

The Chota Char Dham is an important Hindu pilgrimage circuit on the under upgradation Chardham Road Highway and under construction Chota Char Dham Railway in the Indian Himalayas. Located in the Garhwal region of the state of Uttarakhand (formerly the northwestern section of Uttar Pradesh), the circuit consists of four sites—Yamunotri (Hindi: यमनोत्री), Gangotri (Hindi: गंगोत्री), Kedarnath (Hindi: केदारनाथ), and Badrinath (Hindi: बद्रीनाथ).[2] Badrinath is also one of the four destinations (with each destination being in different corners of the country) of the longer Char Dham from which the Chota Char Dham likely draws its name.

 


23) In July 2017, the United Nations adopted the Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons. With reference to this Treaty, consider the following statements:

 

  1. It is the first legally binding international agreement to comprehensively prohibit nuclear weapons
  2. India is the only nuclear weapons state to support this treaty

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Solution: a)

http://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/09/21/insights-daily-current-affairs-21-september-2017/

The Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons, or the Nuclear Weapon Ban Treaty, is the first legally binding international agreement to comprehensively prohibit nuclear weapons, with the goal of leading towards their total elimination. It was passed on 7 July 2017. In order to come into effect, signature and ratification by at least 50 countries is required. For those nations that are party to it, the treaty prohibits the development, testing, production, stockpiling, stationing, transfer, use and threat of use of nuclear weapons, as well as assistance and encouragement to the prohibited activities. For nuclear armed states joining the treaty, it provides for a time-bound framework for negotiations leading to the verified and irreversible elimination of its nuclear weapons programme.

According to a mandate adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in December 2016,[4] negotiations on the treaty began in the United Nations in March 2017 and continued from 15 June to 7 July 2017. In the vote on the treaty text, 122 were in favour, 1 voted against (Netherlands), and 1 abstained (Singapore). 69 nations did not vote, among them all of the nuclear weapon states and all NATO members except the Netherlands.

 


24) With reference to the SATH- Sustainable Action for Transforming Human Capital, consider the following statements:

 

  1. It is launched by the Ministry of Human Resources Development, government of India
  2. SATH is an effort to further the agenda for cooperative federalism

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b)

http://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/09/23/insights-daily-current-affairs-23-september-2017/

Furthering the agenda for cooperative federalism, NITI Aayog has launched SATH, a program providing ‘Sustainable Action for Transforming Human capital’ with the State Governments. The vision of the program is to initiate transformation in the education and health sectors. The program addresses the need expressed by many states for technical support from NITI .

SATH aims to identify and build three future ‘role model’ states for health systems. NITI will work in close collaboration with their state machinery to design a robust roadmap of intervention, develop a program governance structure, set up monitoring and tracking mechanisms, hand-hold state institutions through the execution stage and provide support on a range of institutional measures to achieve the end objectives. The program will be implemented by NITI along with McKinsey & Company and IPE Global consortium, who were selected through a competitive bidding process.

http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=165545

 


25) Recently, the NITI Aayog and the International Road Federation signed a Statement of Intent (SoI) to cooperate in the field of Intelligent Transportation Systems (ITS). With reference to the International Road Federation (IRF), consider the following statements:

 

  1. It is part of the United Nations Economic and Social Council
  2. It is headquartered in Washington, DC
  3. The IRF seeks to promote the benefits of a sustainable road transport infrastructure at all levels of society

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3 Only

b) 3 Only

c) 2 and 3 Only

d) 1,2 and 3

Solution: c)

http://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/09/22/insights-daily-current-affairs-22-september-2017/

The International Road Federation is a global not-for-profit organization, headquartered in Washington, DC since 1948 and supported by regional offices throughout the world. IRF serves a network of public and private sector members in more than 70 countries by providing world-class knowledge resources, advocacy services, and continuing education programs which together offer a global marketplace for best practices and industry solutions.[2] The organization is funded primarily through member fees.

The IRF seeks to promote the benefits of a sustainable road transport infrastructure at all levels of society. It organizes seminars, workshops and events for a broad range of audiences throughout the world. IRF has a number of publications and a transport knowledge library.