FREE IAS ONLINE MOCK TEST – 5
29 July 2016
Questions Based on This UPDATE
This is a Full Length Mock Test (No 28) of Insights Test Series 2016. This online mock test is posted for free for your revision purpose. Please leave behind your critical feedback. Hope you like the test.
Good Scores for this Test
(After Negative marking)
This test is EASY compared to Tests 25, 26, 27 and 28.
147 was the highest score in this test in our Offline Class and 160+ was highest in the Online test. However, majority scores were concentrated between 100 to 110.
Score Less than 100 – Intensive Revision is Very Much Needed. Work very hard.
Score between 100 to 110 – You might be near cut-off mark. Your marks should be way above cutoff. Needs lots of revision.
Score 110 to 125 – Kind of Safe, but you need to revise a lot to focus completely on Mains.
Score 125 and 140 – You can breathe easy. But revision helps score even better and cosu fully on Mains
Score 140 and above – You are smart and hard working. Continue to work hard.
If someone is scoring 170+ in this test, don’t panic! They must be solving this test for second or third time
Above scores are rough guesses and are for this test only. Please do not compare with UPSC cutoff.
NOTE: Some minor mistakes have been corrected in this test as per Discussions Here. If you find any more mistakes, please let us know in the comment box. Thank you
PLEASE DO NOT CHEAT!
(Remember Mains GS – 4 syllabus? Want to score more there?)
Insights Prelims 2016 Revision Tests
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The following Quiz is based on Topics given under Insights Revision Plan for Prelims 2016 (Click Here for timetable)
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- Answered
- Review
- Question 1 of 100
1. Question
2 pointsThe Union Cabinet has approved some key decisions during 2013-15 related to Bioethanol and Biodiesel for implementation of National Policy on Biofuels in. Which of the following is among one of them?
CorrectSolution: d)
Justification: The following decisions were approved.
- Sugarcane or sugarcane juice may not be used for production of ethanol and it be produced only from Molasses. So, (a) is incorrect.
- Ethanol produced from other non-food feedstocks besides molasses like cellulosic and ligno cellulosic materials and including petrochemical route, may be allowed to be procured subject to meeting the relevant BIS standards. So, (b) is incorrect.
- Private biodiesel manufacturers should be acknowledged. , their authorized dealers
- Marketing rights be given to the Private biodiesel Manufacturers, their authorised dealers and for direct sales to consumers.
- The price of bio-diesel will be market determined. So, (c) is incorrect.
In view of above and also in the interest of meeting out the blending targets of the Biofuel Policy, it is requested to kindly take necessary measures for implementation of the above decisions for biodiesel blending in diesel as well as use of B100 as standalone fuel subject to BIS standards and guidelines prescribed by MoPNG.
Q Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/mbErel.aspx?relid=124076
IncorrectSolution: d)
Justification: The following decisions were approved.
- Sugarcane or sugarcane juice may not be used for production of ethanol and it be produced only from Molasses. So, (a) is incorrect.
- Ethanol produced from other non-food feedstocks besides molasses like cellulosic and ligno cellulosic materials and including petrochemical route, may be allowed to be procured subject to meeting the relevant BIS standards. So, (b) is incorrect.
- Private biodiesel manufacturers should be acknowledged. , their authorized dealers
- Marketing rights be given to the Private biodiesel Manufacturers, their authorised dealers and for direct sales to consumers.
- The price of bio-diesel will be market determined. So, (c) is incorrect.
In view of above and also in the interest of meeting out the blending targets of the Biofuel Policy, it is requested to kindly take necessary measures for implementation of the above decisions for biodiesel blending in diesel as well as use of B100 as standalone fuel subject to BIS standards and guidelines prescribed by MoPNG.
Q Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/mbErel.aspx?relid=124076
- Question 2 of 100
2. Question
2 pointsConsider the following about bills referred to a Joint Committee of the Parliament.
- A Joint Committee cannot recommend amendment of the bill, and can only record its observations on the bill.
- A Money bill cannot be referred to a Joint Committee of the Houses.
Which of the above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: b)
Justification: Statement 1: If a Bill is referred to a Select or a Joint Committee, it considers the Bill clause-by-clause just as the House does. Amendments can be moved to the various clauses by the members of the Committee.
After the report of the Select or Joint Committee has been presented to the House, the member-in-charge of the Bill usually moves the motion for consideration of the Bill, as reported by the Select or Joint Committee, as the case may be.
Statement 2: A Money Bill or a Financial Bill containing any of the provisions calculated to make a Bill a Money Bill, however, cannot be referred to a Joint Committee of the Houses. This is because RS has no powers of amending a money bill.
Q Source: http://164.100.47.192/Loksabha/Legislation/Legislation.aspx
IncorrectSolution: b)
Justification: Statement 1: If a Bill is referred to a Select or a Joint Committee, it considers the Bill clause-by-clause just as the House does. Amendments can be moved to the various clauses by the members of the Committee.
After the report of the Select or Joint Committee has been presented to the House, the member-in-charge of the Bill usually moves the motion for consideration of the Bill, as reported by the Select or Joint Committee, as the case may be.
Statement 2: A Money Bill or a Financial Bill containing any of the provisions calculated to make a Bill a Money Bill, however, cannot be referred to a Joint Committee of the Houses. This is because RS has no powers of amending a money bill.
Q Source: http://164.100.47.192/Loksabha/Legislation/Legislation.aspx
- Question 3 of 100
3. Question
2 pointsThe Coal resources of India are available in
- Old Gondwana Formations of peninsular India
- Young Tertiary formations of north-eastern region
Which of the above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: c)
Justification: Different regions in India contain rocks of all types belonging to different geologic periods
India can be divided into several divisions such as Archean System, Dharwar System, Cudappah system, Vindhyan system, Paleozoic,Mesozoic, Gondwana, Deccan Trap, Tertiary and Alluvial.
Statement 1: India’s geographical land area can be classified into Deccan trap, Gondwana and Vindhyan.
This system contains famous Damuda and Panchet series which are famous for coal deposits.
The important coal bearing areas of this series are Raniganj, Jharia, Karanpur, and Bokaro of the Damodar basin in Odisha, and the Pench valley in Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh, the jhingurda coal seam (Chhattisgarh).
Statement 2: The Tertiary rock system belongs to Cenozoic era.
The final break-up of the Gondwana land occurred in this era and the Tethys sea got lifted in the Himalayas.
The rocks of this era have valuable deposits of petroleum and coal.
Also, Hard coal deposit spread over 27 major coalfields, are mainly confined to eastern and south central parts of the the country. The lignite reserves stand at a level around 36 billion tonnes, of which 90 % occur in the southern State of Tamil Nadu.
Q Source: http://coal.gov.in/content/coal-indian-energy-choice
IncorrectSolution: c)
Justification: Different regions in India contain rocks of all types belonging to different geologic periods
India can be divided into several divisions such as Archean System, Dharwar System, Cudappah system, Vindhyan system, Paleozoic,Mesozoic, Gondwana, Deccan Trap, Tertiary and Alluvial.
Statement 1: India’s geographical land area can be classified into Deccan trap, Gondwana and Vindhyan.
This system contains famous Damuda and Panchet series which are famous for coal deposits.
The important coal bearing areas of this series are Raniganj, Jharia, Karanpur, and Bokaro of the Damodar basin in Odisha, and the Pench valley in Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh, the jhingurda coal seam (Chhattisgarh).
Statement 2: The Tertiary rock system belongs to Cenozoic era.
The final break-up of the Gondwana land occurred in this era and the Tethys sea got lifted in the Himalayas.
The rocks of this era have valuable deposits of petroleum and coal.
Also, Hard coal deposit spread over 27 major coalfields, are mainly confined to eastern and south central parts of the the country. The lignite reserves stand at a level around 36 billion tonnes, of which 90 % occur in the southern State of Tamil Nadu.
Q Source: http://coal.gov.in/content/coal-indian-energy-choice
- Question 4 of 100
4. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following recommendations of Acworth Committee (1920-21) recently became a matter of national debate?
CorrectSolution: a)
Learning: Pursuant to the recommendations of the Acworth Committee (1920-21), Railway Finances were separated in 1924 for General Finances primarily to secure stability for civil estimates by providing for an assured contribution from Railway Revenues and also to introduce flexibility in the administration of Railway Finances.
Recently NITI Ayog submitted a note to the GoI suggesting that this separation be done away with to reduce populism in railways budgets.
You can read more at the Q Source.
IncorrectSolution: a)
Learning: Pursuant to the recommendations of the Acworth Committee (1920-21), Railway Finances were separated in 1924 for General Finances primarily to secure stability for civil estimates by providing for an assured contribution from Railway Revenues and also to introduce flexibility in the administration of Railway Finances.
Recently NITI Ayog submitted a note to the GoI suggesting that this separation be done away with to reduce populism in railways budgets.
You can read more at the Q Source.
- Question 5 of 100
5. Question
2 pointsThe Lucknow Session (1916) of the Indian National Congress resulted in
- Formation of a notional body that would serve as the future constituent assembly of India
- Demand of Swaraj to the British government
- Merger of moderates and extremists factions of Indian National Congress (INC)
- An agreement for coordinated action against British Rule by INC and Muslim league
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
CorrectSolution: b)
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: These happened much after starting from the Lahore session (Swaraj) and reaching to the formation of constituent assembly after cabinet Mission plan (1946).
Statement 3 and 4: During the 1916 Congress session at Lucknow two major events occurred. The divided Congress became united. An understanding for joint action against the British was reached between the Congress and the Muslim League and it was called the Lucknow Pact.
The signing of the Lucknow Pact by the Congress and the Muslim League in 1916 marked an important step in the Hindu-Muslim unity.
Q Source: 12th TN History Textbook
IncorrectSolution: b)
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: These happened much after starting from the Lahore session (Swaraj) and reaching to the formation of constituent assembly after cabinet Mission plan (1946).
Statement 3 and 4: During the 1916 Congress session at Lucknow two major events occurred. The divided Congress became united. An understanding for joint action against the British was reached between the Congress and the Muslim League and it was called the Lucknow Pact.
The signing of the Lucknow Pact by the Congress and the Muslim League in 1916 marked an important step in the Hindu-Muslim unity.
Q Source: 12th TN History Textbook
- Question 6 of 100
6. Question
2 pointsThe Reserve Bank of India (RBI) regulates which of the following aspects of Commercial Banks in India?
- Issuance of licences for opening of banks
- Expansion and approval of Indian banks to operate overseas
- Monitoring maintenance of SLR and CRR by banks
- Dealing with policy issues relating to services provided to the customers by banks
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
CorrectSolution: d)
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: Licences for opening of banks; ‘Authorisations’ for opening of branches by banks in India, governing foreign banks entry and expansion and approval of Indian banks to operate overseas etc. are regulated by RBI.
Statement 3: Policy formulation, review and implementation on Prudential Norms, Basel – II and III frameworks, validation of quantitative models on Credit, Market and Operational Risks, Stress testing, CRR, SLR adherence etc are also seen by the RBI.
It also approves appointments of chief executive officers (private sector and foreign banks) and their compensation packages.
Statement 4: The essential idea is that the banks should not exploit the consumers that are often laymen when it comes to a technical field like banking.
For e.g. some time back many banks came with teaser home loans, which promised ultra low fixed interest rates in the initial years, only to be hiked later. This practice was severely discouraged by RBI. You can read about it here http://www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion/all-you-wanted-to-know-about-teaser-home-loans/article7575686.ece
Q Source: https://www.rbi.org.in/scripts/FS_Overview.aspx?fn=2
IncorrectSolution: d)
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: Licences for opening of banks; ‘Authorisations’ for opening of branches by banks in India, governing foreign banks entry and expansion and approval of Indian banks to operate overseas etc. are regulated by RBI.
Statement 3: Policy formulation, review and implementation on Prudential Norms, Basel – II and III frameworks, validation of quantitative models on Credit, Market and Operational Risks, Stress testing, CRR, SLR adherence etc are also seen by the RBI.
It also approves appointments of chief executive officers (private sector and foreign banks) and their compensation packages.
Statement 4: The essential idea is that the banks should not exploit the consumers that are often laymen when it comes to a technical field like banking.
For e.g. some time back many banks came with teaser home loans, which promised ultra low fixed interest rates in the initial years, only to be hiked later. This practice was severely discouraged by RBI. You can read about it here http://www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion/all-you-wanted-to-know-about-teaser-home-loans/article7575686.ece
Q Source: https://www.rbi.org.in/scripts/FS_Overview.aspx?fn=2
- Question 7 of 100
7. Question
2 pointsIndia’s Reusable Launch Vehicle-Technology Demonstrator (RLV-TD) is beneficial as it would help to
CorrectSolution: a)
Learning: The cost of access to space is the major deterrent in space exploration and space utilization. A reusable launch vehicle is the unanimous solution to achieve low cost, reliable and on-demand space access.
Reusable Launch Vehicle-Technology Demonstration Program or RLV-TD is a series of technology demonstration missions that have been considered as a first step towards realizing a Two Stage To Orbit (TSTO) fully re-usable vehicle.
A Winged Reusable Launch Vehicle technology Demonstrator (RLV-TD) has been configured to act as a flying test bed to evaluate various technologies, namely, hypersonic flight, autonomous landing, powered cruise flight and hypersonic flight using air-breathing propulsion.
These technologies will be developed in phases through a series of experimental flights.
Q Source: ISRO Website
IncorrectSolution: a)
Learning: The cost of access to space is the major deterrent in space exploration and space utilization. A reusable launch vehicle is the unanimous solution to achieve low cost, reliable and on-demand space access.
Reusable Launch Vehicle-Technology Demonstration Program or RLV-TD is a series of technology demonstration missions that have been considered as a first step towards realizing a Two Stage To Orbit (TSTO) fully re-usable vehicle.
A Winged Reusable Launch Vehicle technology Demonstrator (RLV-TD) has been configured to act as a flying test bed to evaluate various technologies, namely, hypersonic flight, autonomous landing, powered cruise flight and hypersonic flight using air-breathing propulsion.
These technologies will be developed in phases through a series of experimental flights.
Q Source: ISRO Website
- Question 8 of 100
8. Question
2 pointsUruguay round is mentioned in the context of
CorrectSolution: a)
Learning: The Uruguay Round was the 8th round of multilateral trade negotiations (MTN) conducted within the framework of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), spanning from 1986 to 1994 and embracing 123 countries as “contracting parties”.
The Round led to the creation of the World Trade Organization, with GATT remaining as an integral part of the WTO agreements.
The broad mandate of the Round had been to extend GATT trade rules to areas previously exempted as too difficult to liberalize (agriculture, textiles) and increasingly important new areas previously not included (trade in services, intellectual property, investment policy trade distortions)
Q Source: WTO Website
IncorrectSolution: a)
Learning: The Uruguay Round was the 8th round of multilateral trade negotiations (MTN) conducted within the framework of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), spanning from 1986 to 1994 and embracing 123 countries as “contracting parties”.
The Round led to the creation of the World Trade Organization, with GATT remaining as an integral part of the WTO agreements.
The broad mandate of the Round had been to extend GATT trade rules to areas previously exempted as too difficult to liberalize (agriculture, textiles) and increasingly important new areas previously not included (trade in services, intellectual property, investment policy trade distortions)
Q Source: WTO Website
- Question 9 of 100
9. Question
2 points“At the commencement of the first session after each general election to the House of the People and at the commencement of the first session of each year the President shall address both Houses of Parliament assembled together and inform Parliament of the causes of its summons.” This is a
CorrectSolution: a)
Learning: Article 87(1) of the Constitution provides for this.
This is the case of the first session after each general election to the Lok Sabha, the President addresses both Houses of Parliament assembled together after the Members have made and subscribed the oath or affirmation and the Speaker has been elected.
It takes generally two days to complete these preliminaries. No other business is transacted tilt the President has addressed both Houses of Parliament assembled together and informed Parliament of the Government’s agenda.
IncorrectSolution: a)
Learning: Article 87(1) of the Constitution provides for this.
This is the case of the first session after each general election to the Lok Sabha, the President addresses both Houses of Parliament assembled together after the Members have made and subscribed the oath or affirmation and the Speaker has been elected.
It takes generally two days to complete these preliminaries. No other business is transacted tilt the President has addressed both Houses of Parliament assembled together and informed Parliament of the Government’s agenda.
- Question 10 of 100
10. Question
2 pointsThe largest potential for small hydro projects lies in
CorrectSolution: a)
Justification: Small hydro is often developed using existing dams or through development of new dams whose primary purpose is river and lake water-level control, or irrigation.
So, small hydro projects require flowing streams, better if streams are perennial and flow at a fast speed. Himalayan region provides a perfect potential ground. So, (a) is correct.
In Coastal region, stream velocity becomes very low, so (d) can’t be the answer.
There are not many streams in Central India and Western India when we compare them to Himalayan states. So, (c) and (b) aren’t the answer.
Also, states were irrigation canals are dominant small hydro can be generated.
Q Source: http://www.mnre.gov.in/schemes/grid-connected/small-hydro/
IncorrectSolution: a)
Justification: Small hydro is often developed using existing dams or through development of new dams whose primary purpose is river and lake water-level control, or irrigation.
So, small hydro projects require flowing streams, better if streams are perennial and flow at a fast speed. Himalayan region provides a perfect potential ground. So, (a) is correct.
In Coastal region, stream velocity becomes very low, so (d) can’t be the answer.
There are not many streams in Central India and Western India when we compare them to Himalayan states. So, (c) and (b) aren’t the answer.
Also, states were irrigation canals are dominant small hydro can be generated.
Q Source: http://www.mnre.gov.in/schemes/grid-connected/small-hydro/
- Question 11 of 100
11. Question
2 pointsArsenic is released in the environment as a part of its natural cycle as a result of
- Volcanic eruptions
- Mining
- Acidification of water bodies
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
CorrectSolution: a)
Justification: The Arsenic cycle has been explained well in the image below.
Q Source: http://jnuenvis.nic.in/arsenic.html
IncorrectSolution: a)
Justification: The Arsenic cycle has been explained well in the image below.
Q Source: http://jnuenvis.nic.in/arsenic.html
- Question 12 of 100
12. Question
2 pointsWith reference to Indian freedom struggle, Anusilan Samiti, Jugantar and Abhinav Bharat were
CorrectSolution: a)
Learning: In the first half of the 20th century, revolutionary groups sprang up mainly in Bengal, Maharashtra, Punjab and Madras.
- The revolutionaries were not satisfied with the methods of both the moderates and extremists.
- Hence, they started many revolutionary secret organizations. In Bengal Anusilan Samiti and Jugantar were established.
- In Maharashtra Savarkar brothers had set up Abhinava Bharat.
- In the Madras Presidency, Bharathmatha Association was started by Nilakanta Bramachari.
- In London, at India House, Shyamji Krishna Verma gathered young Indian nationalists like Madan Lal Dhingra, Savarkar, V.V.S. Iyer and T.S.S.Rajan. Lala Hardyal set up the ‘Ghadar Party’ in USA to organise revolutionary activities from outside India.
Q Source: 12th TN History Textbook
IncorrectSolution: a)
Learning: In the first half of the 20th century, revolutionary groups sprang up mainly in Bengal, Maharashtra, Punjab and Madras.
- The revolutionaries were not satisfied with the methods of both the moderates and extremists.
- Hence, they started many revolutionary secret organizations. In Bengal Anusilan Samiti and Jugantar were established.
- In Maharashtra Savarkar brothers had set up Abhinava Bharat.
- In the Madras Presidency, Bharathmatha Association was started by Nilakanta Bramachari.
- In London, at India House, Shyamji Krishna Verma gathered young Indian nationalists like Madan Lal Dhingra, Savarkar, V.V.S. Iyer and T.S.S.Rajan. Lala Hardyal set up the ‘Ghadar Party’ in USA to organise revolutionary activities from outside India.
Q Source: 12th TN History Textbook
- Question 13 of 100
13. Question
2 pointsMany development and industrial projects such as erection of dams, mining, and construction of industries or roads require diversion of forest land. Consider the regulatory aspects of it.
- Any project proponent, government or private must apply for forest clearance from Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC), before the conversion of land takes place.
- The compensation for the lost forest land is decided by the MoEFCC and the regulators.
Which of the above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: c)
Learning: With a cover of 23% of Geographical area of the country, forest in India comprise of a number of diverse forest types and reserved areas designated as National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries.
Statement 1: Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) are meant to promote afforestation and regeneration activities as a way of compensating for forest land diverted to non-forest uses.
Statement 2: This proposal is to be submitted through the concerned forest department of the state government. If clearance is given, then compensation for the lost forest land is also to be decided by the ministry and the regulators.
IncorrectSolution: c)
Learning: With a cover of 23% of Geographical area of the country, forest in India comprise of a number of diverse forest types and reserved areas designated as National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries.
Statement 1: Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) are meant to promote afforestation and regeneration activities as a way of compensating for forest land diverted to non-forest uses.
Statement 2: This proposal is to be submitted through the concerned forest department of the state government. If clearance is given, then compensation for the lost forest land is also to be decided by the ministry and the regulators.
- Question 14 of 100
14. Question
2 pointsUbiquitous computing is an emerging domain referring to
CorrectSolution: b)
Learning: It is the growing trend towards embedding microprocessors in everyday objects so they can communicate information.
The words pervasive and ubiquitous mean “existing everywhere.” Pervasive computing devices are completely connected and constantly available.
Pervasive computing relies on the convergence of wireless technologies, advanced electronics and the Internet.
The image below will clear its meaning.
IncorrectSolution: b)
Learning: It is the growing trend towards embedding microprocessors in everyday objects so they can communicate information.
The words pervasive and ubiquitous mean “existing everywhere.” Pervasive computing devices are completely connected and constantly available.
Pervasive computing relies on the convergence of wireless technologies, advanced electronics and the Internet.
The image below will clear its meaning.
- Question 15 of 100
15. Question
2 pointsNiyamgiri Hills, Odisha, was in news sometime back due to
CorrectSolution: d)
Learning: Niyamgiri hills – home to Dongria Kondhs, a primitive tribal group, a few hundred Kutia Kondhs and other forest-dwellers — is considered sacred by the indigenous tribes and others as it is the abode of Niyamraja, their presiding deity.
Vedanta was to be given license to mine bauxite in the hills.
But, SC intervened citing the violation of tribal’s cultural rights and ordered conducting referendum against the mining order of the government.
After the unanimous resolution opposing mining was adopted, Vedanta had to buckle down.
This is the first time an environmental referendum is conducted on a directive by the Supreme Court to find out whether mining in Niyamgiri will tantamount to an infringement of the religious, community and individual rights of local forest-dwellers.
IncorrectSolution: d)
Learning: Niyamgiri hills – home to Dongria Kondhs, a primitive tribal group, a few hundred Kutia Kondhs and other forest-dwellers — is considered sacred by the indigenous tribes and others as it is the abode of Niyamraja, their presiding deity.
Vedanta was to be given license to mine bauxite in the hills.
But, SC intervened citing the violation of tribal’s cultural rights and ordered conducting referendum against the mining order of the government.
After the unanimous resolution opposing mining was adopted, Vedanta had to buckle down.
This is the first time an environmental referendum is conducted on a directive by the Supreme Court to find out whether mining in Niyamgiri will tantamount to an infringement of the religious, community and individual rights of local forest-dwellers.
- Question 16 of 100
16. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following core industries has seen a consistent decline in production year on year for some time?
CorrectSolution: b)
Learning: The Natural Gas production (weight: 1.71 %) decreased by 6.9 % in May, 2016 over May, 2015. Its cumulative index during April to May, 2016-17 declined by 6.9 % over the corresponding period of previous year. Moreover, it has seen a consistent fall in output since 2011-12.
Best performing sector is electricity. (Please see the image below)
Q Source: http://commerce.nic.in/DOC/PressRelease.aspx?Id=6346
IncorrectSolution: b)
Learning: The Natural Gas production (weight: 1.71 %) decreased by 6.9 % in May, 2016 over May, 2015. Its cumulative index during April to May, 2016-17 declined by 6.9 % over the corresponding period of previous year. Moreover, it has seen a consistent fall in output since 2011-12.
Best performing sector is electricity. (Please see the image below)
Q Source: http://commerce.nic.in/DOC/PressRelease.aspx?Id=6346
- Question 17 of 100
17. Question
2 pointsConsider the following about Swaraj Party.
- It was formed after the ideological split within Congress in the Gaya session due to the calling off of the Non-cooperation movement.
- It demanded the setting up of responsible government in India with the necessary changes in the Government of India Act of 1919.
- Motilal Nehru and C.R. Das were associated with the party.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
CorrectSolution: d)
Justification: Statement 1: The suspension of the Non-Cooperation Movement led to an ideological split within Congress in the Gaya session of the Congress in December 1922. Leaders like Motilal Nehru and Chittranjan Das formed a separate group within the Congress known as the Swaraj Party in January 1923, as they belived in the Council entry programme (severely opposed by Gandhi).
Statement 2 and 3: The Swarajists wanted to contest the council elections and wreck the government from within.
Elections to Legislative Councils were held in November 1923. In this, the Swaraj Party gained impressive successes. In the Central Legislative Council Motilal Nehru became the leader of the party whereas in Bengal the party was headed by C.R. Das.
The Swaraj Party did several significant things in the Legislative Council including demanding a responsible government.
Q Source: 12th TN History Textbook
IncorrectSolution: d)
Justification: Statement 1: The suspension of the Non-Cooperation Movement led to an ideological split within Congress in the Gaya session of the Congress in December 1922. Leaders like Motilal Nehru and Chittranjan Das formed a separate group within the Congress known as the Swaraj Party in January 1923, as they belived in the Council entry programme (severely opposed by Gandhi).
Statement 2 and 3: The Swarajists wanted to contest the council elections and wreck the government from within.
Elections to Legislative Councils were held in November 1923. In this, the Swaraj Party gained impressive successes. In the Central Legislative Council Motilal Nehru became the leader of the party whereas in Bengal the party was headed by C.R. Das.
The Swaraj Party did several significant things in the Legislative Council including demanding a responsible government.
Q Source: 12th TN History Textbook
- Question 18 of 100
18. Question
2 pointsBiodiversity Conservation & Rural Livelihood Improvement Project (BCRLIP) is being implemented by
CorrectSolution: b)
Learning: It aims at conserving Biodiversity in selected landscapes, including wildlife protected areas/critical conservation areas while improving rural livelihoods through participatory approaches.
Development of Joint Forest Management (JFM) and eco-development in some states are models of new approaches to provide benefits to both conservation and local communities.
The project intends to build on these models and expand lessons to other globally significant sites in the country to strengthen linkages between conservation and improving livelihoods of local communities that live in the neighbourhood of biodiversity rich areas-as well as to enhance the local and national economy.
Q Source: MoEF Website
IncorrectSolution: b)
Learning: It aims at conserving Biodiversity in selected landscapes, including wildlife protected areas/critical conservation areas while improving rural livelihoods through participatory approaches.
Development of Joint Forest Management (JFM) and eco-development in some states are models of new approaches to provide benefits to both conservation and local communities.
The project intends to build on these models and expand lessons to other globally significant sites in the country to strengthen linkages between conservation and improving livelihoods of local communities that live in the neighbourhood of biodiversity rich areas-as well as to enhance the local and national economy.
Q Source: MoEF Website
- Question 19 of 100
19. Question
2 pointsChaakiyarKoothu and VeethiNaatakam are
CorrectSolution: a)
Learning: Indian folk literature holds out a strong and loud message for other parts of the world where these art forms have disappeared thick and fast in consonance with rapid industrialization and globalization.
- Folk literature and folk art forms are not merely carriers of culture or philosophical poems, but rather the expressions of strong self-reflections and deep insights accrued therein.
- Simple life, self-reflection and treading the path of the righteous contained in traditions.
- Again, folk traditions are not merely platforms for holding high moral ground having no relevance to the present day reality.
- Several folk plays like ChaakiyarKoothu and VeethiNaatakam are used even today as satire plays and commentaries on the current social and political reality.
- Same holds true for many folk songs from the vast pages of Indian literature.
Q Source: Ministry of Culture website
IncorrectSolution: a)
Learning: Indian folk literature holds out a strong and loud message for other parts of the world where these art forms have disappeared thick and fast in consonance with rapid industrialization and globalization.
- Folk literature and folk art forms are not merely carriers of culture or philosophical poems, but rather the expressions of strong self-reflections and deep insights accrued therein.
- Simple life, self-reflection and treading the path of the righteous contained in traditions.
- Again, folk traditions are not merely platforms for holding high moral ground having no relevance to the present day reality.
- Several folk plays like ChaakiyarKoothu and VeethiNaatakam are used even today as satire plays and commentaries on the current social and political reality.
- Same holds true for many folk songs from the vast pages of Indian literature.
Q Source: Ministry of Culture website
- Question 20 of 100
20. Question
2 pointsPosco India expected to start steel plant construction promptly after signing the 2005 MoU with Odisha government. However, the company wasn’t able to start construction for next few years and faced several problems due to ecological and legal controversies. These were due to
CorrectSolution: a)
Learning: POSCO project has been a quite controversial project.
- A year after the 2005 MoU was signed, India’s parliament passed Forests Rights Act, which directly affected Posco-India.
- The law granted certain rights to forest-dwelling communities in India, including the use of forest land and other resources.
- Supreme Court examined the facts related to the state government of Odisha’s initiatives to enter into MoU to encourage economic growth in the state, and whether such development meets the intent of ecological and environmental laws of India.
- It ruled in favour of the state of Odisha saying such laws can’t apply retrospectively to MOUs.
- In 2010, NC Saxena committee visited Odisha and alerted MoEF about the non-recognition of forest rights by the Government of Odisha and violation of the Forest Rights Act, in the forest areas proposed to be diverted for the POSCO India project.
- The committee urged the Ministry of Environment and Forests of Government of India to withdraw the clearance given to the State Government for diversion of the forest land, which the Ministry did.
- Meena Committee was appointed in 2011, and it too accused POSCO of violating the laws. However, in 2011, the Ministry of Environment and Forests of India gave final clearance to the Posco-India project.
Q Source: http://www.moef.nic.in/sites/default/files/Possco_prjt.pdf
IncorrectSolution: a)
Learning: POSCO project has been a quite controversial project.
- A year after the 2005 MoU was signed, India’s parliament passed Forests Rights Act, which directly affected Posco-India.
- The law granted certain rights to forest-dwelling communities in India, including the use of forest land and other resources.
- Supreme Court examined the facts related to the state government of Odisha’s initiatives to enter into MoU to encourage economic growth in the state, and whether such development meets the intent of ecological and environmental laws of India.
- It ruled in favour of the state of Odisha saying such laws can’t apply retrospectively to MOUs.
- In 2010, NC Saxena committee visited Odisha and alerted MoEF about the non-recognition of forest rights by the Government of Odisha and violation of the Forest Rights Act, in the forest areas proposed to be diverted for the POSCO India project.
- The committee urged the Ministry of Environment and Forests of Government of India to withdraw the clearance given to the State Government for diversion of the forest land, which the Ministry did.
- Meena Committee was appointed in 2011, and it too accused POSCO of violating the laws. However, in 2011, the Ministry of Environment and Forests of India gave final clearance to the Posco-India project.
Q Source: http://www.moef.nic.in/sites/default/files/Possco_prjt.pdf
- Question 21 of 100
21. Question
2 pointsThe structural part of the Constitution is largely derived from the
CorrectSolution: d)
Justification: Provincial autonomy, administrative structure, the establishment of a Federal Court, provision for the establishment of a “Federation of India”, a representative government and many more features were borrowed directly from the GoI Act 1935.
Learning: The philosophical part of the Constitution (the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy) derives its inspiration from the American and Irish Constitutions respectively.
The political part of the Constitution (the principle of Cabinet Government and the relations between the executive and the legislature) has been largely drawn from the British Constitution.
Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
IncorrectSolution: d)
Justification: Provincial autonomy, administrative structure, the establishment of a Federal Court, provision for the establishment of a “Federation of India”, a representative government and many more features were borrowed directly from the GoI Act 1935.
Learning: The philosophical part of the Constitution (the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy) derives its inspiration from the American and Irish Constitutions respectively.
The political part of the Constitution (the principle of Cabinet Government and the relations between the executive and the legislature) has been largely drawn from the British Constitution.
Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
- Question 22 of 100
22. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following is the primary objective of monetary policy in India?
CorrectSolution: c)
Justification: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is vested with the responsibility of conducting monetary policy with the primary objective of maintaining price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth. This responsibility is explicitly mandated under the Reserve Bank of India Act, as amended in 2016.
It is now transferred to the Monetary Policy Committee, which will also face the same primary objective, i.e. to keep inflation within an acceptable band.
If inflation is in control, prices will be relatively stable.
Q Source: RBI Website
IncorrectSolution: c)
Justification: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is vested with the responsibility of conducting monetary policy with the primary objective of maintaining price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth. This responsibility is explicitly mandated under the Reserve Bank of India Act, as amended in 2016.
It is now transferred to the Monetary Policy Committee, which will also face the same primary objective, i.e. to keep inflation within an acceptable band.
If inflation is in control, prices will be relatively stable.
Q Source: RBI Website
- Question 23 of 100
23. Question
2 pointsCommunal representation was for the first time by way of separate electorates was introduced by
CorrectSolution: b)
Leaning: The Minto- Morley reforms never desired to set up a parliamentary form of government in India.
- The principle of election to the councils was legally recognized. But communal representation was for the first time introduced in the interests of Muslims. Separate electorates were provided for the Muslims.
- The number of members in provincial legislative councils of major provinces was raised to 50.
- The Councils were given right to discuss and pass resolutions on the Budget and on all matters of public interest. However, the Governor-General had the power to disallow discussion on the budget.
- An Indian member was appointed for the first time to the Governor-General’s Executive Council. Sir S. P. Sinha wasthe first Indian to be appointed thus.
Q Source: 12th TN History Textbook
IncorrectSolution: b)
Leaning: The Minto- Morley reforms never desired to set up a parliamentary form of government in India.
- The principle of election to the councils was legally recognized. But communal representation was for the first time introduced in the interests of Muslims. Separate electorates were provided for the Muslims.
- The number of members in provincial legislative councils of major provinces was raised to 50.
- The Councils were given right to discuss and pass resolutions on the Budget and on all matters of public interest. However, the Governor-General had the power to disallow discussion on the budget.
- An Indian member was appointed for the first time to the Governor-General’s Executive Council. Sir S. P. Sinha wasthe first Indian to be appointed thus.
Q Source: 12th TN History Textbook
- Question 24 of 100
24. Question
2 pointsConsider the following about Saharia tribes.
- They are migratory tribes and originally belong to West Asia.
- They can be found living in Central India.
- They do not follow any religion and worship only natural forces.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
CorrectSolution: d)
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: Sahariya is an indigenous Munda-speaking tribe in the Madhya Pradesh province of India. The Saharias are mainly found in the districts of Morena, Sheopur, Bhind, Gwalior, Datia, Shivpuri, Vidisha and Guna districts of Madhya Pradesh and Baran district of Rajasthan.
They are a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PTGS).
Statement 3: Some sources indicate that they take part in Hindu Festivals, and worship Hindu Gods and Goddesses.
Q Source: http://tribal.nic.in/WriteReadData/CMS/Documents/201306030204039113751StatewisePTGsList.pdf
IncorrectSolution: d)
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: Sahariya is an indigenous Munda-speaking tribe in the Madhya Pradesh province of India. The Saharias are mainly found in the districts of Morena, Sheopur, Bhind, Gwalior, Datia, Shivpuri, Vidisha and Guna districts of Madhya Pradesh and Baran district of Rajasthan.
They are a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PTGS).
Statement 3: Some sources indicate that they take part in Hindu Festivals, and worship Hindu Gods and Goddesses.
Q Source: http://tribal.nic.in/WriteReadData/CMS/Documents/201306030204039113751StatewisePTGsList.pdf
- Question 25 of 100
25. Question
2 pointsThe Union environment ministry has banned the manufacture and import of polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) and directed complete prohibition on its use in any form by the end of 2025. Why is there concern about the use of PCBs?
- PCBs are persistent organic pollutants (POPs).
- PCBs are highly inflammable and volatile.
- PCBs are carcinogens.
Which of the above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: d)
Justification: The ‘Regulation of Polychlorinated Biphenyls Order, 2016’ bans import of equipment containing PCBs.
What are PCBs?
- PCBs are synthetic organic chemicals that were initially accepted as an important industrial breakthrough for various usages, but were later found to be highly toxic, leading to demands for a ban on it or reducing its use.
- They were used in the manufacture of electrical equipment, heat exchangers and other materials.
Issues
- The government’s decision is in line with the Stockholm Convention, under which signatory countries are to prohibit or take necessary legal and administrative measures to eliminate the production and use of PCBs. India signed it in 2002.
- PCBs are persistent organic pollutants (POPs) and are recognised by the International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) as Group 1 carcinogens or cancer-causing substances.
- Studies have also found that exposure to PCBs leads to serious health problems—acute and chronic—like skin rashes, skin and fingernail pigmentation changes, disturbances in liver function and the immune system, irritation of the respiratory tract, depression, memory loss, nervousness, impotence, elevated risk of cardiovascular disease, hypertension and diabetes, liver damage and others.
- As per estimates, 10,000 tonnes of PCBs have been recorded in India, especially in the power sector. Though India never manufactured it but we have stockpiles of it.
Q Source: MoEF Website (Orders section)
IncorrectSolution: d)
Justification: The ‘Regulation of Polychlorinated Biphenyls Order, 2016’ bans import of equipment containing PCBs.
What are PCBs?
- PCBs are synthetic organic chemicals that were initially accepted as an important industrial breakthrough for various usages, but were later found to be highly toxic, leading to demands for a ban on it or reducing its use.
- They were used in the manufacture of electrical equipment, heat exchangers and other materials.
Issues
- The government’s decision is in line with the Stockholm Convention, under which signatory countries are to prohibit or take necessary legal and administrative measures to eliminate the production and use of PCBs. India signed it in 2002.
- PCBs are persistent organic pollutants (POPs) and are recognised by the International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) as Group 1 carcinogens or cancer-causing substances.
- Studies have also found that exposure to PCBs leads to serious health problems—acute and chronic—like skin rashes, skin and fingernail pigmentation changes, disturbances in liver function and the immune system, irritation of the respiratory tract, depression, memory loss, nervousness, impotence, elevated risk of cardiovascular disease, hypertension and diabetes, liver damage and others.
- As per estimates, 10,000 tonnes of PCBs have been recorded in India, especially in the power sector. Though India never manufactured it but we have stockpiles of it.
Q Source: MoEF Website (Orders section)
- Question 26 of 100
26. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following is NOT a Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC)?
CorrectSolution: d)
Justification: India has financial institutions which are not banks but which accept deposits and extend credit like banks. These are called Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India.
So, clearly (d) is not a NBFC, since it doesn’t extend credit or accept deposits.
Learning: NBFCs in India include not just the finance companies that the general public is largely familiar with; the term also entails wider group of companies that are engaged in investment business, insurance, chit fund, nidhi, merchant banking, stock broking, alternative investments, etc., as their principal business.
All are though not under the regulatory purview of the Reserve Bank.
Q Source: RBI Website
IncorrectSolution: d)
Justification: India has financial institutions which are not banks but which accept deposits and extend credit like banks. These are called Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India.
So, clearly (d) is not a NBFC, since it doesn’t extend credit or accept deposits.
Learning: NBFCs in India include not just the finance companies that the general public is largely familiar with; the term also entails wider group of companies that are engaged in investment business, insurance, chit fund, nidhi, merchant banking, stock broking, alternative investments, etc., as their principal business.
All are though not under the regulatory purview of the Reserve Bank.
Q Source: RBI Website
- Question 27 of 100
27. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements about the Deccan plateau of Peninsular India.
- The eastern Deccan plateau is made of vast sheets of thick limestone rocks.
- The north-western part of the plateau is made up of lava flows.
Which of the above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: b)
Justification: Statement 1: It is made of large sheets of granite. It effectively traps rainwater. Under the thin surface layer of soil is the impervious gray granite bedrock.
Statement 2: The rocks are spread over the whole of Maharashtra and parts of Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh, thereby making it one of the largest volcanic provinces in the world. The thick dark soil (called regur) found here is suitable for cotton cultivation.
Q Source: Improvisation: Past year UPSC papers
IncorrectSolution: b)
Justification: Statement 1: It is made of large sheets of granite. It effectively traps rainwater. Under the thin surface layer of soil is the impervious gray granite bedrock.
Statement 2: The rocks are spread over the whole of Maharashtra and parts of Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh, thereby making it one of the largest volcanic provinces in the world. The thick dark soil (called regur) found here is suitable for cotton cultivation.
Q Source: Improvisation: Past year UPSC papers
- Question 28 of 100
28. Question
2 points. In the Lok Sabha, who decides the sitting order of the members?
CorrectSolution: d)
Learning: These rules pertain to Lok Sabha’s “SUMMONS TO MEMBERS, SEATING, OATH OR AFFIRMATION AND ROLL OF MEMBERS:”
The Secretary-General shall issue summons to each member specifying the date and place for a session of the House.
The members shall sit in such order as the Speaker may determine.
You should see important rules here at the Q Source.
IncorrectSolution: d)
Learning: These rules pertain to Lok Sabha’s “SUMMONS TO MEMBERS, SEATING, OATH OR AFFIRMATION AND ROLL OF MEMBERS:”
The Secretary-General shall issue summons to each member specifying the date and place for a session of the House.
The members shall sit in such order as the Speaker may determine.
You should see important rules here at the Q Source.
- Question 29 of 100
29. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following are the benefits of Agro-forestry?
- Reduced organic matter on the field and soil
- More efficient recycling of nutrients by deep rooted trees on the site
- Reduction of surface run-off and nutrient leaching
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
CorrectSolution: c)
Justification: Agroforestry is a land use management system in which trees or shrubs are grown around or among crops or pastureland.
Environmental benefits
- Reduction of pressure on natural forests.
- More efficient recycling of nutrients by deep rooted trees on the site as crop roots do not reach as deep in the soil as that of trees, and often the top soil is bereft of nutrients.
- Better protection of ecological systems
- Reduction of surface run-off, nutrient leaching and soil erosion through impeding effect of tree roots and stems on these processes
- Improvement of microclimate, such as lowering of soil surface temperature and reduction of evaporation of soil moisture through a combination of mulching and shading
- Increment in soil nutrients through addition and decomposition of litterfall.
- Improvement of soil structure through the constant addition of organic matter from decomposed litter. So, 3 is incorrect.
Q Source: Agritech TNAU Website
IncorrectSolution: c)
Justification: Agroforestry is a land use management system in which trees or shrubs are grown around or among crops or pastureland.
Environmental benefits
- Reduction of pressure on natural forests.
- More efficient recycling of nutrients by deep rooted trees on the site as crop roots do not reach as deep in the soil as that of trees, and often the top soil is bereft of nutrients.
- Better protection of ecological systems
- Reduction of surface run-off, nutrient leaching and soil erosion through impeding effect of tree roots and stems on these processes
- Improvement of microclimate, such as lowering of soil surface temperature and reduction of evaporation of soil moisture through a combination of mulching and shading
- Increment in soil nutrients through addition and decomposition of litterfall.
- Improvement of soil structure through the constant addition of organic matter from decomposed litter. So, 3 is incorrect.
Q Source: Agritech TNAU Website
- Question 30 of 100
30. Question
2 pointsExcessive instream sand-and-gravel mining affects
- Bank erosion and causes degradation of rivers
- Adjoining groundwater system
- Aquatic and riparian habitats
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
CorrectSolution: d)
Justification: Statement 1: Instream mining lowers the stream bottom, which may lead to bank erosion. Depletion of sand in the streambed and along coastal areas causes the deepening of rivers and estuaries, and the enlargement of river mouths and coastal inlets. Any volume of sand exported from streambeds and coastal areas is a loss to the system.
Statement 2: It may also lead to saline-water intrusion from the nearby sea. The effect of mining is compounded by the effect of sea level rise. So, Sand mining also affects the adjoining groundwater system and the uses that local people make of the river.
Statement 3: Instream sand mining results in the destruction of aquatic and riparian habitat through large changes in the channel morphology. Impacts include bed degradation, bed coarsening, lowered water tables near the streambed, and channel instability.
These physical impacts cause degradation of riparian and aquatic biota and may lead to the undermining of bridges and other structures. Continued extraction may also cause the entire streambed to degrade to the depth of excavation.
Q Source: Often in news due to illegal Sand mining in UP
IncorrectSolution: d)
Justification: Statement 1: Instream mining lowers the stream bottom, which may lead to bank erosion. Depletion of sand in the streambed and along coastal areas causes the deepening of rivers and estuaries, and the enlargement of river mouths and coastal inlets. Any volume of sand exported from streambeds and coastal areas is a loss to the system.
Statement 2: It may also lead to saline-water intrusion from the nearby sea. The effect of mining is compounded by the effect of sea level rise. So, Sand mining also affects the adjoining groundwater system and the uses that local people make of the river.
Statement 3: Instream sand mining results in the destruction of aquatic and riparian habitat through large changes in the channel morphology. Impacts include bed degradation, bed coarsening, lowered water tables near the streambed, and channel instability.
These physical impacts cause degradation of riparian and aquatic biota and may lead to the undermining of bridges and other structures. Continued extraction may also cause the entire streambed to degrade to the depth of excavation.
Q Source: Often in news due to illegal Sand mining in UP
- Question 31 of 100
31. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements about the Mahalwari system.
- It eliminated middlemen between the government and the village community.
- It was introduced all over British India.
- Every peasant was held personally responsible for direct payment of land revenue to the government.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
CorrectSolution: a)
Justification: Statement 1: Under this system the basic unit of revenue settlement was the village or the Mahal. As the village lands belonged jointly to the village community, the responsibility of paying the revenue rested with the entire Mahal or the village community. So the entire land of the village was measured at the time of fixing the revenue.
Statement 2: In 1833, the Mahalwari settlement was introduced in the Punjab, the Central Provinces and parts of North Western Provinces.
Statement 3: It was the mahal (village), not the peasant who was responsible for settling payments. This was a feature of Ryotwari, not Mahalwari.
Q Source: 12th TN History Textbook
IncorrectSolution: a)
Justification: Statement 1: Under this system the basic unit of revenue settlement was the village or the Mahal. As the village lands belonged jointly to the village community, the responsibility of paying the revenue rested with the entire Mahal or the village community. So the entire land of the village was measured at the time of fixing the revenue.
Statement 2: In 1833, the Mahalwari settlement was introduced in the Punjab, the Central Provinces and parts of North Western Provinces.
Statement 3: It was the mahal (village), not the peasant who was responsible for settling payments. This was a feature of Ryotwari, not Mahalwari.
Q Source: 12th TN History Textbook
- Question 32 of 100
32. Question
2 pointsGandhiji decided to launch “Individual Satyagraha” due to dissatisfaction with
CorrectSolution: c)
Learning: During the course of the Second World War in order to secure the cooperation of the Indians, the British Government made an announcement on August 1940, which came to be known as the ‘August Offer’.
- The August Offer envisaged that after the War a representative body of Indians would be set up to frame the new Constitution. Gandhi was not satisfied with is offer and decided to launch Individual Satyagraha.
- Individual Satyagraha was limited, symbolic and non-violent in nature and it was left to Mahatma Gandhi to choose the Satyagrahis.
- Acharya Vinoba Bhave was the first to offer Satyagraha and he was sentenced to three months imprisonment.
- Jawaharlal Nehru was the second Satyagrahi and imprisoned for four months. The individual Satyagraha continued for nearly 15 months.
Q Source: 12th TN History Textbook
IncorrectSolution: c)
Learning: During the course of the Second World War in order to secure the cooperation of the Indians, the British Government made an announcement on August 1940, which came to be known as the ‘August Offer’.
- The August Offer envisaged that after the War a representative body of Indians would be set up to frame the new Constitution. Gandhi was not satisfied with is offer and decided to launch Individual Satyagraha.
- Individual Satyagraha was limited, symbolic and non-violent in nature and it was left to Mahatma Gandhi to choose the Satyagrahis.
- Acharya Vinoba Bhave was the first to offer Satyagraha and he was sentenced to three months imprisonment.
- Jawaharlal Nehru was the second Satyagrahi and imprisoned for four months. The individual Satyagraha continued for nearly 15 months.
Q Source: 12th TN History Textbook
- Question 33 of 100
33. Question
2 pointsThe title “Socrates of South Asia” was given by UNESCO to
CorrectSolution: d)
Learning: E.V. Ramasamy was an atheist and a bitter critic of the Vedas, but his life was search for the truth, just like Socrates.
He led thousands of men and women in street processions to parody Hindu gods and goddesses, and taught against superstition, blind belief and dominance.
UNESCO awarded him with an unprecedented citation: “The prophet of the new age, the Socrates of South Asia, father of social reform movement and arch enemy of ignorance, superstitions, meaningless customs and base manners.”
Q Source: 12th TN History Textbook
IncorrectSolution: d)
Learning: E.V. Ramasamy was an atheist and a bitter critic of the Vedas, but his life was search for the truth, just like Socrates.
He led thousands of men and women in street processions to parody Hindu gods and goddesses, and taught against superstition, blind belief and dominance.
UNESCO awarded him with an unprecedented citation: “The prophet of the new age, the Socrates of South Asia, father of social reform movement and arch enemy of ignorance, superstitions, meaningless customs and base manners.”
Q Source: 12th TN History Textbook
- Question 34 of 100
34. Question
2 pointsIn an election to a State Legislative Assembly, all the candidates, who did not win, lost their deposit. How is this possible?
CorrectSolution: d)
Justification: As per R. P. Act 1951, a general candidate for contesting an Assembly election will have to make a security deposit of Rs. 10,000/-.
Deposit amount if lower for SC and ST candidates.
The deposit made by a candidate shall be returned if the following conditions are satisfied:-
- The candidate is not shown in the list of contesting candidates, that is to say, either his nomination was rejected or after his nomination was accepted, he withdrew his candidature; or
- He dies before the commencement of the poll; or
- He is elected; or
- He is not elected but gets more than 1/6th of the total no.of valid votes polled by all the candidates at the election.
However, If the candidate has polled exactly 1/6th of the total number of valid votes polled by all the candidates, the deposit will not be refunded.
If the candidate was elected, the deposit will be refunded even if he did not poll more than 1/6th of the total valid votes polled by all the candidates.
Q Source: ECI Website and past year UPSC papers
IncorrectSolution: d)
Justification: As per R. P. Act 1951, a general candidate for contesting an Assembly election will have to make a security deposit of Rs. 10,000/-.
Deposit amount if lower for SC and ST candidates.
The deposit made by a candidate shall be returned if the following conditions are satisfied:-
- The candidate is not shown in the list of contesting candidates, that is to say, either his nomination was rejected or after his nomination was accepted, he withdrew his candidature; or
- He dies before the commencement of the poll; or
- He is elected; or
- He is not elected but gets more than 1/6th of the total no.of valid votes polled by all the candidates at the election.
However, If the candidate has polled exactly 1/6th of the total number of valid votes polled by all the candidates, the deposit will not be refunded.
If the candidate was elected, the deposit will be refunded even if he did not poll more than 1/6th of the total valid votes polled by all the candidates.
Q Source: ECI Website and past year UPSC papers
- Question 35 of 100
35. Question
2 pointsTribal groups are at different stages of social, economic and educational development. Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) being one of them. Which of the following is NOT a necessary characteristic of a PVTG?
CorrectSolution: c)
Learning: Tribal communities live, in various ecological and geo-climatic conditions ranging from plains and forests to hills and inaccessible areas.
While some tribal communities have adopted a mainstream way of life, at the other end of the spectrum, there are certain Scheduled Tribes, 75 in number known as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs), who are characterised by:- a) pre-agriculture level of technology; b) stagnant or declining population; c) extremely low literacy; and d) subsistence level of economy.
This test covers some of these tribes like Jarawas, Saharia etc.
Q Source: Ministry of Tribal Affairs website
IncorrectSolution: c)
Learning: Tribal communities live, in various ecological and geo-climatic conditions ranging from plains and forests to hills and inaccessible areas.
While some tribal communities have adopted a mainstream way of life, at the other end of the spectrum, there are certain Scheduled Tribes, 75 in number known as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs), who are characterised by:- a) pre-agriculture level of technology; b) stagnant or declining population; c) extremely low literacy; and d) subsistence level of economy.
This test covers some of these tribes like Jarawas, Saharia etc.
Q Source: Ministry of Tribal Affairs website
- Question 36 of 100
36. Question
2 pointsKisan Suvidha and Pusa Krishi for benefit of farmers are
CorrectSolution: a)
Learning: Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare has launched two mobile apps called Kisan Suvidha and Pusa Krishi for benefit of farmers and all other stake holders.
Pusha Krishi app will provide farmers with information related to new varieties of crops developed by Indian Council of Agriculture Research (ICAR), resource conserving cultivation practices as well as farm machinery and its implementation will help in increasing returns to farmers.
Both have been developed in house.
Q Source: http://agricoop.nic.in/
IncorrectSolution: a)
Learning: Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare has launched two mobile apps called Kisan Suvidha and Pusa Krishi for benefit of farmers and all other stake holders.
Pusha Krishi app will provide farmers with information related to new varieties of crops developed by Indian Council of Agriculture Research (ICAR), resource conserving cultivation practices as well as farm machinery and its implementation will help in increasing returns to farmers.
Both have been developed in house.
Q Source: http://agricoop.nic.in/
- Question 37 of 100
37. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following is NOT a fundamental duty under Part IVA of the Constitution?
CorrectSolution: a)
Learning: Option (a) was recommended by Swaran Singh Committee by was not accepted by the Government.
Option (b): To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
Option (c): To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures
Option (d): To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
IncorrectSolution: a)
Learning: Option (a) was recommended by Swaran Singh Committee by was not accepted by the Government.
Option (b): To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
Option (c): To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures
Option (d): To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
- Question 38 of 100
38. Question
2 pointsThe Indian Parliamentary Group is
CorrectSolution: a)
Learning: The Indian Parliamentary Group is an autonomous body formed in the year 1949 in pursuance of a Motion adopted by the Constituent Assembly (Legislative) in 1948.
Membership of the Indian Parliamentary Group is open to all Members of Parliament and ex-Members of Parliament.
A Member of Parliament can become a life Member of the Group on payment of life subscription of Rs. 500/- by sending an application together with the life subscription to the Secretary-General of Lok Sabha (who is ex-officio Secretary-General of the Group).
The aims and objects of the Indian Parliamentary Group are:—
- to promote personal contacts between Members of Parliament;
- to study questions of public importance that are likely to come up before Parliament and arrange Seminars and discussions and orientation courses and bring out publications for the dissemination of information to the Members of the Indian Parliamentary Group;
- to arrange lectures on political, defence, economic, social and educational problems by Members of Parliament and distinguished persons; and
- to arrange visits to foreign countries with a view to develop contacts with Members of other Parliaments.
Q Source: http://164.100.47.192/loksabha/writereaddata/our%20parliament/Indian%20Parliamentary%20Group.pdf
IncorrectSolution: a)
Learning: The Indian Parliamentary Group is an autonomous body formed in the year 1949 in pursuance of a Motion adopted by the Constituent Assembly (Legislative) in 1948.
Membership of the Indian Parliamentary Group is open to all Members of Parliament and ex-Members of Parliament.
A Member of Parliament can become a life Member of the Group on payment of life subscription of Rs. 500/- by sending an application together with the life subscription to the Secretary-General of Lok Sabha (who is ex-officio Secretary-General of the Group).
The aims and objects of the Indian Parliamentary Group are:—
- to promote personal contacts between Members of Parliament;
- to study questions of public importance that are likely to come up before Parliament and arrange Seminars and discussions and orientation courses and bring out publications for the dissemination of information to the Members of the Indian Parliamentary Group;
- to arrange lectures on political, defence, economic, social and educational problems by Members of Parliament and distinguished persons; and
- to arrange visits to foreign countries with a view to develop contacts with Members of other Parliaments.
Q Source: http://164.100.47.192/loksabha/writereaddata/our%20parliament/Indian%20Parliamentary%20Group.pdf
- Question 39 of 100
39. Question
2 pointsSome of the major coal belts of India in Jharia and Raniganj are affected by mine fires and coal subsidence. According to official sources, what is the primary cause of this?
CorrectSolution: a)
Learning: Jharia is famous for a coal field fire that has burned underground for nearly a century. The first fire was detected in 1916. Flames at Jharia have been recorded reaching heights of 60 feet.
Many of the fires are believed to have started through spontaneous combustion or what is sometimes called self-heating, caused by the oxidation of minerals in the exposed coal.
Much of the mining at Jharia is done at the surface, exposing the coal to open air. Certain varieties of coal contain minerals that heat up when they are exposed to oxygen; those minerals can in turn burst into flames.
The population living in the old mining areas has increased many times over the years, though these areas became unsafe for habitation. Presently the Jharkhand state government is running a resettlement program for the region.
Q Source: http://coal.gov.in/sites/upload_files/coal/files/coalupload/Chap9AnRep1314.pdf
IncorrectSolution: a)
Learning: Jharia is famous for a coal field fire that has burned underground for nearly a century. The first fire was detected in 1916. Flames at Jharia have been recorded reaching heights of 60 feet.
Many of the fires are believed to have started through spontaneous combustion or what is sometimes called self-heating, caused by the oxidation of minerals in the exposed coal.
Much of the mining at Jharia is done at the surface, exposing the coal to open air. Certain varieties of coal contain minerals that heat up when they are exposed to oxygen; those minerals can in turn burst into flames.
The population living in the old mining areas has increased many times over the years, though these areas became unsafe for habitation. Presently the Jharkhand state government is running a resettlement program for the region.
Q Source: http://coal.gov.in/sites/upload_files/coal/files/coalupload/Chap9AnRep1314.pdf
- Question 40 of 100
40. Question
2 pointsOff-grid Renewable Energy can be used to meet the energy requirements of isolated communities and areas which are not likely to be electrified in near future. Which of the following can NOT be used as a part of such systems?
CorrectSolution: d)
Justification & Learning: Distributed/decentralized renewable power projects using wind energy, biomass energy, hydro power and hybrid systems are being established in the country to meet the energy requirements of isolated communities and areas which are not likely to be electrified in near future.
Off-grid Renewable Energy / Power can be generated using the following:
- Biomass based heat and power projects and industrial waste to-energy projects for meeting captive needs
- Biomass gasifiers for rural and industrial energy applications
- Watermills/micro hydro projects – for meeting electricity requirement of remote villages
- Small Wind Energy & Hybrid Systems – for mechanical and electrical applications, mainly where grid electricity is not available.
- Solar PV Roof-top Systems for abatement of diesel for power generation in urban areas
The Ministry of New and Renewable energy is running a program with main objectives of: supporting RD&D to make such systems more reliable and cost-effective, demonstration, field testing, strengthening manufacturing base.
Q Source: Ministry of New and Renewable energy website
IncorrectSolution: d)
Justification & Learning: Distributed/decentralized renewable power projects using wind energy, biomass energy, hydro power and hybrid systems are being established in the country to meet the energy requirements of isolated communities and areas which are not likely to be electrified in near future.
Off-grid Renewable Energy / Power can be generated using the following:
- Biomass based heat and power projects and industrial waste to-energy projects for meeting captive needs
- Biomass gasifiers for rural and industrial energy applications
- Watermills/micro hydro projects – for meeting electricity requirement of remote villages
- Small Wind Energy & Hybrid Systems – for mechanical and electrical applications, mainly where grid electricity is not available.
- Solar PV Roof-top Systems for abatement of diesel for power generation in urban areas
The Ministry of New and Renewable energy is running a program with main objectives of: supporting RD&D to make such systems more reliable and cost-effective, demonstration, field testing, strengthening manufacturing base.
Q Source: Ministry of New and Renewable energy website
- Question 41 of 100
41. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements.
- They are cut into the volcanic lava of the Deccan in the forest ravines of the Sahyadri Hills.
- These caves contain carvings that depict the life of Buddha.
- The carvings and sculptures in the cave are considered to be the beginning of classical Indian art.
The above refers to?
CorrectSolution: a)
Justification: The question seems to be very factual on first glance, but elimination can easily give the correct answer.
Barabar caves are in Bihar. So, (b) can’t be the answer, as Sahyadri hills do not pass through Bihar.
Nural caves is a made up name, and Varaha Cave, as also clear from the name, hosts sculptures of Lord Vishnu. So, the only possible answer is (a), which is also quite renowned.
Learning: The style of Ajanta has exerted a considerable influence in India and elsewhere, extending, in particular, to Java.
The caves include paintings and sculptures described by the government Archaeological Survey of India as “the finest surviving examples of Indian art, particularly painting”, which are masterpieces of Buddhist religious art, with figures of the Buddha and depictions of the Jataka tales.
The caves were built in two phases starting around the 2nd century BCE, with the second group of caves built around 400–650 CE.
The site is a protected monument in the care of the Archaeological Survey of India, and since 1983, the Ajanta Caves have been a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
IncorrectSolution: a)
Justification: The question seems to be very factual on first glance, but elimination can easily give the correct answer.
Barabar caves are in Bihar. So, (b) can’t be the answer, as Sahyadri hills do not pass through Bihar.
Nural caves is a made up name, and Varaha Cave, as also clear from the name, hosts sculptures of Lord Vishnu. So, the only possible answer is (a), which is also quite renowned.
Learning: The style of Ajanta has exerted a considerable influence in India and elsewhere, extending, in particular, to Java.
The caves include paintings and sculptures described by the government Archaeological Survey of India as “the finest surviving examples of Indian art, particularly painting”, which are masterpieces of Buddhist religious art, with figures of the Buddha and depictions of the Jataka tales.
The caves were built in two phases starting around the 2nd century BCE, with the second group of caves built around 400–650 CE.
The site is a protected monument in the care of the Archaeological Survey of India, and since 1983, the Ajanta Caves have been a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
- Question 42 of 100
42. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following is NOT one of the sessions of Parliament?
CorrectSolution: b)
Learning: The period during which the parliamentarians convene and conduct the business of each House is referred to as session. Every year, the Parliament of India conducts three sessions – Budget, Monsoon and Winter.
Budget session, which is conducted from February to May, is considered highly crucial for the matters it deals with.
Monsoon session: After a brief hiatus of around two months, both the Houses of the Parliament resume business in July and continue till September. Unlike the preceding session, the monsoon session is dedicated largely to discussions on matters of public interest. It is during the monsoon session that the members of the Parliament, including the ministers, can bring forward the legislative proposals in the form of a Bill
Winter Session: It is the shortest session that spans over a period of one month generally between mid-November and mid-December. It takes up the issues that could not be deliberated upon and makes up for the lack of legislative business during the second session of the Parliament.
Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
IncorrectSolution: b)
Learning: The period during which the parliamentarians convene and conduct the business of each House is referred to as session. Every year, the Parliament of India conducts three sessions – Budget, Monsoon and Winter.
Budget session, which is conducted from February to May, is considered highly crucial for the matters it deals with.
Monsoon session: After a brief hiatus of around two months, both the Houses of the Parliament resume business in July and continue till September. Unlike the preceding session, the monsoon session is dedicated largely to discussions on matters of public interest. It is during the monsoon session that the members of the Parliament, including the ministers, can bring forward the legislative proposals in the form of a Bill
Winter Session: It is the shortest session that spans over a period of one month generally between mid-November and mid-December. It takes up the issues that could not be deliberated upon and makes up for the lack of legislative business during the second session of the Parliament.
Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
- Question 43 of 100
43. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following describe most accurately the character of precipitation in India?
CorrectSolution: b)
Learning: Monsoonal showers supply over 80% of India’s annual rainfall.
Some of the states that do not receive this rainfall get rainfall by retreating Monsoon, like TN, parts of AP.
Some states in the North-east see rainfall for most of the year.
But, the larger pattern of precipitation in India is monsoonal.
Q Source: 9th Geography NCERT
IncorrectSolution: b)
Learning: Monsoonal showers supply over 80% of India’s annual rainfall.
Some of the states that do not receive this rainfall get rainfall by retreating Monsoon, like TN, parts of AP.
Some states in the North-east see rainfall for most of the year.
But, the larger pattern of precipitation in India is monsoonal.
Q Source: 9th Geography NCERT
- Question 44 of 100
44. Question
2 pointsHighest total replenishable ground water resources lie in which river basin?
CorrectSolution: c)
Justification: Highest is in Ganga, followed by Govarai, Brahmaputra, Indus, Krishna.
Ganga’s groundwater resources are at least 4-5 times the resources in these rivers.
You can see the image below from http://www.nih.ernet.in
Q Source: http://www.nih.ernet.in/rbis/india_information/groundwater.htm
IncorrectSolution: c)
Justification: Highest is in Ganga, followed by Govarai, Brahmaputra, Indus, Krishna.
Ganga’s groundwater resources are at least 4-5 times the resources in these rivers.
You can see the image below from http://www.nih.ernet.in
Q Source: http://www.nih.ernet.in/rbis/india_information/groundwater.htm
- Question 45 of 100
45. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following ministries/departments has the key role in the Governance of SEZs in India?
CorrectSolution: b)
Justification: Option (b) is verified by the following:
- In the SEZ board of approval, Secy, Dept. of Commerce is the Chairman.
- There is an office of Development Commissioner of Special Economic Zones (SEZs).
- Director General of Foreign Trade is under Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Learning: For getting approval for setting SEZs, The developer submits the proposal for establishment of SEZ to the concerned State Government.
The State Government has to forward the proposal with its recommendation within 45 days from the date of receipt of such proposal to the Board of Approval.
The applicant also has the option to submit the proposal directly to the Board of Approval.
The Board of Approval has been constituted by the Central Government in exercise of the powers conferred under the SEZ Act.
All the decisions are taken in the Board of Approval by consensus. The Board of Approval has 19 Members including Secy. from key ministries.
Q Source: http://commerce.nic.in/DOC/InnerContent.aspx?Id=216 http://sezindia.gov.in/
IncorrectSolution: b)
Justification: Option (b) is verified by the following:
- In the SEZ board of approval, Secy, Dept. of Commerce is the Chairman.
- There is an office of Development Commissioner of Special Economic Zones (SEZs).
- Director General of Foreign Trade is under Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Learning: For getting approval for setting SEZs, The developer submits the proposal for establishment of SEZ to the concerned State Government.
The State Government has to forward the proposal with its recommendation within 45 days from the date of receipt of such proposal to the Board of Approval.
The applicant also has the option to submit the proposal directly to the Board of Approval.
The Board of Approval has been constituted by the Central Government in exercise of the powers conferred under the SEZ Act.
All the decisions are taken in the Board of Approval by consensus. The Board of Approval has 19 Members including Secy. from key ministries.
Q Source: http://commerce.nic.in/DOC/InnerContent.aspx?Id=216 http://sezindia.gov.in/
- Question 46 of 100
46. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following prevent the establishment of an authoritarian and despotic rule in the country, operate as limitations on the arbitrary laws of the legislature and protect the liberties of the people against the invasion by the State?
CorrectSolution: d)
Learning: The Fundamental Rights are meant for promoting the ideal of political democracy. They operate as limitations on the tyranny of the executive and arbitrary laws of the legislature. In short, they aim at establishing ‘a government of laws and not of men’.
The Fundamental Rights are named so because they are guaranteed and protected by the Constitution, which is the fundamental law of the land. They are ‘fundamental’ also in the sense that they are most essential for the all-round development (material, intellectual, moral and spiritual) of the individuals.
Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
IncorrectSolution: d)
Learning: The Fundamental Rights are meant for promoting the ideal of political democracy. They operate as limitations on the tyranny of the executive and arbitrary laws of the legislature. In short, they aim at establishing ‘a government of laws and not of men’.
The Fundamental Rights are named so because they are guaranteed and protected by the Constitution, which is the fundamental law of the land. They are ‘fundamental’ also in the sense that they are most essential for the all-round development (material, intellectual, moral and spiritual) of the individuals.
Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
- Question 47 of 100
47. Question
2 pointsLand degradation has far-reaching consequences leading to
- Decline in water table
- Reduced agricultural productivity
- Loss of bio-diversity
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
CorrectSolution: d)
Justification: Statement 1: Loss of vegetation leads to soil losing ability to retain large amounts of water (so that they slowly seep through to the water table), resulting in reduced water table.
Statement 2: Loss of top soil, nutrients and organic matter due to degradation reduces productivity.
Statement 3: Deforestation, loss of top soil etc cause large scale killing of beneficial microorganisms, earthworms, forces large species to shift habitats, damages local ecosystems etc.
All these affect the lives and livelihoods of the populations, often eventually precipitating forced migration and socio-economic conflicts.
Q Source: MoEF Website
IncorrectSolution: d)
Justification: Statement 1: Loss of vegetation leads to soil losing ability to retain large amounts of water (so that they slowly seep through to the water table), resulting in reduced water table.
Statement 2: Loss of top soil, nutrients and organic matter due to degradation reduces productivity.
Statement 3: Deforestation, loss of top soil etc cause large scale killing of beneficial microorganisms, earthworms, forces large species to shift habitats, damages local ecosystems etc.
All these affect the lives and livelihoods of the populations, often eventually precipitating forced migration and socio-economic conflicts.
Q Source: MoEF Website
- Question 48 of 100
48. Question
2 pointsConsider the following about the Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB).
- It is a statutory body established by the Parliament
- It is mandated to fund grass-root innovations in rural areas.
Which of the above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: a)
Justification: Statement 1: It was setup in 2008 by the Parliament.
Statement 2: It supports basic research in emerging areas of Science & Engineering. It serves as a premier agency for planning, promoting and funding of internationally competitive research in emerging areas.
It also works to:
- Identify major inter-disciplinary research areas, and individuals, groups or institutions and funding them for undertaking research.
- Assist in setting up infrastructure and environment for scientific pursuit.
- Enable in order to achieve synergy between academic institutions, research and development laboratories and industry for promoting basic research in science and engineering.
- Evolve a system of approach to expeditiously provide funding for research, including monitoring and evaluation, by adopting modern management practices.
Q Source: http://dst.gov.in/statutory-board-0
IncorrectSolution: a)
Justification: Statement 1: It was setup in 2008 by the Parliament.
Statement 2: It supports basic research in emerging areas of Science & Engineering. It serves as a premier agency for planning, promoting and funding of internationally competitive research in emerging areas.
It also works to:
- Identify major inter-disciplinary research areas, and individuals, groups or institutions and funding them for undertaking research.
- Assist in setting up infrastructure and environment for scientific pursuit.
- Enable in order to achieve synergy between academic institutions, research and development laboratories and industry for promoting basic research in science and engineering.
- Evolve a system of approach to expeditiously provide funding for research, including monitoring and evaluation, by adopting modern management practices.
Q Source: http://dst.gov.in/statutory-board-0
- Question 49 of 100
49. Question
2 pointsRotterdam Convention deals with
CorrectSolution: b)
Learning: India has ratified the convention.
Rotterdam Convention was adopted in 1998 by a Conference of Plenipotentiaries in Rotterdam, the Netherlands. The Convention entered into force in 2004.
The objectives of the Convention are:
- to promote shared responsibility and cooperative efforts among Parties in the international trade of certain hazardous chemicals in order to protect human health and the environment from potential harm;
- to contribute to the environmentally sound use of those hazardous chemicals, by facilitating information exchange about their characteristics, by providing for a national decision-making process on their import and export and by disseminating these decisions to Parties.
The Convention creates legally binding obligations for the implementation of the Prior Informed Consent (PIC) procedure. It built on the voluntary PIC procedure, initiated by UNEP and FAO in 1989 and ceased on 24 February 2006.
Q Source: MoEF Website
IncorrectSolution: b)
Learning: India has ratified the convention.
Rotterdam Convention was adopted in 1998 by a Conference of Plenipotentiaries in Rotterdam, the Netherlands. The Convention entered into force in 2004.
The objectives of the Convention are:
- to promote shared responsibility and cooperative efforts among Parties in the international trade of certain hazardous chemicals in order to protect human health and the environment from potential harm;
- to contribute to the environmentally sound use of those hazardous chemicals, by facilitating information exchange about their characteristics, by providing for a national decision-making process on their import and export and by disseminating these decisions to Parties.
The Convention creates legally binding obligations for the implementation of the Prior Informed Consent (PIC) procedure. It built on the voluntary PIC procedure, initiated by UNEP and FAO in 1989 and ceased on 24 February 2006.
Q Source: MoEF Website
- Question 50 of 100
50. Question
2 pointsCryptography is related to the practice of techniques for
CorrectSolution: a)
Cryptography is about constructing and analyzing protocols that prevent third parties or the public from reading private messages.
Various aspects in information security such as data confidentiality, data integrity, authentication, and non-repudiation are central to modern cryptography.
Modern cryptography exists at the intersection of the disciplines of mathematics, computer science, and electrical engineering. Applications of cryptography include ATM cards, computer passwords, and electronic commerce.
Q Source: DeITY Website
IncorrectSolution: a)
Cryptography is about constructing and analyzing protocols that prevent third parties or the public from reading private messages.
Various aspects in information security such as data confidentiality, data integrity, authentication, and non-repudiation are central to modern cryptography.
Modern cryptography exists at the intersection of the disciplines of mathematics, computer science, and electrical engineering. Applications of cryptography include ATM cards, computer passwords, and electronic commerce.
Q Source: DeITY Website
- Question 51 of 100
51. Question
2 pointsNational Coastal Zone Management Authority consists of the following persons
- Minister of Environment, Forests and Climate Change as Chairman
- Minister of State for Water Resources
- State Chief Ministers
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
CorrectSolution: d)
Justification: NCZMA consists of:
- Secretary, Ministry of Environment and Forests, New Delhi – Chairman
- Director, National Institute of Oceanography, Goa – Member
- Chief Town Planner, Town and Country Planning Organization, Government of Goa – Member
- Member or an Officer of an equivalent rank, Central Groundwater Board, New Delhi – Member
- Joint Secretary (Tourism), or his representative, Ministry of Tourism, New Delhi – Member
- Director General (Fisheries), Ministry of Agriculture, New Delhi – Member
- Other members (please see Q Source for this)
Learning: It was established by an order of the executive. The Authority shall have the power to take the following measures for protecting and improving the quality of the coastal environment and preventing, adapting and controlling environmental pollution in coastal areas, namely:
- Co-ordination of actions by the State Coastal Zone Management Authorities and the Union territory Coastal Zone Management Authorities under the said Act and the rules made there under, or under any other law which is relatable to the objects of the said Act.
- Examination of the proposals for changes and modifications in classification of coastal zone areas and in the Coastal Zone Management Authorities and making specific recommendations to the Central Government therefore;
- Review of cases involving violations of the provisions of the said Act and the rules
Q Source: http://www.moef.nic.in/sites/default/files/Minutes%20of%20Meeting%2030.PDF
IncorrectSolution: d)
Justification: NCZMA consists of:
- Secretary, Ministry of Environment and Forests, New Delhi – Chairman
- Director, National Institute of Oceanography, Goa – Member
- Chief Town Planner, Town and Country Planning Organization, Government of Goa – Member
- Member or an Officer of an equivalent rank, Central Groundwater Board, New Delhi – Member
- Joint Secretary (Tourism), or his representative, Ministry of Tourism, New Delhi – Member
- Director General (Fisheries), Ministry of Agriculture, New Delhi – Member
- Other members (please see Q Source for this)
Learning: It was established by an order of the executive. The Authority shall have the power to take the following measures for protecting and improving the quality of the coastal environment and preventing, adapting and controlling environmental pollution in coastal areas, namely:
- Co-ordination of actions by the State Coastal Zone Management Authorities and the Union territory Coastal Zone Management Authorities under the said Act and the rules made there under, or under any other law which is relatable to the objects of the said Act.
- Examination of the proposals for changes and modifications in classification of coastal zone areas and in the Coastal Zone Management Authorities and making specific recommendations to the Central Government therefore;
- Review of cases involving violations of the provisions of the said Act and the rules
Q Source: http://www.moef.nic.in/sites/default/files/Minutes%20of%20Meeting%2030.PDF
- Question 52 of 100
52. Question
2 points. India has improved its ranking in the “Logistics Performance Index 2016”, jumping from 54th in 2014 to 35th in 2016. The Logistics Performance Index is published by
CorrectSolution: b)
Learning: Global trade depends on logistics and how efficiently countries import and export goods determine how they grow and compete in the global economy.
- Countries with efficient logistics can easily connect firms to domestic and international markets through reliable supply chains.
- Countries with inefficient logistics face high costs – both in terms of time and money – in international trade and global supply chains.
- The World Bank Group’s bi-annual report ‘Connecting to Compete 2016: Trade Logistics in the Global Economy’, launched on Wednesday, captures critical information about the complexity of international trade.
- The Logistics Performance Index (LPI) within the report scores 160 countries on key criteria of logistics performance.
- Among the six sub-indices of the Logistics Performance Index, India improved the most on “the efficiency of customs and border management clearance”
Q Source: Ministry of Commerce Website – Press Releases
IncorrectSolution: b)
Learning: Global trade depends on logistics and how efficiently countries import and export goods determine how they grow and compete in the global economy.
- Countries with efficient logistics can easily connect firms to domestic and international markets through reliable supply chains.
- Countries with inefficient logistics face high costs – both in terms of time and money – in international trade and global supply chains.
- The World Bank Group’s bi-annual report ‘Connecting to Compete 2016: Trade Logistics in the Global Economy’, launched on Wednesday, captures critical information about the complexity of international trade.
- The Logistics Performance Index (LPI) within the report scores 160 countries on key criteria of logistics performance.
- Among the six sub-indices of the Logistics Performance Index, India improved the most on “the efficiency of customs and border management clearance”
Q Source: Ministry of Commerce Website – Press Releases
- Question 53 of 100
53. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following is NOT one of the Consumer Rights in India?
CorrectSolution: c)
Learning: The consumer has a “Right to Choose”, not right to free goods and services.
It means right to be assured, wherever possible of access to variety of goods and services at competitive price.
In case of monopolies, it means right to be assured of satisfactory quality and service at a fair price. It also includes right to basic goods and services.
This is because unrestricted right of the minority to choose can mean a denial for the majority of its fair share.
This right can be better exercised in a competitive market where a variety of goods are available at competitive prices
Other rights are right to be heard, right to seek redressal etc.
Q Source: NCERT 10th Economics
IncorrectSolution: c)
Learning: The consumer has a “Right to Choose”, not right to free goods and services.
It means right to be assured, wherever possible of access to variety of goods and services at competitive price.
In case of monopolies, it means right to be assured of satisfactory quality and service at a fair price. It also includes right to basic goods and services.
This is because unrestricted right of the minority to choose can mean a denial for the majority of its fair share.
This right can be better exercised in a competitive market where a variety of goods are available at competitive prices
Other rights are right to be heard, right to seek redressal etc.
Q Source: NCERT 10th Economics
- Question 54 of 100
54. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following in India is NOT categorized as a Wetland?
CorrectSolution: d)
Learning: See the image below, it gives details of all identified types of Wetland in India. The survey was done by ISRO.
As per the definition of wetland, diverse types of classes get included like lagoon, beach, mangrove, coral reef, salt pan, aquaculture pond, waterlogged, ox-bow lake, reservoir, lake, tank inter-tidal mudflat etc.
Q Source: http://www.moef.nic.in/sites/default/files/NWIA_National_brochure.pdf
IncorrectSolution: d)
Learning: See the image below, it gives details of all identified types of Wetland in India. The survey was done by ISRO.
As per the definition of wetland, diverse types of classes get included like lagoon, beach, mangrove, coral reef, salt pan, aquaculture pond, waterlogged, ox-bow lake, reservoir, lake, tank inter-tidal mudflat etc.
Q Source: http://www.moef.nic.in/sites/default/files/NWIA_National_brochure.pdf
- Question 55 of 100
55. Question
2 pointsConsider the following about Mamallapuram Utsav.
- It is celebrated in Tamil Nadu.
- Indian classical dances and folk dances are performed in this festival.
- It received the tag of Intangible UNESCO heritage recently.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
CorrectSolution: b)
Justification: Mahabalipuram, a small city in Tamil Nadu, is famous for its temples that represent the architectural beauty of the ancient India.
It is also famous for its vibrant Mamallapuram Dance Festival. Indian classical dances including Bharatanatyam, Kuchipudi, Kathak, Mohiniattam, Odissi and Kathakali are performed in this festival, which is held annually, during the months of January and February.
Apart from the classical dances, folk dances are also performed in the festival.
The cultural event is promoted by the Tamil Nadu Tourism Department. The four-week dance festival has evolved as one of the major cultural attractions of the southern state of India.
Q Source: Ministry of Culture Website
IncorrectSolution: b)
Justification: Mahabalipuram, a small city in Tamil Nadu, is famous for its temples that represent the architectural beauty of the ancient India.
It is also famous for its vibrant Mamallapuram Dance Festival. Indian classical dances including Bharatanatyam, Kuchipudi, Kathak, Mohiniattam, Odissi and Kathakali are performed in this festival, which is held annually, during the months of January and February.
Apart from the classical dances, folk dances are also performed in the festival.
The cultural event is promoted by the Tamil Nadu Tourism Department. The four-week dance festival has evolved as one of the major cultural attractions of the southern state of India.
Q Source: Ministry of Culture Website
- Question 56 of 100
56. Question
2 pointsThe GRIHA Council performs which of the following functions?
- Monitoring housing shortages in India and coordinating with Ministry of Urban Development to execute cooperative housing projects
- Resettlement of slum residents to in metropolitan areas
Which of the above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: d)
Justification: GRIHA is mandated to promote development of buildings and habitats in India through GRIHA.
It is an independent platform for the interaction on scientific and administrative issues related to sustainable habitats in the Indian subcontinent, not execution of projects. So, 1 is wrong. Similarly, 2 is wrong, as GRIHA is not an executive agency, but a think tank.
Learning: It was founded by TERI (The Energy and Resources Institute, New Delhi) with support from MNRE (Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, Government of India) along with a handful of experts in the sustainability of built environment from across the country.
It conducts awareness workshops on Green Buildings and GRIHA rating system to all the registered project teams.
Q Source: Ministry of New and Renewable energy website
IncorrectSolution: d)
Justification: GRIHA is mandated to promote development of buildings and habitats in India through GRIHA.
It is an independent platform for the interaction on scientific and administrative issues related to sustainable habitats in the Indian subcontinent, not execution of projects. So, 1 is wrong. Similarly, 2 is wrong, as GRIHA is not an executive agency, but a think tank.
Learning: It was founded by TERI (The Energy and Resources Institute, New Delhi) with support from MNRE (Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, Government of India) along with a handful of experts in the sustainability of built environment from across the country.
It conducts awareness workshops on Green Buildings and GRIHA rating system to all the registered project teams.
Q Source: Ministry of New and Renewable energy website
- Question 57 of 100
57. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following administrative reforms is/are associated with Cornwallis, a Governor-General of British India?
- Making appointments mainly on the basis of merit thereby laying the foundation of the Indian Civil Service
- Separation of the commercial, judicial and revenue branch of services
Which of the above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: c)
Justification: Statement 1: The statements implies the principle of meritocracy vis-a-vis a “spoils system” that was prevalent earlier.
A strong ICS was to be strictly based on the principles of merit and competence tested via an examination. Later, Indians were associated too, but the services were called ICS even when Indians were not allowed to take part in it.
The greatest work of Cornwallis was the purification of the civil service by the employment of capable and honest public servants.
- Cornwallis, who aimed at cleansing the administration, abolished the vicious system of paying small salaries and allowing enormous perquisites.
- He persuaded the Directors of the Company to pay handsome salaries to the Company servants in order that they might free themselves from commercial and corrupting activities.
- Further, Cornwallis inaugurated the policy of making appointments mainly on the basis of merit thereby laying the foundation of the Indian Civil Service.
Statement 2: A major reform that Cornwallis introduced was the separation of the three branches of service, namely commercial, judicial and revenue. The collectors, the king-pins of the administrative system were deprived of their judicial powers and their work became merely the collection of revenue.
Also, Civil and criminal courts were completely reorganized.
Q Source: 12th TN History Textbook
IncorrectSolution: c)
Justification: Statement 1: The statements implies the principle of meritocracy vis-a-vis a “spoils system” that was prevalent earlier.
A strong ICS was to be strictly based on the principles of merit and competence tested via an examination. Later, Indians were associated too, but the services were called ICS even when Indians were not allowed to take part in it.
The greatest work of Cornwallis was the purification of the civil service by the employment of capable and honest public servants.
- Cornwallis, who aimed at cleansing the administration, abolished the vicious system of paying small salaries and allowing enormous perquisites.
- He persuaded the Directors of the Company to pay handsome salaries to the Company servants in order that they might free themselves from commercial and corrupting activities.
- Further, Cornwallis inaugurated the policy of making appointments mainly on the basis of merit thereby laying the foundation of the Indian Civil Service.
Statement 2: A major reform that Cornwallis introduced was the separation of the three branches of service, namely commercial, judicial and revenue. The collectors, the king-pins of the administrative system were deprived of their judicial powers and their work became merely the collection of revenue.
Also, Civil and criminal courts were completely reorganized.
Q Source: 12th TN History Textbook
- Question 58 of 100
58. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following were the Main features of the Permanent Settlement?
- The zamindars of Bengal were recognised as the owners of land but Government had a right to take away the land.
- The ryots became tenants since they were considered the tillers of the soil.
- It took away the administrative and judicial functions of the zamindar.
- Revenue was fixed on an annual lease basis but revisable at the end of every financial year.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
CorrectSolution: a)
Justification: Statement 1: They were recognised as the owners of land as long as they paid the revenue to the East India Company regularly.
Statement 2: Since zamindars became owners, ryots who cultivated the fields now started working as Tenants.
Statement 3: Zamindars lost the control over land, revenue settling powers etc and ultimately became pawns in the hands the British.
Statement 4: The amount of revenue that the zamindars had to pay to the Company was firmly fixed and would not be raised under any circumstances.
Q Source: 12th TN History Textbook
IncorrectSolution: a)
Justification: Statement 1: They were recognised as the owners of land as long as they paid the revenue to the East India Company regularly.
Statement 2: Since zamindars became owners, ryots who cultivated the fields now started working as Tenants.
Statement 3: Zamindars lost the control over land, revenue settling powers etc and ultimately became pawns in the hands the British.
Statement 4: The amount of revenue that the zamindars had to pay to the Company was firmly fixed and would not be raised under any circumstances.
Q Source: 12th TN History Textbook
- Question 59 of 100
59. Question
2 pointsThe IRNSS will provide services for
- Standard Positioning Service (SPS) which can be used by Civilians
- Restricted Service (RS) which can be used only by authorized sources
- Encrypted Service (ES) which can be accessed only from space observatories
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
CorrectSolution: d)
Learning: IRNSS space Segment consists of seven satellites, three satellites in GEO stationary orbit (GEO) and four satellites in Geo Synchronous Orbit (GSO) orbit.
The classification of services – Standard and Restricted – is done to secure navigation data that is used by military, intelligence agencies, government etc.
Other standard data will be available to general public just like GPS. So, both 1 and 2 are correct.
There is no such service named as Encryption Service (ES) that will be provided by IRNSS. So, 3 is incorrect.
Learning: IRNSS is an independent regional navigation satellite system being developed by India. It is designed to provide accurate position information service to users in India as well as the region extending up to 1500 km from its boundary, which is its primary service area.
Q Source: ISRO Website
IncorrectSolution: d)
Learning: IRNSS space Segment consists of seven satellites, three satellites in GEO stationary orbit (GEO) and four satellites in Geo Synchronous Orbit (GSO) orbit.
The classification of services – Standard and Restricted – is done to secure navigation data that is used by military, intelligence agencies, government etc.
Other standard data will be available to general public just like GPS. So, both 1 and 2 are correct.
There is no such service named as Encryption Service (ES) that will be provided by IRNSS. So, 3 is incorrect.
Learning: IRNSS is an independent regional navigation satellite system being developed by India. It is designed to provide accurate position information service to users in India as well as the region extending up to 1500 km from its boundary, which is its primary service area.
Q Source: ISRO Website
- Question 60 of 100
60. Question
2 pointsSmall and payments banks are niche banks that
CorrectSolution: d)
Learning: Small banks primarily undertake basic banking activities of acceptance of deposits and lending to small farmers, businesses, MSMEs and unorganized sector entities.
Payment bank is restricted to acceptance of demand deposits and provision of payments and remittances. It cannot lend money to people like small banks.
So, none of the options (a), (b) or (c).
They were setup based on Nachiket Mor panel on financial inclusion.
Q Source: In news
IncorrectSolution: d)
Learning: Small banks primarily undertake basic banking activities of acceptance of deposits and lending to small farmers, businesses, MSMEs and unorganized sector entities.
Payment bank is restricted to acceptance of demand deposits and provision of payments and remittances. It cannot lend money to people like small banks.
So, none of the options (a), (b) or (c).
They were setup based on Nachiket Mor panel on financial inclusion.
Q Source: In news
- Question 61 of 100
61. Question
2 pointsThe Self-respect Movement of the 20th Century was
- Started from Madras Presidency.
- Associated with E. V. Ramasamy.
- Aimed at removing untouchability.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
CorrectSolution: d)
Justification: Abolition of’ untouchability became a major issue of the 19th and 20th century social and religious reform movements in the country.
The Self-Respect Movement was aimed at achieving a society where backward castes have equal rights, and encouraged backward castes to have self-respect in the context of a caste-based society that considered them to be a lower end of the hierarchy.
It was founded in 1925 by E. V. Ramasamy (also called as Periyar by his devoted followers) in Tamil Nadu, India against Brahminism.
The movement was extremely influential not just in Tamil Nadu, but also overseas in countries with large Tamil populations, such as Malaysia and Singapore.
Q Source: 12th TN History Textbook
IncorrectSolution: d)
Justification: Abolition of’ untouchability became a major issue of the 19th and 20th century social and religious reform movements in the country.
The Self-Respect Movement was aimed at achieving a society where backward castes have equal rights, and encouraged backward castes to have self-respect in the context of a caste-based society that considered them to be a lower end of the hierarchy.
It was founded in 1925 by E. V. Ramasamy (also called as Periyar by his devoted followers) in Tamil Nadu, India against Brahminism.
The movement was extremely influential not just in Tamil Nadu, but also overseas in countries with large Tamil populations, such as Malaysia and Singapore.
Q Source: 12th TN History Textbook
- Question 62 of 100
62. Question
2 pointsThe main objective of the Public Liability Insurance Act 1991 is to
CorrectSolution: a)
Learning: With the growth of hazardous industries, risks from accidents processes and operations, not only to the persons employed in such undertakings but also to the public who may be in vicinity, have increased.
While the workers and employees of hazardous installations are protected under separate laws, members of the public are not assured of any relief except through long legal process. To ameliorate the sufferings of members of the public due to accidents which take place in hazardous installations it was found essential to provide for a Public Liability Insurance.
The Act applies to all owners associated with the production or handling of any hazardous chemicals.
It is important with regard to Bhopal Gas tragedy like incidents, nuclear accidents (which were recently in news due to India’s civil nuclear liability law) etc.
Q Source: http://envfor.nic.in/rules-regulations/public-liability-insurance
IncorrectSolution: a)
Learning: With the growth of hazardous industries, risks from accidents processes and operations, not only to the persons employed in such undertakings but also to the public who may be in vicinity, have increased.
While the workers and employees of hazardous installations are protected under separate laws, members of the public are not assured of any relief except through long legal process. To ameliorate the sufferings of members of the public due to accidents which take place in hazardous installations it was found essential to provide for a Public Liability Insurance.
The Act applies to all owners associated with the production or handling of any hazardous chemicals.
It is important with regard to Bhopal Gas tragedy like incidents, nuclear accidents (which were recently in news due to India’s civil nuclear liability law) etc.
Q Source: http://envfor.nic.in/rules-regulations/public-liability-insurance
- Question 63 of 100
63. Question
2 pointsThe development of LVM3 by ISRO will be significant because
CorrectSolution: b)
Learning: LVM3 is a heavy launch capability launcher being developed by ISRO.
- It will allow India to achieve complete self reliance in launching satellites as it will be capable of placing 4 tonne class Geosynchronous satellites into orbit.
- The LVM3 will have an India built cryogenic stage with higher capacity than GSLV.
- A cryogenic stage engine is more efficient and has a higher capacity than normal engines, as it operates at extremely low temperatures.
- The first experimental flight of LVM3, the LVM3-X/CARE mission lifted off from Sriharikota in 2014 and successfully tested the atmospheric phase of flight.
Q Source: http://www.isro.gov.in/launchers/lvm3
IncorrectSolution: b)
Learning: LVM3 is a heavy launch capability launcher being developed by ISRO.
- It will allow India to achieve complete self reliance in launching satellites as it will be capable of placing 4 tonne class Geosynchronous satellites into orbit.
- The LVM3 will have an India built cryogenic stage with higher capacity than GSLV.
- A cryogenic stage engine is more efficient and has a higher capacity than normal engines, as it operates at extremely low temperatures.
- The first experimental flight of LVM3, the LVM3-X/CARE mission lifted off from Sriharikota in 2014 and successfully tested the atmospheric phase of flight.
Q Source: http://www.isro.gov.in/launchers/lvm3
- Question 64 of 100
64. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following statements about Surendranath Banerjee is INCORRECT?
CorrectSolution: d)
Learning: Surendranath Banerjee was called the Indian Burke. He firmly opposed the Partition of Bengal. So, (a) is wrong.
He founded the Indian Association (1876) to agitate for political reforms. He had convened the Indian National Conference (1883) which merged with the Indian National Congress in l886. So, (b) is correct.
Dadabhai Naoroji, who was regarded as India’s unofficial Ambassador in England, was the first Indian to become a Member of the British House of Commons. So, (c) is also incorrect.
Q Source: 12th TN History Textbook
IncorrectSolution: d)
Learning: Surendranath Banerjee was called the Indian Burke. He firmly opposed the Partition of Bengal. So, (a) is wrong.
He founded the Indian Association (1876) to agitate for political reforms. He had convened the Indian National Conference (1883) which merged with the Indian National Congress in l886. So, (b) is correct.
Dadabhai Naoroji, who was regarded as India’s unofficial Ambassador in England, was the first Indian to become a Member of the British House of Commons. So, (c) is also incorrect.
Q Source: 12th TN History Textbook
- Question 65 of 100
65. Question
2 pointsConsider the following matches of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PTGS) with the State/UT they are found in.
- Birhor : Bihar
- Totos : Rajasthan
- Shom pens and Jarawa: Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
CorrectSolution: b)
Justification: Statement 1: A forest-dwelling society of about 4,000 people in 2001, who live in central and eastern India in the states of Orissa, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal, and Jharkhand with the greatest concentration in the Ranchi, Hazaribagh, and Singhbhum districts of Jharkhand. Several recent reports have indicated that the poulation may have dropped to 4,000 people.
Statement 2: The Toto is a primitive and isolated tribal group residing only in a small enclave called Totopara in the Jalpaiguri of West Bengal, India. Totopara is located at the foot of the Himalayas just to the south of the borderline between Bhutan and West Bengal (on the western bank of Torsa river). Read more here http://wbnorthbengaldev.gov.in/HtmlPage/toto.aspx
Statement 3: The Shom Pen live a nomadic life moving from one habitation to another in search of fruit and hunt that is till now found abundantly and sufficiently in the thick rain forests of the Great Nicobar Island. You can read more here http://tribal.nic.in/Contents.aspx?mo=7&li=65
About Jarawas – recently in news – http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=142204
Q Source: http://tribal.nic.in/WriteReadData/CMS/Documents/201306030204039113751StatewisePTGsList.pdf
IncorrectSolution: b)
Justification: Statement 1: A forest-dwelling society of about 4,000 people in 2001, who live in central and eastern India in the states of Orissa, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal, and Jharkhand with the greatest concentration in the Ranchi, Hazaribagh, and Singhbhum districts of Jharkhand. Several recent reports have indicated that the poulation may have dropped to 4,000 people.
Statement 2: The Toto is a primitive and isolated tribal group residing only in a small enclave called Totopara in the Jalpaiguri of West Bengal, India. Totopara is located at the foot of the Himalayas just to the south of the borderline between Bhutan and West Bengal (on the western bank of Torsa river). Read more here http://wbnorthbengaldev.gov.in/HtmlPage/toto.aspx
Statement 3: The Shom Pen live a nomadic life moving from one habitation to another in search of fruit and hunt that is till now found abundantly and sufficiently in the thick rain forests of the Great Nicobar Island. You can read more here http://tribal.nic.in/Contents.aspx?mo=7&li=65
About Jarawas – recently in news – http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=142204
Q Source: http://tribal.nic.in/WriteReadData/CMS/Documents/201306030204039113751StatewisePTGsList.pdf
- Question 66 of 100
66. Question
2 pointsSome of the awards related to environment given by the Government of India is/are NOT named after
- Indira Gandhi
- Amrita Devi Bishnoi
- Kailash Satyarthi
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
CorrectSolution: c)
Justification: If you knew about Amrita Bishnoi Wildlife protection award, the answer could have been reached easily.
Kailash Satyarthi, a nobel laureate, works for Child rights. So, 3 is incorrect, and then the only answer can be (c).
Statement 1: This award is given for significant contribution in the field of wildlife protection, which is recognised as having shown exemplary courage or having done exemplary work for the protection of wildlife.
Statement 2: Shortlisting of nominations received for IGPP is carried out by three Expert Members, selected by the Prime Minister’s Office, out of a panel of 9 eminent environmentalists/ persons prepared by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
Selection of awardees out of the shortlisted nominations is done by the Environmental Prize Committee constituted under the Chairmanship of Hon’ble Vice President of India.
Q Source: http://www.moef.nic.in/
IncorrectSolution: c)
Justification: If you knew about Amrita Bishnoi Wildlife protection award, the answer could have been reached easily.
Kailash Satyarthi, a nobel laureate, works for Child rights. So, 3 is incorrect, and then the only answer can be (c).
Statement 1: This award is given for significant contribution in the field of wildlife protection, which is recognised as having shown exemplary courage or having done exemplary work for the protection of wildlife.
Statement 2: Shortlisting of nominations received for IGPP is carried out by three Expert Members, selected by the Prime Minister’s Office, out of a panel of 9 eminent environmentalists/ persons prepared by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
Selection of awardees out of the shortlisted nominations is done by the Environmental Prize Committee constituted under the Chairmanship of Hon’ble Vice President of India.
Q Source: http://www.moef.nic.in/
- Question 67 of 100
67. Question
2 pointsThe Treaty of Sevres, 20th Century, is associated with which of the following movements in British India?
CorrectSolution: c)
Learning: The chief cause of the Khilafat Movement was the defeat of Turkey in the First World War. The harsh terms of the Treaty of Sevres (1920) was felt by the Muslims as a great insult to them.
The whole movement was based on the Muslim belief that the Caliph (the Sultan of Turkey) was the religious head of the Muslims all over the world. The Muslims in India were upset over the British attitude against Turkey and launched the Khilafat Movement.
Q Source: 12th TN History Textbook
IncorrectSolution: c)
Learning: The chief cause of the Khilafat Movement was the defeat of Turkey in the First World War. The harsh terms of the Treaty of Sevres (1920) was felt by the Muslims as a great insult to them.
The whole movement was based on the Muslim belief that the Caliph (the Sultan of Turkey) was the religious head of the Muslims all over the world. The Muslims in India were upset over the British attitude against Turkey and launched the Khilafat Movement.
Q Source: 12th TN History Textbook
- Question 68 of 100
68. Question
2 pointsThe Sustainable land and Ecosystem Management (SLEM) Programme is a joint initiative of Government of India and
CorrectSolution: a)
Learning: The SLEM Programme is a joint initiative of the Government of India and the Global Environmental Facility (GEF) under the latter’s Country partnership Programme (CPP).
The objective of the SLEM Programmatic Approach is to promote sustainable land management and use of biodiversity as well as maintain the capacity of ecosystems to deliver goods and services while taking into account climate change
It is a long-term and strategic arrangement of individual yet interlinked projects aimed at achieving large-scale impacts on the global environment.
Q Source: MoEF Website
IncorrectSolution: a)
Learning: The SLEM Programme is a joint initiative of the Government of India and the Global Environmental Facility (GEF) under the latter’s Country partnership Programme (CPP).
The objective of the SLEM Programmatic Approach is to promote sustainable land management and use of biodiversity as well as maintain the capacity of ecosystems to deliver goods and services while taking into account climate change
It is a long-term and strategic arrangement of individual yet interlinked projects aimed at achieving large-scale impacts on the global environment.
Q Source: MoEF Website
- Question 69 of 100
69. Question
2 pointsThe Poona Pact 1932 was signed to
CorrectSolution: d)
Learning: The Pact provided for reservations for depressed classes, not separate electorates. So, (a) is wrong.
According to the Communal Award, the depressed classes were considered as a separate community and as such provisions were made for separate electorates for them.
Mahatma Gandhi protested against the Communal Award and went on a fast unto death in the Yeravada jail on in 1932.
Finally, an agreement was reached between Dr Ambedkar and Gandhi. This agreement came to be called as the Poona Pact. The British Government also approved of it. Accordingly, 148 seats in different Provincial Legislatures were reserved for the Depressed Classes in place of 71 as provided in the Communal Award
Q Source: 12th TN History Textbook
IncorrectSolution: d)
Learning: The Pact provided for reservations for depressed classes, not separate electorates. So, (a) is wrong.
According to the Communal Award, the depressed classes were considered as a separate community and as such provisions were made for separate electorates for them.
Mahatma Gandhi protested against the Communal Award and went on a fast unto death in the Yeravada jail on in 1932.
Finally, an agreement was reached between Dr Ambedkar and Gandhi. This agreement came to be called as the Poona Pact. The British Government also approved of it. Accordingly, 148 seats in different Provincial Legislatures were reserved for the Depressed Classes in place of 71 as provided in the Communal Award
Q Source: 12th TN History Textbook
- Question 70 of 100
70. Question
2 pointsC and Ku-bands often in news are related to
CorrectSolution: a)
Justification: The INSAT communication satellite system in the C, Extended C and Ku-bands provides services to telecommunications, television broadcasting, satellite news gathering, societal applications, weather forecasting, disaster warning and Search and Rescue operations.
Learning: The Indian National Satellite (INSAT) system is one of the largest domestic communication satellite systems in Asia-Pacific region with nine operational communication satellites placed in Geo-stationary orbit.
Established in 1983 with commissioning of INSAT-1B, it initiated a major revolution in India’s communications sector and sustained the same later. Currently operational communication satellites are INSAT-3A, INSAT-3C, INSAT-3E, INSAT-4A, INSAT-4B, INSAT-4CR, GSAT-8, GSAT-10 and GSAT-12.
Q Source: http://www.isro.gov.in/spacecraft/communication-satellites
IncorrectSolution: a)
Justification: The INSAT communication satellite system in the C, Extended C and Ku-bands provides services to telecommunications, television broadcasting, satellite news gathering, societal applications, weather forecasting, disaster warning and Search and Rescue operations.
Learning: The Indian National Satellite (INSAT) system is one of the largest domestic communication satellite systems in Asia-Pacific region with nine operational communication satellites placed in Geo-stationary orbit.
Established in 1983 with commissioning of INSAT-1B, it initiated a major revolution in India’s communications sector and sustained the same later. Currently operational communication satellites are INSAT-3A, INSAT-3C, INSAT-3E, INSAT-4A, INSAT-4B, INSAT-4CR, GSAT-8, GSAT-10 and GSAT-12.
Q Source: http://www.isro.gov.in/spacecraft/communication-satellites
- Question 71 of 100
71. Question
2 pointsInternet Domain Name System (DNS) is managed by
CorrectSolution: b)
Justification: To reach another person on the Internet you have to type an address into your computer – a name or a number. That address has to be unique so computers know where to find each other.
ICANN coordinates these unique identifiers across the world. Without that coordination we wouldn’t have one global Internet.
Learning: ICANN was formed in 1998. It is a not-for-profit partnership of people from all over the world dedicated to keeping the Internet secure, stable and interoperable. It promotes competition and develops policy on the Internet’s unique identifiers.
ICANN doesn’t control content on the Internet. It cannot stop spam and it doesn’t deal with access to the Internet.
But through its coordination role of the Internet’s naming system, it does have an important impact on the expansion and evolution of the Internet.
Q Source: DeITY Website
IncorrectSolution: b)
Justification: To reach another person on the Internet you have to type an address into your computer – a name or a number. That address has to be unique so computers know where to find each other.
ICANN coordinates these unique identifiers across the world. Without that coordination we wouldn’t have one global Internet.
Learning: ICANN was formed in 1998. It is a not-for-profit partnership of people from all over the world dedicated to keeping the Internet secure, stable and interoperable. It promotes competition and develops policy on the Internet’s unique identifiers.
ICANN doesn’t control content on the Internet. It cannot stop spam and it doesn’t deal with access to the Internet.
But through its coordination role of the Internet’s naming system, it does have an important impact on the expansion and evolution of the Internet.
Q Source: DeITY Website
- Question 72 of 100
72. Question
2 pointsTashkent Agreement 1966 intended to
CorrectSolution: a)
Justification: The question is easy if you eliminate the options.
India could not have needed nuclear fuel way back in 1966, so (c) is incorrect.
The Bangladeshi Liberation war happened in 1971, so (b) automatically becomes wrong.
Learning:
- Lal Bahadur Sastri ended the Indo-Pak war of 1965 by concluding the Tashkent Agreement in January 1966.
- Both nations also agreed that relations between India and Pakistan shall be based on the principle of non-interference in the internal affairs of each other.
- They also agreed that both sides will discourage any propaganda directed against the other country, and will encourage propaganda which promotes the development of friendly relations between the two countries.
Q Source: 12th TN History Textbook
IncorrectSolution: a)
Justification: The question is easy if you eliminate the options.
India could not have needed nuclear fuel way back in 1966, so (c) is incorrect.
The Bangladeshi Liberation war happened in 1971, so (b) automatically becomes wrong.
Learning:
- Lal Bahadur Sastri ended the Indo-Pak war of 1965 by concluding the Tashkent Agreement in January 1966.
- Both nations also agreed that relations between India and Pakistan shall be based on the principle of non-interference in the internal affairs of each other.
- They also agreed that both sides will discourage any propaganda directed against the other country, and will encourage propaganda which promotes the development of friendly relations between the two countries.
Q Source: 12th TN History Textbook
- Question 73 of 100
73. Question
2 pointsThe Mandal Commission Report 1980 was related to
CorrectSolution: a)
Learning: The plan to set up another commission was taken by the Morarji Desai government in 1978 as per the mandate of the under article 340 of the constitution.
The commission estimated that 54% of the total population (excluding SCs and STs), belonging to 3,743 different castes and communities, were ‘backward’.
In 1980, the commission’s report affirmed the affirmative action practice under Indian law whereby members of lower castes (known as Other Backward Classes (OBC), Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST)) were given exclusive access to a certain portion of government Jobs and slots in public universities, and recommended changes to these quotas, increasing them by 27% to 50%.
Q Source: Frequently in news due to OBC reservation issues
IncorrectSolution: a)
Learning: The plan to set up another commission was taken by the Morarji Desai government in 1978 as per the mandate of the under article 340 of the constitution.
The commission estimated that 54% of the total population (excluding SCs and STs), belonging to 3,743 different castes and communities, were ‘backward’.
In 1980, the commission’s report affirmed the affirmative action practice under Indian law whereby members of lower castes (known as Other Backward Classes (OBC), Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST)) were given exclusive access to a certain portion of government Jobs and slots in public universities, and recommended changes to these quotas, increasing them by 27% to 50%.
Q Source: Frequently in news due to OBC reservation issues
- Question 74 of 100
74. Question
2 pointsThe Parliament can amend the Constitution subjected to the limit of
CorrectSolution: b)
Learning: In the Kesavananda Bharati case1 (1973), the Supreme Court ruled that the constituent power of Parliament under Article 368 does not enable it to alter the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.
Options (a), (c) and (d) do not come in the basic structure. For e.g. Centre can reduce the taxation powers of states under lets say GST, which is possible through the Parliament.
Preamble has already been amended once, and DPSP too has been extended.
Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
IncorrectSolution: b)
Learning: In the Kesavananda Bharati case1 (1973), the Supreme Court ruled that the constituent power of Parliament under Article 368 does not enable it to alter the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.
Options (a), (c) and (d) do not come in the basic structure. For e.g. Centre can reduce the taxation powers of states under lets say GST, which is possible through the Parliament.
Preamble has already been amended once, and DPSP too has been extended.
Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
- Question 75 of 100
75. Question
2 pointsThere are no tiger reserves in which state(s)?
- Gujarat
- Maharashtra
- Andhra Pradesh
- Himachal Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
CorrectSolution: b)
Learning: The map below shows all important tiger reserves in India.
Go to the Q source to find out the list.
Gujarat and HP have other protected areas but not a tiger reserve.
IncorrectSolution: b)
Learning: The map below shows all important tiger reserves in India.
Go to the Q source to find out the list.
Gujarat and HP have other protected areas but not a tiger reserve.
- Question 76 of 100
76. Question
2 pointsThe voting age for Indians was lowered to 18 under the Universal Adult Franchise based on the
CorrectSolution: d)
Justification & Learning: The Indian Constitution adopts universal adult franchise as a basis of elections to the Lok Sabha and the state legislative assemblies.
Every citizen who is not less than 18 years of age has a right to vote without any discrimination of caste, race, religion, sex, literacy, wealth, and so on. The voting age was reduced to 18 years from 21 years in 1989 by the 61st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1988.
The introduction of universal adult franchise by the Constitution-makers was a bold experiment and highly remarkable in view of the vast size of the country, its huge population, high poverty, social inequality and overwhelming illiteracy.
Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
IncorrectSolution: d)
Justification & Learning: The Indian Constitution adopts universal adult franchise as a basis of elections to the Lok Sabha and the state legislative assemblies.
Every citizen who is not less than 18 years of age has a right to vote without any discrimination of caste, race, religion, sex, literacy, wealth, and so on. The voting age was reduced to 18 years from 21 years in 1989 by the 61st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1988.
The introduction of universal adult franchise by the Constitution-makers was a bold experiment and highly remarkable in view of the vast size of the country, its huge population, high poverty, social inequality and overwhelming illiteracy.
Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
- Question 77 of 100
77. Question
2 pointsMultilingualism enables communication between the UN’s linguistically and culturally diverse Member States within UN, as UN has adopted a number of official languages. Which of the following is NOT an official language used at the United Nations (UN)?
CorrectSolution: b)
Learning: There are six official languages of the UN. These are Arabic, Chinese, English, French, Russian and Spanish.
- A delegate may speak in any official UN language. The speech is interpreted simultaneously into the other official languages of the UN.
- At times, a delegate may choose to make a statement using a non-official language.
- In such cases, the delegation must provide either an interpretation or a written text of the statement in one of the official languages.
- Most UN documents are issued in all six official languages, requiring translation from the original document.
Q Source: UN Website
IncorrectSolution: b)
Learning: There are six official languages of the UN. These are Arabic, Chinese, English, French, Russian and Spanish.
- A delegate may speak in any official UN language. The speech is interpreted simultaneously into the other official languages of the UN.
- At times, a delegate may choose to make a statement using a non-official language.
- In such cases, the delegation must provide either an interpretation or a written text of the statement in one of the official languages.
- Most UN documents are issued in all six official languages, requiring translation from the original document.
Q Source: UN Website
- Question 78 of 100
78. Question
2 pointsAs per Directive Principles in Part IV of the Constitution, the State shall direct its policy towards securing that the ownership and control of the material resources of the community so that
- Concentration of wealth is avoided
- Means of production are nationalized
- Private ownership is gradually discouraged
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
CorrectSolution: c)
Justification: Article 39 (b) says—The State shall direct its policy towards securing that the ownership and control of the material resources of the community are so distributed as best to subserve the common good.
Article 39 (c) says—The state shall direct its policy towards securing that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment (it doesn’t imply either nationalization or shunning of private properties). So, both 2 and 3 will be wrong.
Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
IncorrectSolution: c)
Justification: Article 39 (b) says—The State shall direct its policy towards securing that the ownership and control of the material resources of the community are so distributed as best to subserve the common good.
Article 39 (c) says—The state shall direct its policy towards securing that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment (it doesn’t imply either nationalization or shunning of private properties). So, both 2 and 3 will be wrong.
Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
- Question 79 of 100
79. Question
2 pointsConsider the following about Chemical Weapons Convention.
- It bans the possession and development of Chemical weapons for countries other than P-5 members of the UNSC.
- India is a signatory to the convention.
- It was negotiated at UN only after some concerns were raised about the use of Chemical weapons in the Syrian Civil War.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
CorrectSolution: b)
Justification: Statement 1: It is a universal non-discriminatory, multilateral, Disarmament Treaty which bans the development, production, acquisition, transfer, use and stockpile of all chemical weapons. The Treaty puts all the States Parties on an equal footing.
Countries having stockpiles of chemical weapons are required to declare and destroy them.
Statement 2 and 3: The Convention was opened for signature on 13th January, 1993 in Paris. India signed the Convention on in January, 1993. Syrian Civil war is recent post-Arab spring (2011 onwards).
Q Source: Ministry of chemicals & Fertilizers website
IncorrectSolution: b)
Justification: Statement 1: It is a universal non-discriminatory, multilateral, Disarmament Treaty which bans the development, production, acquisition, transfer, use and stockpile of all chemical weapons. The Treaty puts all the States Parties on an equal footing.
Countries having stockpiles of chemical weapons are required to declare and destroy them.
Statement 2 and 3: The Convention was opened for signature on 13th January, 1993 in Paris. India signed the Convention on in January, 1993. Syrian Civil war is recent post-Arab spring (2011 onwards).
Q Source: Ministry of chemicals & Fertilizers website
- Question 80 of 100
80. Question
2 pointsThe Constitution deals with which of the following?
- Adjudication of inter-state water disputes
- Coordination between Centre and State through inter-state councils
- Freedom of inter-state trade, commerce and intercourse
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
CorrectSolution: d)
Justification: Statement 1: Article 262 of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of inter-state water disputes. It makes the provision that Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution and control of waters of any inter-state river and river valley.
Statement 2: Article 263 contemplates the establishment of an Inter-State Council to effect coordination between the states and between Centre and states.
Statement 3: Articles 301 to 307 in Part XIII of the Constitution deal with the trade, commerce and intercourse within the territory of India.
Article 301 declares that trade, commerce and intercourse throughout the territory of India shall be free.
Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
IncorrectSolution: d)
Justification: Statement 1: Article 262 of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of inter-state water disputes. It makes the provision that Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution and control of waters of any inter-state river and river valley.
Statement 2: Article 263 contemplates the establishment of an Inter-State Council to effect coordination between the states and between Centre and states.
Statement 3: Articles 301 to 307 in Part XIII of the Constitution deal with the trade, commerce and intercourse within the territory of India.
Article 301 declares that trade, commerce and intercourse throughout the territory of India shall be free.
Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
- Question 81 of 100
81. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following point to the art form Mudiyettu?
CorrectSolution: d)
Learning: It is one of the intangible heritages of India as accorded by UNESCO.
- It is performed for purification and rejuvenation of the community.
- It is the enactment of the mythological tale of a battle between the goddess Kali and the demon Darika.
- The ritual is a part of the Bhagwati cult. It is performed in just 4 districts of Kerela during the four day festival dedicated to Goddess Kali after the summer harvest.
- Musicians of Muddiyettu are maestros of Sopana Sangeeth, the mother of Carnatic music in South India.
- A complete Mudiyettu performance requires a total of 16 people.
- The figure of Kali is also painted on the floor of the temple and then a specific song is sung describing the goddess from head to toe.
Take a look at the short documentary made by UNESCO:
Q Source: UNESCO India heritages
IncorrectSolution: d)
Learning: It is one of the intangible heritages of India as accorded by UNESCO.
- It is performed for purification and rejuvenation of the community.
- It is the enactment of the mythological tale of a battle between the goddess Kali and the demon Darika.
- The ritual is a part of the Bhagwati cult. It is performed in just 4 districts of Kerela during the four day festival dedicated to Goddess Kali after the summer harvest.
- Musicians of Muddiyettu are maestros of Sopana Sangeeth, the mother of Carnatic music in South India.
- A complete Mudiyettu performance requires a total of 16 people.
- The figure of Kali is also painted on the floor of the temple and then a specific song is sung describing the goddess from head to toe.
Take a look at the short documentary made by UNESCO:
Q Source: UNESCO India heritages
- Question 82 of 100
82. Question
2 pointsThe Reserve Bank of India exercises its ‘Developmental functions’ by
- Stepping up credit flow to MSMEs
- Macro policy formulation to strengthen credit flow to the priority sectors
- Approving annual budget grants for weaker banks
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
CorrectSolution: b)
Learning: Statement 3 is wrong, as recapitalization of weak or stressed banks is approved by the government. RBI is not an authority with respect to the GoI budget.
Statement 1 is done through Priority Sector Lending norms.
RBI achieves development in the following way:
- Financial inclusion – Credit flow to priority sectors: Macro policy formulation to strengthen credit flow to the priority sectors. Ensuring priority sector lending becomes a tool for banks for capturing untapped business opportunities among the financially excluded sections of society.
- Financial inclusion and financial literacy: Help expand Prime Minister’s Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) to become a sustainable and scalable financial inclusion initiative.
- Credit flow to MSME: Stepping up credit flow to micro, small and medium enterprises (MSME) sector, rehabilitation of sick units through timely credit support.
- Institutions: Strengthening institutional arrangements, such as, State Level Bankers Committees (SLBCs), Lead bank scheme, etc., to facilitate achievement of above objectives.
Q Source: RBI Website
IncorrectSolution: b)
Learning: Statement 3 is wrong, as recapitalization of weak or stressed banks is approved by the government. RBI is not an authority with respect to the GoI budget.
Statement 1 is done through Priority Sector Lending norms.
RBI achieves development in the following way:
- Financial inclusion – Credit flow to priority sectors: Macro policy formulation to strengthen credit flow to the priority sectors. Ensuring priority sector lending becomes a tool for banks for capturing untapped business opportunities among the financially excluded sections of society.
- Financial inclusion and financial literacy: Help expand Prime Minister’s Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) to become a sustainable and scalable financial inclusion initiative.
- Credit flow to MSME: Stepping up credit flow to micro, small and medium enterprises (MSME) sector, rehabilitation of sick units through timely credit support.
- Institutions: Strengthening institutional arrangements, such as, State Level Bankers Committees (SLBCs), Lead bank scheme, etc., to facilitate achievement of above objectives.
Q Source: RBI Website
- Question 83 of 100
83. Question
2 pointsNational Ambient Quality Standards as notified by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) does NOT cover which of the following air pollutants?
CorrectSolution: d)
Learning: An order published in 2009 covers SO2, NO2, Lead, Ozone, PM 10, PM 2.5, CO, NH3 (Ammonia), Benzopyrene, Nickel and Arsenic.
You can find the order here which was again put up recently on the website of MoEF. http://cpcb.nic.in/National_Ambient_Air_Quality_Standards.php
These air pollutants are continuously monitored.
They were notified by Central Pollution Control Board
Q Source: http://www.moef.nic.in/sites/default/files/notification/Recved%20national.pdf
IncorrectSolution: d)
Learning: An order published in 2009 covers SO2, NO2, Lead, Ozone, PM 10, PM 2.5, CO, NH3 (Ammonia), Benzopyrene, Nickel and Arsenic.
You can find the order here which was again put up recently on the website of MoEF. http://cpcb.nic.in/National_Ambient_Air_Quality_Standards.php
These air pollutants are continuously monitored.
They were notified by Central Pollution Control Board
Q Source: http://www.moef.nic.in/sites/default/files/notification/Recved%20national.pdf
- Question 84 of 100
84. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements.
- Warren Hastings established a Madrasa in Calcutta to encourage the study of Muslim laws along with Arabic and Persian languages.
- Jonathan Duncan established a Sanskrit College to promote the study of Hindu laws and philosophy in Banaras.
- William Bentinck announced a fixed annual sum for promotion of vernacular languages and oriental studies.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
CorrectSolution: c)
Justification: The contemporary British scholars were divided into two groups on the issue of development of education in India. One group, called the Orientalists, advocated the promotion of oriental subjects through Indian languages. The other group, called the Anglicists, argued the cause of western sciences and literature in the medium of English language
Statement 1: Although the British had captured Bengal in 1757, yet the responsibility of imparting education remained only in Indian hands.
The study of ancient texts written in Arabic, Persian and Sanskrit still continued. In 1781, Warren Hastings established a Madrasa in Calcutta to encourage the study of Muslim laws along with Arabic and Persian languages.
Statement 2: A decade later in 1791 due to the sincere efforts of the British resident, Jonathan Duncan, a Sanskrit College was established to promote the study of Hindu laws and philosophy in Banaras.
Therefore, it must be contended that during the first three decades of the 19th century, the development of education took place only through the traditional institutions.
Statement 3: He discouraged oriental studies. In 1829, after assuming the office of the Governor-General of India, Lord William Bentinck, emphasized on the medium of English language in Indian education.
Q Source: 12th TN History Textbook
IncorrectSolution: c)
Justification: The contemporary British scholars were divided into two groups on the issue of development of education in India. One group, called the Orientalists, advocated the promotion of oriental subjects through Indian languages. The other group, called the Anglicists, argued the cause of western sciences and literature in the medium of English language
Statement 1: Although the British had captured Bengal in 1757, yet the responsibility of imparting education remained only in Indian hands.
The study of ancient texts written in Arabic, Persian and Sanskrit still continued. In 1781, Warren Hastings established a Madrasa in Calcutta to encourage the study of Muslim laws along with Arabic and Persian languages.
Statement 2: A decade later in 1791 due to the sincere efforts of the British resident, Jonathan Duncan, a Sanskrit College was established to promote the study of Hindu laws and philosophy in Banaras.
Therefore, it must be contended that during the first three decades of the 19th century, the development of education took place only through the traditional institutions.
Statement 3: He discouraged oriental studies. In 1829, after assuming the office of the Governor-General of India, Lord William Bentinck, emphasized on the medium of English language in Indian education.
Q Source: 12th TN History Textbook
- Question 85 of 100
85. Question
2 pointsFirewall is a term associated with
CorrectSolution: a)
Learning: A firewall is a network security system, either hardware- or software-based, that controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on a set of rules.
A firewall typically establishes a barrier between a trusted, secure internal network and another outside network, such as the Internet, that is assumed not to be secure or trusted.
The image below is a visualization.
Q Source: DeITY Website
IncorrectSolution: a)
Learning: A firewall is a network security system, either hardware- or software-based, that controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on a set of rules.
A firewall typically establishes a barrier between a trusted, secure internal network and another outside network, such as the Internet, that is assumed not to be secure or trusted.
The image below is a visualization.
Q Source: DeITY Website
- Question 86 of 100
86. Question
2 pointsHighest weightage in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is carried by
CorrectSolution: b)
Learning: The weightage of Manufacturing, Mining and Electricity production in overall Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is 75.52 %, 14.16 % and 10.32 % respectively.
The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is an index which shows the growth rates in different industry groups of the economy in a stipulated period of time. The IIP index is computed and published by the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) on a monthly basis.
Q Source: Economic Adviser: DIPP Website
IncorrectSolution: b)
Learning: The weightage of Manufacturing, Mining and Electricity production in overall Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is 75.52 %, 14.16 % and 10.32 % respectively.
The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is an index which shows the growth rates in different industry groups of the economy in a stipulated period of time. The IIP index is computed and published by the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) on a monthly basis.
Q Source: Economic Adviser: DIPP Website
- Question 87 of 100
87. Question
2 pointsWildlife Trust of India (WTI) is a/an
- Statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change
- Organization that works towards securing the natural heritage of India
Which of the above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: b)
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: Wildlife Trust of India (WTI) is a leading Indian nature conservation organisation committed to the service of nature.
Its mission is to conserve wildlife and its habitat and to work for the welfare of individual wild animals, in partnership with communities and governments.
WTI’s team of 150 dedicated professionals work towards achieving its vision of a secure natural heritage of India, in six priority landscapes, knit holistically together by seven key strategies or Big Ideas.
Q Source: MoEF Website
IncorrectSolution: b)
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: Wildlife Trust of India (WTI) is a leading Indian nature conservation organisation committed to the service of nature.
Its mission is to conserve wildlife and its habitat and to work for the welfare of individual wild animals, in partnership with communities and governments.
WTI’s team of 150 dedicated professionals work towards achieving its vision of a secure natural heritage of India, in six priority landscapes, knit holistically together by seven key strategies or Big Ideas.
Q Source: MoEF Website
- Question 88 of 100
88. Question
2 pointsPlant quarantine is vital to prevent the introduction of
- Non-indigenous potentially damaging pests in the country
- Diseases of plants in host country
Which of the above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: c)
Justification: Less-developed countries and other countries in transition are especially vulnerable to the damaging effects of exotic pest introductions because of often inadequate infrastructure and the fragility of their economies.
Plant quarantine is a technique for ensuring disease- and pest-free plants, whereby a plant is isolated while tests are performed to detect the presence of a problem.
It is crucial to prevent the introduction of non-indigenous, potentially damaging pests and diseases of plants into a country or to eradicate them before they can become widespread and well established.
Q Source: Agritech TNAU Website
IncorrectSolution: c)
Justification: Less-developed countries and other countries in transition are especially vulnerable to the damaging effects of exotic pest introductions because of often inadequate infrastructure and the fragility of their economies.
Plant quarantine is a technique for ensuring disease- and pest-free plants, whereby a plant is isolated while tests are performed to detect the presence of a problem.
It is crucial to prevent the introduction of non-indigenous, potentially damaging pests and diseases of plants into a country or to eradicate them before they can become widespread and well established.
Q Source: Agritech TNAU Website
- Question 89 of 100
89. Question
2 pointsMuga Silk culture is specific to the state of “X” and an integral part of the tradition and culture of that state. The State X is
CorrectSolution: b)
Learning: Muga is a golden yellow colour silk and the pride of Assam state.
It is obtained from semi-domesticated multivoltine silkworm, Antheraea assamensis.
These silkworms feed on the aromatic leaves of Som and Soalu plants and are reared on trees similar to that of tasar.
Muga culture is specific to the state of Assam.
The muga silk, a high value product is used in products like sarees, mekhalas, chaddars, etc.
Q Source: Central Silk Board Website
IncorrectSolution: b)
Learning: Muga is a golden yellow colour silk and the pride of Assam state.
It is obtained from semi-domesticated multivoltine silkworm, Antheraea assamensis.
These silkworms feed on the aromatic leaves of Som and Soalu plants and are reared on trees similar to that of tasar.
Muga culture is specific to the state of Assam.
The muga silk, a high value product is used in products like sarees, mekhalas, chaddars, etc.
Q Source: Central Silk Board Website
- Question 90 of 100
90. Question
2 pointsWorld Energy Outlook Report is published by
CorrectSolution: c)
Learning: The IEA is an autonomous organisation which works to ensure reliable, affordable and clean energy for its 29 member countries and beyond. The IEA has four main areas of focus: energy security, economic development, environmental awareness and engagement worldwide.
As per IEA website, “The annual World Energy Outlook (WEO) is now the world’s most authoritative source of energy market analysis and projections, providing critical analytical insights into trends in energy demand and supply and what they mean for energy security, environmental protection and economic development.
The WEO projections are used by the public and private sector as a framework on which they can base their policy-making, planning and investment decisions and to identify what needs to be done to arrive at a supportable and sustainable energy future.”
Q Source: IEA Website
IncorrectSolution: c)
Learning: The IEA is an autonomous organisation which works to ensure reliable, affordable and clean energy for its 29 member countries and beyond. The IEA has four main areas of focus: energy security, economic development, environmental awareness and engagement worldwide.
As per IEA website, “The annual World Energy Outlook (WEO) is now the world’s most authoritative source of energy market analysis and projections, providing critical analytical insights into trends in energy demand and supply and what they mean for energy security, environmental protection and economic development.
The WEO projections are used by the public and private sector as a framework on which they can base their policy-making, planning and investment decisions and to identify what needs to be done to arrive at a supportable and sustainable energy future.”
Q Source: IEA Website
- Question 91 of 100
91. Question
2 pointsWho among the following is generally the leader of the Lok Sabha?
CorrectSolution: c)
Learning: As per LS rules of procedure and definitions, “Leader of the House” means the Prime Minister, if Prime Minister is a member of the House, or a Minister who is a member of the House and is nominated by the Prime Minister to function as the Leader of the House.
In whichever case, the leader will belong to the largest party/coalition of the house.
IncorrectSolution: c)
Learning: As per LS rules of procedure and definitions, “Leader of the House” means the Prime Minister, if Prime Minister is a member of the House, or a Minister who is a member of the House and is nominated by the Prime Minister to function as the Leader of the House.
In whichever case, the leader will belong to the largest party/coalition of the house.
- Question 92 of 100
92. Question
2 pointsThe boundary of the national park is from the point where the Sankosh river cuts the Indo-Bhutan international boundary. The national park is
CorrectSolution: d)
Learning: Manas extends over an area of 2837 Sq. Km from Sankosh river in the west to Dhansiri river in the east, with a core area of 500 Sq. Km. of the National park, which declared in 1990.
The average elevation of the area is 85 m above mean sea level. The river Manas flows into the national Park from the gorges of Bhutan and split into two major streams of which the main water course comes out of the National Park about 30 km downstream is known as ‘Beki”.
About the half of the Park is covered by Grasslands of Terai and Bhabar type, the riparian areas have colonizing grasslands and woodlands of several species. The thick woodlands are called Eastern Moist Deciduous Forests of various types. The undergrowths are very thick.
Q Source: MoEF Website
IncorrectSolution: d)
Learning: Manas extends over an area of 2837 Sq. Km from Sankosh river in the west to Dhansiri river in the east, with a core area of 500 Sq. Km. of the National park, which declared in 1990.
The average elevation of the area is 85 m above mean sea level. The river Manas flows into the national Park from the gorges of Bhutan and split into two major streams of which the main water course comes out of the National Park about 30 km downstream is known as ‘Beki”.
About the half of the Park is covered by Grasslands of Terai and Bhabar type, the riparian areas have colonizing grasslands and woodlands of several species. The thick woodlands are called Eastern Moist Deciduous Forests of various types. The undergrowths are very thick.
Q Source: MoEF Website
- Question 93 of 100
93. Question
2 pointsNational Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) can
- Fix the prices of controlled bulk drugs and formulations
- Enforce prices and availability of the medicines in the country
Which of the above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: c)
Justification: Statement 1: NPPA is an organization of the Government of India which was established, inter alia, to fix/ revise the prices of controlled bulk drugs and formulations and to enforce prices and availability of the medicines in the country, under the Drugs (Prices Control) Order, 1995.
Statement 2: The organization is also entrusted with the task of recovering amounts overcharged by manufacturers for the controlled drugs from the consumers.
It also monitors the prices of decontrolled drugs in order to keep them at reasonable levels.
IncorrectSolution: c)
Justification: Statement 1: NPPA is an organization of the Government of India which was established, inter alia, to fix/ revise the prices of controlled bulk drugs and formulations and to enforce prices and availability of the medicines in the country, under the Drugs (Prices Control) Order, 1995.
Statement 2: The organization is also entrusted with the task of recovering amounts overcharged by manufacturers for the controlled drugs from the consumers.
It also monitors the prices of decontrolled drugs in order to keep them at reasonable levels.
- Question 94 of 100
94. Question
2 pointsConsider the following about Anticyclones.
- These are low pressure regions.
- Their extent is always small.
- Cloudy and precipitation conditions exist alongwith the cyclone.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
CorrectSolution: c)
Justification: Statement 1: An anti-cyclone — also known as a high pressure area — is a large atmospheric circulation system with the wind flowing clockwise around it in the Northern Hemisphere, and counter-clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.
Statement 2: The extents are generally large and the effects are also pronounced.
Statement 3: Anticyclones form from air masses cooling more than their surroundings, which causes the air to contract slightly making the air denser. Since dense air weighs more, the weight of the atmosphere overlying a location increases, causing increased surface air pressure.
Winds are of moderate speed, and at the outer edges, cloudy and precipitation conditions exist.
Please see this http://tinyurl.com/j5edaou
Cloudy conditions and precipitation exists at the periphery of anticyclones. Otherwise, such a high pressure region generally shows fine and clear weather.
Q Source: Improvisation: 11th NCERT: Fundamentals of Physical Geography
IncorrectSolution: c)
Justification: Statement 1: An anti-cyclone — also known as a high pressure area — is a large atmospheric circulation system with the wind flowing clockwise around it in the Northern Hemisphere, and counter-clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.
Statement 2: The extents are generally large and the effects are also pronounced.
Statement 3: Anticyclones form from air masses cooling more than their surroundings, which causes the air to contract slightly making the air denser. Since dense air weighs more, the weight of the atmosphere overlying a location increases, causing increased surface air pressure.
Winds are of moderate speed, and at the outer edges, cloudy and precipitation conditions exist.
Please see this http://tinyurl.com/j5edaou
Cloudy conditions and precipitation exists at the periphery of anticyclones. Otherwise, such a high pressure region generally shows fine and clear weather.
Q Source: Improvisation: 11th NCERT: Fundamentals of Physical Geography
- Question 95 of 100
95. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following is/are the functions of the Central Social Welfare Board (CSWB)?
- Implementing welfare programmes for women and children through voluntary organizations
- Approving all major welfare schemes of Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
Which of the above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: a)
Justification: The Central Social Welfare Board (CSWB) was set-up in 1953 with the objective of promoting social welfare activities and implementing welfare programmes for women and children through voluntary organizations.
- Thirty-three state social welfare boards were set up with jurisdiction over all states and union territories to work together with Central Social Welfare Board in implementing the programmes of the Board across the country.
- It is functioning as an interface between the government and the voluntary sector.
- The Board has been making concerted efforts for empowerment of women through family counselling programmes, short stay homes, awareness generation projects, condensed Course of Education Programmes and other support services. The Board was registered as a Charitable Company in 1969.
Q Source: India Yearbook 2016
IncorrectSolution: a)
Justification: The Central Social Welfare Board (CSWB) was set-up in 1953 with the objective of promoting social welfare activities and implementing welfare programmes for women and children through voluntary organizations.
- Thirty-three state social welfare boards were set up with jurisdiction over all states and union territories to work together with Central Social Welfare Board in implementing the programmes of the Board across the country.
- It is functioning as an interface between the government and the voluntary sector.
- The Board has been making concerted efforts for empowerment of women through family counselling programmes, short stay homes, awareness generation projects, condensed Course of Education Programmes and other support services. The Board was registered as a Charitable Company in 1969.
Q Source: India Yearbook 2016
- Question 96 of 100
96. Question
2 pointsMicro-propagation is widely used in forestry and in floriculture. It can be used for
- Conserving rare or endangered plant species
- Obtaining a large number of plants within a short time
Which of the above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: c)
Justification: Plants can be propagated by sexual (through generation of seeds) or asexual (through multiplication of vegetative parts) means.
Clonal (micro) propagation refers to the process of asexual reproduction by multiplication of genetically identical copies of individual plants.
Micro propagation has become a suitable alternative to conventional methods of vegetative propagation of plants. There are several advantages of micro propagation.
- Through micro propagation, a large number of plants can be grown from a piece of plant tissue within a short period.
- Another advantage is that micro propagation can be carried out throughout the year, irrespective of the seasonal variations.
- It is also possible to produce disease-free plants through micro propagation.
- Micro propagation requires minimum growing space. Thus, millions of plant species can be maintained inside culture vials in a small room in a nursery.
Q Source: Agritech TNAU Website
IncorrectSolution: c)
Justification: Plants can be propagated by sexual (through generation of seeds) or asexual (through multiplication of vegetative parts) means.
Clonal (micro) propagation refers to the process of asexual reproduction by multiplication of genetically identical copies of individual plants.
Micro propagation has become a suitable alternative to conventional methods of vegetative propagation of plants. There are several advantages of micro propagation.
- Through micro propagation, a large number of plants can be grown from a piece of plant tissue within a short period.
- Another advantage is that micro propagation can be carried out throughout the year, irrespective of the seasonal variations.
- It is also possible to produce disease-free plants through micro propagation.
- Micro propagation requires minimum growing space. Thus, millions of plant species can be maintained inside culture vials in a small room in a nursery.
Q Source: Agritech TNAU Website
- Question 97 of 100
97. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements about Eastern Ghats.
- They do not extend to the state of Odisha and Karnataka being limited to Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh.
- They are eroded and cut through by Chambal and Mahanadi among other Peninsular rivers.
Which of the above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: d)
Justification: Statement 1: The Eastern Ghats run from West Bengal state in the north, through Odisha and Andhra Pradesh to Tamil Nadu in the south passing some parts of Karnataka.
Statement 2: Chambal forms part of the Gangetic drainage system, so it can’t cut Eastern Ghats which are not spread till the Ganges drainage system.
They are eroded and cut through by the four major rivers of peninsular India, known as the Godavari, Mahanadi, Krishna, and Kaveri.
Learning: The Eastern Ghats are a discontinuous range of mountains along India’s eastern coast.
The mountain ranges run parallel to the Bay of Bengal.
The Deccan Plateau lies to the west of the range, between the Eastern Ghats and Western Ghats.
The coastal plains, including the Coromandel Coast region, lie between the Eastern Ghats and the Bay of Bengal. The Eastern Ghats are not as high as the Western Ghats.
Q Source: NCERT 9th Geography
IncorrectSolution: d)
Justification: Statement 1: The Eastern Ghats run from West Bengal state in the north, through Odisha and Andhra Pradesh to Tamil Nadu in the south passing some parts of Karnataka.
Statement 2: Chambal forms part of the Gangetic drainage system, so it can’t cut Eastern Ghats which are not spread till the Ganges drainage system.
They are eroded and cut through by the four major rivers of peninsular India, known as the Godavari, Mahanadi, Krishna, and Kaveri.
Learning: The Eastern Ghats are a discontinuous range of mountains along India’s eastern coast.
The mountain ranges run parallel to the Bay of Bengal.
The Deccan Plateau lies to the west of the range, between the Eastern Ghats and Western Ghats.
The coastal plains, including the Coromandel Coast region, lie between the Eastern Ghats and the Bay of Bengal. The Eastern Ghats are not as high as the Western Ghats.
Q Source: NCERT 9th Geography
- Question 98 of 100
98. Question
2 pointsThe Ilbert Bill Agitation 1884 was related to
CorrectSolution: c)
Learning: Lord Ripon wanted to remove two kinds of law that had been prevalent in India. According to the system of law, a European could be tried only by a European Judge or a European Magistrate.
The disqualification was unjust and it was sought to cast a needless discredit and dishonour upon the Indian-born members of the judiciary.
C.P. Ilbert, Law Member, introduced a bill in 1883 to abolish this discrimination in judiciary. But Europeans opposed this Bill strongly.
Q Source: 12th TN History Textbook
IncorrectSolution: c)
Learning: Lord Ripon wanted to remove two kinds of law that had been prevalent in India. According to the system of law, a European could be tried only by a European Judge or a European Magistrate.
The disqualification was unjust and it was sought to cast a needless discredit and dishonour upon the Indian-born members of the judiciary.
C.P. Ilbert, Law Member, introduced a bill in 1883 to abolish this discrimination in judiciary. But Europeans opposed this Bill strongly.
Q Source: 12th TN History Textbook
- Question 99 of 100
99. Question
2 pointsThe price of petroleum products has been deregulated some time back with the primary aim to
CorrectSolution: c)
Learning: The amount of subsidy outgo on these products was huge.
In the first quarter of this fiscal (April-June 2014), the under-recovery burden on oil marketing companies was Rs 9,037 crore which would have required a sharing mechanism between the budget, consumers, OMCs and upstream oil and gas companies.
The increase in prices would reduce subsidy burden, make production from stranded and deeper gas pockets more viable and boost domestic supply, thereby attracting investment but without hurting its consumers like power and fertiliser and the common man which uses piped gas for cooking or for filling up their automobiles.
Q Source: http://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/diesel-prices-deregulated/article6514970.ece
IncorrectSolution: c)
Learning: The amount of subsidy outgo on these products was huge.
In the first quarter of this fiscal (April-June 2014), the under-recovery burden on oil marketing companies was Rs 9,037 crore which would have required a sharing mechanism between the budget, consumers, OMCs and upstream oil and gas companies.
The increase in prices would reduce subsidy burden, make production from stranded and deeper gas pockets more viable and boost domestic supply, thereby attracting investment but without hurting its consumers like power and fertiliser and the common man which uses piped gas for cooking or for filling up their automobiles.
Q Source: http://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/diesel-prices-deregulated/article6514970.ece
- Question 100 of 100
100. Question
2 pointsThe Government is promoting National Smart Grids Mission (NSGM) to give a fillip to the power sector for its modernization. Which of the following best describes a “smart grid”?
CorrectSolution: c)
Learning: The digital technology that allows for two-way communication between the utility and its customers, and the sensing along the transmission lines is what makes the grid smart.
Like the Internet, the Smart Grid will consist of controls, computers, automation, and new technologies and equipment working together, but in this case, these technologies will work with the electrical grid to respond digitally to our quickly changing electric demand.
The benefits associated with the Smart Grid include:
- More efficient transmission of electricity; quicker restoration of electricity after power disturbances; reduced operations and management costs for utilities, and ultimately lower power costs for consumers
- Reduced peak demand, which will also help lower electricity rates; Increased integration of large-scale renewable energy systems
; Better integration of customer-owner power generation systems, including renewable energy systems and improved security
Because of its two-way interactive capacity, the Smart Grid will allow for automatic rerouting when equipment fails or outages occur (see here how https://www.smartgrid.gov/the_smart_grid/smart_grid.html – explanation take from here)
- This will minimize outages and minimize the effects when they do happen. When a power outage occurs, Smart Grid technologies will detect and isolate the outages, containing them before they become large-scale blackouts.
- The new technologies will also help ensure that electricity recovery resumes quickly and strategically after an emergency.
Q Source: http://powermin.nic.in/sites/default/files/uploads/National_Smart_Grid_Mission_OM.pdf
IncorrectSolution: c)
Learning: The digital technology that allows for two-way communication between the utility and its customers, and the sensing along the transmission lines is what makes the grid smart.
Like the Internet, the Smart Grid will consist of controls, computers, automation, and new technologies and equipment working together, but in this case, these technologies will work with the electrical grid to respond digitally to our quickly changing electric demand.
The benefits associated with the Smart Grid include:
- More efficient transmission of electricity; quicker restoration of electricity after power disturbances; reduced operations and management costs for utilities, and ultimately lower power costs for consumers
- Reduced peak demand, which will also help lower electricity rates; Increased integration of large-scale renewable energy systems
; Better integration of customer-owner power generation systems, including renewable energy systems and improved security
Because of its two-way interactive capacity, the Smart Grid will allow for automatic rerouting when equipment fails or outages occur (see here how https://www.smartgrid.gov/the_smart_grid/smart_grid.html – explanation take from here)
- This will minimize outages and minimize the effects when they do happen. When a power outage occurs, Smart Grid technologies will detect and isolate the outages, containing them before they become large-scale blackouts.
- The new technologies will also help ensure that electricity recovery resumes quickly and strategically after an emergency.
Q Source: http://powermin.nic.in/sites/default/files/uploads/National_Smart_Grid_Mission_OM.pdf