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SOLUTIONS – INSIGHTS REVISION TEST for Preliminary Exam 2018: Test – 8

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INSIGHTS REVISION TEST for Preliminary Exam 2018: Test – 8

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Henceforth, we will be posting solutions separately after each Revision test.  We will also post Interactive Quiz along with this post (it’s easy to prepare quiz using plugin in early morning when traffic is low.)



Welcome to Insights IAS Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam – 2018.

If you are wondering why these questions are posted, please refer to the detailed Timetable provided HERE.

These questions serve TWO purposes: One to test your revision skills; Second is to give you a glimpse into topics that you might have missed during revision. 

If you score ow marks, please don’t feel bad. Revise more effectively and try to learn from mistakes. Wish you all the best. 


1). Match the following with respect to committees on poverty in India:

List 1                                                                      List 2

  1. A) Lakdawala Committee                                  1) Urban Poverty
  2. B) Hashim Committee                                       2) Rural Development & Poverty
  3. C) Saxena Committee                                       3) Review methodology of poverty estimation
  4. D) Tendulkar Committee                                  4)  All India Poverty


                A             B             C             D

a)             1             2              3              4

b)             1             2              4              3             

c)             3             4              2              1                                             

d)             3             1              2              4

Solution: d

Lakdawala Committee (1993): to review methodology for poverty estimation. Suggestions are:

  • Consumption expenditure should be calculated based on calorie consumption
  • State specific poverty lines should be constructed and these should be updated using the Consumer Price Index of Industrial Workers (CPI-IW) in urban areas and Consumer Price Index of Agricultural Labor (CPI-AL) in rural areas
  • Discontinuation of ‘scaling’ of poverty estimates based on National Accounts Statistics.  This assumes that the basket of goods and services used to calculate CPI-IW and CPI-AL reflect the consumption patterns of the poor.

Tendulkar Committee (2009): Constituted by the Planning Commission (in 2005), to address the following three shortcomings of the previous methods:  (i) consumption patterns were linked to the 1973-74 poverty line baskets (PLBs) of goods and services, whereas there were significant changes in the consumption patterns of the poor since that time, which were not reflected in the poverty estimates; (ii) there were issues with the adjustment of prices for inflation, both spatially (across regions) and temporally (across time); and (iii) earlier poverty lines assumed that health and education would be provided by the State and formulated poverty lines accordingly.

It recommended four major changes: (i) a shift away from calorie consumption based poverty estimation; (ii) a uniform poverty line basket (PLB) across rural and urban India; (iii) a change in the price adjustment procedure to correct spatial and temporal issues with price adjustment; and (iv) incorporation of private expenditure on health and education while estimating poverty.   The Committee recommended using Mixed Reference Period (MRP) based estimates, as opposed to Uniform Reference Period (URP) based estimates that were used in earlier methods for estimating poverty.

Rangarajan Committee: In 2012, the Planning Commission constituted a new expert panel on poverty estimation, chaired by C Rangarajan with the following key objectives: (i) to provide an alternate method to estimate poverty levels and examine whether poverty lines should be fixed solely in terms of a consumption basket or if other criteria are also relevant; (ii) to examine divergence between the consumption estimates based on the NSSO methodology and those emerging from the National Accounts aggregates; (iii) to review international poverty estimation methods and indicate whether based on these, a particular method for empirical poverty estimation can be developed in India, and (iv) to recommend how these estimates of poverty can be linked to eligibility and entitlements under the various schemes of the Government of India.  The Committee is expected to submit its report by 2014.

Hashim Committee : The Planning Commission constituted an Expert Group under the Chairmanship of Professor S.R.Hashim to recommend the detailed methodology for identification of families living Below Poverty Line in urban areas. The Hashim Committee submitted its final report on 24th December, 2012 to the Planning Commission. In its report, the Hashim Committee recommended three stage identification process to identify the families living Below Poverty Line in urban areas which include automatic exclusion, automatic inclusion and scoring index of the remaining urban families in this order. The methodology recommended mainly emphasizes on capturing residential, social and occupational vulnerabilities.

Dr. N.C. Saxena Committee was set up by the Ministry of Rural Development to advise it on the suitable methodology for BPL Census and not for estimation of poverty. However, in the Report submitted by the Expert Group on 21st August 2009 it is mentioned that the percentage of people entitled to BPL status should be revised upwards to at least 50%. The committee has suggested proportionate increase in the state level poverty estimates also. 
The recommendations of the Expert Group and other alternative methodologies are being tested through a pilot socio-economic survey and a Participatory Rural Appraisal (PRA) exercise in order to finalize the methodology for the final BPL Census.  

2). Consider the following statements:

  1. The Nobel Prize winner, Sir Arthur Lewis, argued that economic development is always and everywhere about getting people out of agriculture and of agriculture becoming over time a less important part of the economy
  2. China has been facing a situation of Lewis Trap

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) 1 and 2

d) None of the above

Solution: c

The dual-sector model is a model in developmental economics. It is commonly known as the Lewis model after its inventor W. Arthur Lewis. It explains the growth of a developing economy in terms of a labour transition between two sectors, the capitalist sector and the subsistence sector. (Hence statement 1 is correct)

As per lewis, Developing countries will have the advantage of cheap labour when the economy starts to shift from agriculture centric to Industry dominated economy. But, after reaching a certain threshold of development, the labour would demand high wages owing to increased standard of living and hence the country would lose the advantage of cheap labour. This situation, as per Lewis, is known as Lewis trap which China is experiencing. Hence statement 2 is correct

3).which of the following statements is correct:

  1. The Global Gender Gap Index is published by the UNDP
  2. Gender parity index takes into account educational gaps between girls and boys

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) 1 and 2

d) None of the above

Solution: b

The Gender Parity Index (GPI) is a socioeconomic index usually designed to measure the relative access to education of males and females. This index is released by UNESCO.

The Gender Inequality Index (GII) is an index for measurement of gender disparity that was introduced in the 2010 Human Development Report 20th anniversary edition by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). According to the UNDP, this index is a composite measure to quantify the loss of achievement within a country due to gender inequality. It uses three dimensions to measure opportunity cost: reproductive health, empowerment, and labor market participation.

The new index was introduced as an experimental measure to remedy the shortcomings of the previous indicators, the Gender Development Index (GDI) and the Gender Empowerment Measure (GEM), both of which were introduced in the 1995 Human Development Report.

The Global Gender Gap Report was first published in 2006 by the World Economic Forum. The 2016 report covers 144 major and emerging economies. The Global Gender Gap Index is an index designed to measure gender equality

4). Consider the following about Market Stabilisation Bonds (MSS) bonds:

  1. Market Stabilisation Bonds are issued by RBI
  2. The money obtained under MSS is kept in the consolidated fund of India

Which of the above is/are correct:

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None of the above

Solution: a

What are MSS bonds? 
These are special bonds floated on behalf of the government by the RBI (Hence statement 1 is correct) for the specific purpose of mopping up the excess liquidity in the system when regular government bonds prove inadequate.


The money obtained under MSS should be kept with the RBI. It should not be transferred to the government. This is because, if it is transferred, government will spend the money in the economy thereby adding to liquidity. (Hence statement 2 is true)


MSS bonds are mostly shorter-tenure bonds, of less than six months maturity. But the tenure differs depending on the requirement. 
However, MSS bonds earn a return and qualify for statutory liquidity ratio, or SLR, that banks need to maintain in the form of short-tenured treasury bills and government bonds.

For more info:

5). Which of the following is exempted from GST:

a) Watching movies and paying for popcorn

b) Supply of services associated with transit cargo to Nepal and Bhutan (landlocked countries)

c) Transportation of natural gas

d) Construction contracts across state boundaries

Solution: b

Exemption from levy of GST

  • Services provided by and to Fédération Internationale de Football Association (FIFA) and its subsidiaries directly or indirectly related to any of the events under FIFA U-17 World Cup 2017 to be hosted in India.
  • Supply of services associated with transit cargo to Nepal and Bhutan (landlocked countries).
  • Supply of service by a Government Entity to Central Government, State Government, Union territory, local authority or any person specified by Central Government, State Government, Union territory or local authority against consideration received from Central Government, State Government, Union territory or local authority, in the form of grants.
  • Service provided by Fair Price Shops to Central Government, State Government or Union territory by way of sale of food grains, kerosene, sugar, edible oil, etc. under Public Distribution System against consideration in the form of commission or margin.
  • Service by way of access to a road or a bridge on payment of annuity.
  • Services by way of admission to a protected monument so declared under the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act 1958 (24 of 1958) or any of the State Acts, for the time being in force.
  • Services by way of right to admission to the events organised under FIFA U-17 World Cup 2017

6). Consider the following about remittances:

  1. India is the largest receiver of remittances
  2. India received more remittances than the next two ranking countries combined

Which of the above is/are correct:

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) 1 and 2

d) None of the above

Solution: a

According to the World Bank report the recovery in remittance flows is driven by relatively stronger growth in the European Union, Russian Federation, and the United States.

Statement 1 : As shown in the graph India is the highest receiver of the remittances followed by the China. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2 :  India — $65 billion

China — $61 billion

Hence statement 2 is incorrect



7). Which of the following statements about dumping is INCORRECT:

a) In 2016, anti-dumping investigations were initiated by all countries with India leading followed by USA and Argentina

b) Chinese steel is subject to anti-dumping duties in many countries

c) Dumping can be levied for subsidized supplies from foreign shores

d) Dumping is part of the special safeguard mechanisms under WTO


CVD or countervailing duty is in lieu of export subsidies. Hence the option c is wrong.

What is dumping?

If a company exports a product at a price lower than the price it normally charges on its own home market, it is said to be “dumping” the product.

The WTO provided for the antidumping duty under special safeguard mechanism. (Hence d is correct)

China’s exports, in particular, are so widespread that they are having pernicious effects on global trade in many downstream steel products. This helps explain why it is necessary to have tariffs on imports from all countries, and not just unfair traders like China. Hence b is correct

8). Domestic content requirement is sometimes seen in the context of:

a) Solar power projects in India

b) Television channels

c) Food product exports

d) Foreign educational content in India


Domestic content requirement

  • It mandates that cells and modules for solar PV projects based on crystalline silicon to be manufactured in India.
  • US Trade Representative has filed a complaint at World Trade Organization challenging India’s domestic content requirements in Phase II of this Mission, citing discrimination against US exports and that industry in US which has invested hugely will be at loss.


Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission (National Solar Mission)

  1. One of the eight key National Mission’s which comprise India’s National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC).
  2. Objective
  • To establish India as a global leader in solar energy, by creating the policy conditions for its diffusion across the country as quickly as possible.
  • To create favourable conditions for solar manufacturing capability, particularly solar thermal for indigenous production and market leadership
  1. The Mission will adopt a 3 – phase approach
  • Phase 1 (up to 2012 – 13)
  • Phase  2 (2013 – 17)
  • Phase 3 (2017 – 22)
  1. Immediate aim — focus on setting up an enabling environment for solar technology penetration in the country both at a centralized and decentralized level
  2. Targets — 1,00,000 MW by 2022. (40 GW Rooftop and 60 GW through Large and Medium Scale Grid Connected Solar Power Projects)

9). What is meant by price discrimination?

a) Increase in value of a commodity over time

b) Minimum cost and maximum cost based on price cap and price regulation

c) Selling same commodity at different prices

d) Identifying quality of product

Solution: c

What is ‘Price Discrimination?’

Price discrimination is a pricing strategy that charges customers different prices for the same product or service. In pure price discrimination, the seller charges each customer the maximum price that he is willing to pay. In more common forms of price discrimination, the seller places customers in groups based on certain attributes and charges each group a different price.

10). Which of the following relates to Rashtriya Garima Abhiyaan?

a) National Campaign for Dignity and Eradication of Manual Scavenging

b) National mission for empowerment of rural women

c) National mission to recognize education standards of minorities

d) Promoting Indian culture amongst youth



(UPSC Prelims 2016)

Rashtriya Garima Abhiyan —  National Campaign for Dignity and Eradication of Manual Scavenging. The practice continues in the country in spite of efforts of several people, implementation of government schemes such as the National Scheme for Liberation and Rehabilitation of Scavengers since 1992 and Self Employment Scheme for Rehabilitation of Manual Scavengers since 2007, and regardless of it being banned in 1993 through Employment of Manual Scavengers and Construction of Dry Latrines (prohibition) Act

Manual Scavenging is closely associated with exploitation of dalits as majority of them work in this despite it being banned.

11). Tarapore committee on full capital account convertibility called for the following pre conditions for capital account convertibility:


  1. Price stability
  2. Fiscal stability
  3. Reduction of non-performing assets

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

a) Only 1

b) 1 and 2

c) 1 and 3

d) 1, 2 and 3


Solution: d


 Currency convertibility — freedom to convert the domestic currency into other internationally accepted currencies and vice versa.

Current account convertibility — freedom to convert domestic currency into foreign currency and vice versa to execute trade in goods and invisibles.

capital account convertibility — freedom of currency conversion related to capital inflows and outflows. It also involves the freedom to invest in financial assets of other countries Compared to current account convertibility.

Why capital account convertibility?

 Countries prefer capital account convertibility to promote the inflow of foreign capital.

In India we already have current account convertibility. However, in case of capital account it is regulated and not fully free.


Committee on Capital Account Convertibility (CAC) or Tarapore Committee

  • Constituted by the Reserve Bank of India
  • Purpose — for suggesting a roadmap on full convertibility of Rupee on Capital Account
  • Committee recommended the implementation of Capital Account Convertibility for a 3 year period viz. 1997-98, 1998-99 and 1999-2000. But had laid down some pre conditions as follows:
  1. Gross fiscal deficit to GDP ratio has to come down from a budgeted 4.5 per cent in 1997-98 to 3.5% in 1999-2000.
  2. A consolidated sinking fund has to be set up to meet government’s debt repayment needs; to be financed by increased in RBI’s profit transfer to the govt. and disinvestment proceeds.

Above two points are related to Fiscal stability. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  1. Inflation rate should remain between an average 3-5 per cent for the 3-year period 1997-2000. This is related to price stability. Hence statement 1 is correct
  2. Gross NPAs of the public sector banking system needs to be brought down from the present 13.7% to 5% by 2000. At the same time, average effective CRR needs to be brought down from the current 9.3% to 3%
  3. RBI should have a Monitoring Exchange Rate Band of plus minus 5% around a neutral Real Effective Exchange Rate RBI should be transparent about the changes in REER
  4. External sector policies should be designed to increase current receipts to GDP ratio and bring down the debt servicing ratio from 25% to 20%
  5. Four indicators should be used for evaluating adequacy of foreign exchange reserves to safeguard against any contingency. Plus, a minimum net foreign asset to currency ratio of 40 per cent should be prescribed by law in the RBI Act.


There was second Tarapore committee which was constituted by the RBI to set out framework for full capital account covertability.



12). Which of the following developments can occur in an economy due to deficit financing by the government?

  1. Rise in Inflation
  2. Decrease in public debt
  3. Increase in money supply
  4. Improvement in current account deficit

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Solution: b

Deficit financing (deficit spending) — A government policy of financing large public expenditures by borrowing money rather than by raising taxes.

Statement 1 and 3: Deficit Financing and Inflation: It is said that deficit financing is inherently inflationary as due to deficit financing money supply increases as central bank pushes in more money

Increase in the money supply à more money available in hands of people & business à More demand

Hence both statements are correct.

Statement 2 and 4: Deficit financing can be done by external aids grants, borrowings and printing money. Borrowings will result into increase in public debt and deterioration of the current account.  Hence both statements are incorrect.

13). Which of the following items are included as revenue receipts?

  1. Tax revenue
  2. Non-tax revenue
  3. Recoveries of loans
  4. Borrowing and other liabilities

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Solution: a

Government receipts which neither create liabilities nor reduce assets are called revenue receipts. Revenue receipts are arranged into two categories namely Tax revenue and Non-tax revenue A receipt is a revenue receipt if it satisfies the following two essential conditions (I) The receipt must not create a liability for the government For example taxes levied by the government are revenue receipts as they do not create any liability However, any amount borrowed by the government is not a revenue receipt as it causes an increase in the liability in terms of repayment of borrowings (ii) The receipt must not cause decrease in the assets For example, a receipt from sale of shares of public enterprise is not a revenue receipt as it leads to a reduction in assets of the government The following figure mentions the different types of receipts

14). Which of the following are the components of the Indian money market?

  1. Treasury bills
  2. Call Money market
  3. Commercial Bills
  4. Repo and Reverse repo markets
  5. Mutual Funds

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1. 2, 3 and 4 only

(b) 1, 4 and 5 only

(c) 2. 3 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Financial market — it brings buyers and sellers together to trade in financial assets such as stocks, bonds, commodities, derivatives and currencies. The purpose is to set prices for global trade, raise capital, and transfer liquidity and risk. 

Two of the most commonly used markets are money markets and capital markets.  

Money Market – short term market

The money market is where financial instruments with high liquidity and very short maturities are traded. It is used by participants as a means for borrowing and lending in the short term, with maturities that usually range from overnight to just under a year

A capital market 

It is a financial market in which long-term debt (over a year) or equity-backed securities are bought and sold (usually for a period greater than a year). Capital markets help channelize surplus funds from savers to institutions which then invest them into productive use. It can be classified as the primary market (where securities are sold for the first time) and the secondary market (sale and purchase of previously issued or second hand securities)


 15).consider the following about sharing of development expenditure:

  1. Core of the core schemes have a sharing ratio of 60:40 for general category states & 90:10 for the Himalayan and north eastern states
  2. Optional schemes have a sharing pattern of 90:10

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) 1 and 2

d) None of the above

Solution: D

Restructuring of CSS

Union Government with objective of rationalisation of centrally sponsored schemes (CSS) has rrestructured of the CSS as follows:

  1. Number of centrally sponsored schemes has reduced from 66 to 28
  2. At least 10% of outlay of CSS be kept as flexi fund which may be used for funding innovations or taking up the activities/projects which even though not strictly as per the guidelines of the scheme, serve the broad objective of a scheme.
  3. Introduction of State specific guidelines
  4. Classification of the CSS as Core of the Core, Core Schemes and Optional Schemes.

1) Core-of-core Schemes: 

  1. Fully funded by the Centre.
  2. Schemes included are: MGRNEA, National Social Assistance Plan and the National Programme for Persons with Disabilities.

2) Core Schemes:

  1. For 8 North Eastern States and 3 Himalayan States: Centre: State: 90:10
  2. For other States: Centre: State: 60:40
  3. For Union Territories (without Legislature): Centre 100% and for UTs with legislature existing funding pattern would continue.

3) Optional Schemes: schemes are for social protection and social inclusion

  1. For 8 North Eastern States and 3 Himalayan States: Centre: State: 80:20
  2. For other States: Centre: State: 50:50
  3. For Union Territories:
  • Without Legislature – Centre 100%
  • Union Territories with Legislature: Centre: UT:80:20


Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS)
  • CSS are schemes that are implemented by state governments but are largely funded by the Central Government with a defined State Government share.
  • They are basically special purpose grants (or loans) extended by Central Government to states to encourage them to plan and implement programs that help attain national goals and objectives.
  • CSS are basically extended by the Central Government to States under Article 282 of the Constitution. It mainly cover items listed in states list.



16). Consider the following statements:

  1. Mission XI million aims at spreading the love for football
  2. It aims to encourage 11 million children to have passion for fitness

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) 1 and 2

d) None of the above

Solution: a

Mission XI Million

  1. Initiative of
  • Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
  • All India Football Federation (AIFF)
  • Federation International de Football Association (FIFA)
  1. Massive school engagement program to popularize football across the country (Hence statement 1 is true)
  2. Target — to reach 11 Million boys and girls across the country
  3. It equips parents and schools with the equipment and the knowledge about how to make regular play a reality for their wards

Statement 2 : The mission has no component of encouraging the passion for fitness. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

17). With reference to the Mission Parivar Vikas consider the following statements:

  1. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Health and family welfare
  2. It is launched in districts having the lowest total fertility rates in the country

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) 1 and 2

d) None of the above

Solution: a

Mission Parivar Vikas

  1. Ministry of Health and family welfare
  2. strategic focus — improve access to contraceptives, to bridge demand supply gap through
    1. delivering assured services
    2. ensuring commodity security
    3. accelerating access to high quality family planning services.
  3. Covereage — 146 districts with the highest total fertility rates (TFR)
  • These districts are in the seven high focus, high TFR states of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Assam, which constitute 44% of the country’s population.
  1. Objective — bring down the Total Fertility Rate to 2.1 by 2025.
    1. Ensure that 74% of the demand for modern contraceptives is satisfied by 2020
    2. Increasing awareness& demand through a holistic communications campaign (rolled out across all states of India.)
  2. Delivering assured services:
    1. Roll out of Injectable Contraceptive DMPA (Antara) at one go till Sub centre level
    2. Augmentation of PPIUCD Services to all delivery points
    3. Augmentation of Sterilization services through HFD compensation scheme
    4. Condom Boxes at strategic locations (like Heath Facilities, Gram Panchayat Bhavan etc)
    5. Social Marketing of condoms and pills: Social Marketers under the government’s scheme
  3. Promotional Schemes:
    1. “NAYI PAHEL” – A family planning kit would be given to the newly-wed couple by the ASHA.
    2. Saas Bahu Sammelan — facilitate improved communication between mothers-in-law and daughters-in-law through interactive games and exercises so as to bring about changes in their attitudes and beliefs about reproductive and sexual health.
    3. SAARTHI – Awareness on Wheels — to sensitize and disseminate FP messages in the far flung areas.
    4. Local Radio Spots with messages from local actors

18) With reference to the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT), consider the following statements:


  1. It is a regulatory body
  2. It ensures corporate justice
  3. It has powers related to winding up of companies

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 2 and 3 Only

b) 1 and 3 Only

c) 1 and 2 Only

d) 1,2 and 3


Solution: D


National Company Law Tribunal:

National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) is a quasi-judicial body that will govern the companies in India. It was established under the Companies Act, 2013 and is a successor body of the Company Law Board.

  • NCLT will have the same powers as assigned to the erstwhile Company Law Board (which are mostly related to dealing with oppression and mismanagement), Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (BIFR)(revival of sick companies) and powers related to winding up of companies (which was available only with the High Courts).
  • The setting up of NCLT as a specialized institution for corporate justice is based on the recommendations of the Justice Eradi Committee on Law Relating to Insolvency and Winding up of Companies.

19) In a landmark judgment, aimed at putting an end to misuse of section 498A of the IPC that is dowry-related offences, the Supreme Court has proposed a slew of measures. Which of the following is/are NOT related to these measures?

  1. Family Welfare Committees should be constituted at every village panchayat
  2. These measures aim to put an end to the automatic arrest of the husband and his family members

Select correct answer using codes below:

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b)

First statement is wrong – it is at district level.

In a landmark judgment, aimed at putting an end to misuse of section 498A of the IPC that is dowry-related offences, the Supreme Court has proposed a slew of measures. They aim to put an end to the automatic arrest of the husband and his family members.

Proposed measures:

Special committees: Every complaint under Section 498A should henceforth will have to be referred to Family Welfare Committees – to be constituted at every district. No arrest shall be effected till report of such committee is received.

Enquiry: The committee would interact with the parties personally or by means of telephonic or electronic communication and give a report within a month to the authority which referred the complaint to it. There will be no routine impounding of passports or issuance of Red Corner Notice for NRI accused. Personal appearance of all family members and particularly outstation members may not be required. However, these directions will not apply to the offences involving tangible physical injuries.

Report: The report would be on “the factual aspects and its opinion” in the matter. Till report of the committee is received, no arrest should normally be effected. The report may be then considered by the investigating officer or the magistrate on its own merit.

Investigating officers: Complaints under Section 498A and other connected offences may be investigated only by a designated investigating officer of the area. Such designations should be made within one month. Such designated officers may be given training for not less than a week or as may be considered appropriate. The training has to be completed within four months.

Bail: If a bail application is filed with at least one clear day’s notice to the Public Prosecutor/complainant, it should be decided as far as possible on the same day.

20) With reference to the Islands Development Agency (IDA), consider the following statements:

  1. Its meetings are chaired by the Union Finance Minister
  2. IDA seeks to improve maritime economy, preserving the eco-system and addressing security concerns of islands

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2


Solution: b)


Ten islands from Andaman and Nicobar and Lakshadweep have been identified by the government for improving maritime economy, preserving the eco-system and addressing security concerns. The decision was taken at the first meeting of the newly- constituted Islands Development Agency (IDA).

About IDA:

The IDA was set up on June 1 this year following Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s review meeting for the development of islands.

  • The meetings of the agency are chaired by the Union Home Minister.
  • Members of the IDA include cabinet secretary, home secretary, secretary (environment, forests and climate change), secretary (tourism) and secretary (tribal welfare).

21) In which part of India do you find following islands?

  1. Tinnakara
  2. Cherium
  3. Suheli
  4. Bangaram

Select the correct answer from following options:

a) Andaman and Nicobar

b) Mouth of Ganges – Brahmaputra delta

c) Lakshadweep

d) None of the above


Solution: c)


It’s related to above question. These islands are few of the Ten islands chosen by IDA to develop holistically.

Smith, Ross, Aves, Long and Little Andaman in Andaman and Nicobar, and Minicoy, Bangaram, Suheli, Cherium and Tinnakara in Lakshadweep are those selected in the first IDA meeting chaired by Union Home Minister.


22) With reference to the JIGYASA initiative, consider the following statements:

  1. It is an initiative of ISRO to inspire students to take up space research
  2. This initiative allows students to visit ISRO centres to gain practical exposure to cutting edge space research
  3. As of now, students from Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalayas and Kendriya Vidyalayas are allowed to benefit from this initiative

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) 3 Only

d) None of the above


Solution: d)



Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR), has joined hands with Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan (KVS) to implement this programme. The focus is on connecting school students and scientists so as to extend student’s classroom learning with that of a very well planned research laboratory based learning.

  • The “JIGYASA” would inculcate the culture of inquisitiveness on one hand and scientific temper on the other, amongst the school students and their teachers.
  • The Programme is expected to connect 1151 Kendriya Vidyalayas with 38 National Laboratories of CSIR targeting 100,000 students and nearly 1000 teachers annually.
  • The program will also enable the students and teachers to practically live the theoretical concepts taught in science by visiting CSIR laboratories and by participating in mini-science projects.



23) With reference to the India-UN Development Partnership Fund, consider the following statements:


  1. This Fund seeks to support transformational sustainable development projects across the developing world
  2. This Fund is managed by the United Nations Office for South-South Cooperation
  3. This Fund is supported and led by the Government of the Republic of India

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 Only

b) 2 and 3 Only

c) 1 and 3 Only

d) 1,2 and 3



Solution: B



The India-UN Development Partnership Fund is a dedicated facility within the United Nations Fund for South-South Cooperation established in 2017. It is supported and led by the Government of the Republic of India, managed by the United Nations Office for South-South Cooperation, and implemented in collaboration with the United Nations system.


 The India-UN Development Partnership Fund supports Southern-owned and led, demand-driven, and transformational sustainable development projects across the developing world, with a focus on least developed countries and small island developing states. United Nations agencies implement the Funds projects in close collaboration with partnering governments.


24) With reference to the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP), consider the following statements:


  1. It is established between ten ASEAN members and six of their FTA partners
  2. The members of RCEP have agreed to create binding norms on opening up the e-commerce sector between them

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2


Solution: a)


n order to broaden and deepen the engagement among parties and to enhance parties’ participation in economic development of the region, the leaders of 16 participating countries established the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP). The RCEP was built upon the existing ASEAN+1 FTAs with the spirit to strengthen economic linkages and to enhance trade and investment related activities as well as to contribute to minimising development gap among the parties.


Second statement is wrong as India is opposed to it. (refer current affairs link above)


25) Bihugeet’ songs

  1. Are a distinctive type of folk song of Assam
  2. Celebrate the life-sustaining character of the Brahmaputra

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2


Solution: c)


“Assam’s Bihugeet songs celebrate the many colours of the Brahmaputra and its life-sustaining character, with stirring renditions by Bhupen Hazarika in praise of the grit of its people in their most challenging moment — when the river turns furious during the monsoon and floods the plains.”

  • CCRT: Bihu songs (bihu geet) are the most distinctive type of folk songs of Assam, both for their literary content and for their musical mode. Bihu songs are blessings for a happy new year and the dance is associated with an ancient fertility cult. It is Bihu time when an opportunity is there for marriageable young men and women to exchange their feelings and even to choose their partners.