Insights Revision Plan for Prelims 2016: FULL LENGTH FREE ONLINE MOCK TEST – 3

Solution: a)

Justification & Learning: A number of moral and religious regulations were issued by Aurangzeb shortly after his accession.

• He banned sijda or prostration before the ruler, something which the clerics had maintained was reserved for God.
• Aurangzeb also forbade the kalma being inscribed on coins – since coins could be trampled underfoot or be defiled while passing from hand to hand.
• He discontinued the festival of Nauroz as it was considered a Zoroastrian practice and was favoured by the Safavid rulers of Iran. Muhtasibs were appointed in all the provinces who maintained moral standards in the society as per the law of Sharia.

Q Source: Medieval India: Satish Chandra (UPSC has been lifting few questions from this book)

Solution: a)

Justification: Sea surface temperatures are cooler than ideal for tropical cyclone formation even in the southern summer.

• Moreover, there is a lack of pre-existing centres of rotation (low pressure systems) in that area.
• The Inter-tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) which shifts toward the north in our summer and toward the south in the southern summer, usually stays at or north of the equator in the Atlantic Ocean. UPSC in its official answer key has given this reason, but lower sea surface temperatures are also the factor behind it.
• This zone of convergence i.e. thunderstorms, horizontal wind shear and periodic low level rotation, and the Monsoon Trough in the Indian and Australian basins, are often formation regions in those basins.

A broad convergence zone like this should reach about 5 degrees of latitude away from the equator in order for the Coriolis force to have sufficient intensity to organize a full-fledged tropical cyclone, and the Atlantic ITCZ almost never shifts that far south. So, the centres are weak and cyclones are not frequent.

Q Source: Improvisation: UPSC CSP 2015

Solution: d)

Justification: Option (a) is a floating park as an integral part of Loktak Lake, Manipur.

Option (b) is not a man made wetland. It is the second largest mangrove ecosystem in India and is inundated by a number of rivers – Brahmani, Baitarni, Dhamra, Pathsala and others.

Option (c): Sultanpur is a bird sanctuary, and does not meet the description given in the question.

Option (d): It is a famous avifauna sanctuary that hosts thousands of birds, especially during the winter season.

The reserve protects Bharatpur from frequent floods, provides grazing grounds for village cattle, and earlier was primarily used as a waterfowl hunting ground.

It was also declared as a Ramsar site under the Wetland Convention.

Q Source: Improvisation: UPSC CSP 2015

Solution: c)

Justification: Statement 1: Abd-ur-samarqandi was the ambassador of Shah Rukh, the Timurid dynasty ruler of Persia and visited Calicut, India from 1442-1445.

Abd-ur-Razzaq’s narrative of his visit to India includes describing the life and events in Calicut under the Zamorin and also of the Ancient City of Vijayanagara at Hampi, describing their wealth and immense grandeur. So, 1 is wrong.

He also left accounts of the shipping trade in the Indian Ocean during the 15th century.

Statement 2: Ibn Battuta described Delhi and Daulatabad as vast cities, with a great population, the largest in India.

Ibn Battuta found cities in the subcontinent full of exciting opportunities , resources and skills. They were densely populated and prosperous, except for the occasional disruptions caused by wars and invasions.

Statement 3: The question of landownership According to Bernier, one of the fundamental differences between Mughal India and Europe was the lack of property in land in the former.

He saw crown ownership of land as being harmful for both the state and its people.

He thought that in the Mughal Empire the emperor owned all the land and distributed it among his nobles, and that this had disastrous consequences for the economy and society.

Q Source: 12^th NCERT Themes In Indian History: Part II, and UPSC NDA 2015

Solution: d)

Justification: Statement 1: Whatever money is borrowed by the government ultimately becomes a part of the money supply and used to purchase goods and services.

Statement 2: Goods and services are not counted multiple times. Even intermediary goods are removed from double counting in the GDP.

The actual reason is velocity of money. The same money changes hands and used by multiple people are different times to buy difference goods.

For e.g. you may use Rs. 100 to buy socks, and the sock seller may use the same Rs. 100 to buy rice, and the cycle repeats many many times. So, the actual money supply is generally less than the total value of goods and services produced in the economy.

In India, as per RBI, total money supply is less than 15% of the total value of goods and services it purchases.

Q Source: Improvisation: 12^th NCERT: Macroeconomics

Solution: c)

Justification: The image below (if you can’t access it, please check World Map)

Q Source: Improvisation: UPSC CSP 2015

Solution: c)

Justification: These plants hunt despite having normal roots and green photosynthetic leaves as they are usually associated with rain-washed, nutrient-poor soils, or wet and acidic areas that are ill-drained.

Such wetlands are acidic due to anaerobic conditions, which cause partial decomposition of organic matter releasing acidic compounds into the surroundings.

As a result, most microorganisms necessary for complete decomposition of organic matter cannot survive in such poorly oxygenated conditions. Normal plants find it difficult to survive in such nutrient poor habitats.

The hunter plants are successful in such places because they supplement their photosynthetic food production by trapping insects and digesting their nitrogen rich bodies.

Q Source: Concepts in ecology

Solution: b)

Justification: The Vienna Declaration and Programme of Action, also known as VDPA, is a human rights declaration adopted by consensus at the World Conference on Human Rights.

Statement 1: The VDPA only reaffirmed the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948) and the United Nations Charter. It did not create it.

Statement 2: The UNHCR was created by this Declaration endorsed by General Assembly Resolution.

The VDPA emphasizes that all human rights are of equal importance, seeking to end the qualitative division between civil and political rights and economic, social and cultural rights.

Q Source: Improvisation: On Rights Issue: UPSC CSP 2015

Solution: b)

Justification: Statement 1: There is no such value enshrined in it.

Statement 2: To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, river, and wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures is a fundamental duty under Part IVA of the Constitution.

Statement 3: Article 48 A, mandate that the State shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wildlife of the country.

Also, Article 21 protects right to life as a fundamental right. Enjoyment of life and its attainment including their right to life with human dignity encompasses within its ambit, the protection and preservation of environment, ecological balance free from pollution of air, water, sanitation without which life cannot be enjoyed.

Q Source: Improvisation: UPSC CSP 2015

Solution: d)

Justification: Option (a): Even if the MPs are indirectly elected, a Parliament can be constituted, and government can be held accountable to the Parliament.

Option (b): Whether the Centre is strong, or states are completely autonomous, it does not make a difference for a Parliamentary democracy. However, it does affect the balance of power in the federation or Union.

Option (c): A bicameral legislature is required for a federal structure, not necessarily a Parliamentary democracy.

Collective responsibility of the government (council of Ministers) to the legislature is the central feature of Parliamentary government.

Q Source: Improvisation: UPSC CSP 2015

Solution: a)

Justification: Geographical Indications of Goods are defined as that aspect of industrial property which refer to the geographical indication referring to a country or to a place situated therein as being the country or place of origin of that product.

• Typically, such a name conveys an assurance of quality and distinctiveness which is essentially attributable to the fact of its origin in that defined geographical locality, region or country.
• GIs need to be registered with Department of Commerce.
• Under the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property, geographical indications are covered as an element of IPRs.
• They are also covered under the Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement, which was part of the Agreements concluding the Uruguay Round of GATT negotiations.
• India, as a member of the World Trade Organization (WTO), enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection)Act, 1999 has come into force with effect since 2003.

You can check the GI list. It is a long one, but you just need to scan for important and famous names. There was a question on this last year in UPSC. We had covered it too in the 2015 Test series.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Geographical_Indications_in_India#Geographical_Indications_in_India

Q Source: UPSC CSP 2015

Solution: b)

Justification: A public good is a product that one individual can consume without reducing its availability to another individual and from which no one is excluded. For e.g. clean air, national defence, law and order, flood control system, lighthouses etc.

Even LPG is subsidized, but it is not a public good. So, (a) is incorrect.

PSEs produce steel, defence equipment and weapons too, but none of them are public goods. So, (c) is also incorrect.

Learning: Many public goods may at times be subject to excessive use resulting in negative externalities affecting all users; for example air pollution and traffic congestion. Public goods problems are often closely related to the “free-rider” problem, in which people not paying for the good may continue to access it.

These may also be called social goods as they look essential from the social justice and well-being perspective for the people.

Education, healthcare, sanitation, drinking water, nutrition, caring for the handicapped and old etc, come under this category.

Q Source: Indian Economy: Ramesh Singh

Solution: c)

Justification: In areas of low rainfall, soils tend to be alkaline, meaning they are above pH 7.0, the neutral point.

In areas of higher rainfall, soils are usually acidic, or below pH 7.0. The pH of a soil is important to plant growth because it affects the availability of nutrients.

Some nutrients, such as iron, become tied up chemically as the soil becomes more alkaline. Problems with salinity (the amount of salt in the soil) also tend to increase with alkalinity.

Q Source: NCERT 8^th Science

Solution: d)

Justification: We know that India exports less than it imports to the tune of around $150 billion, so option (a) is correct.

If both CAD and capital account balance are negative, then it will always be a BoP deficit. In this case, a nation’s Forex will decline.

But, for India the reverse happened, as its forex reserves increased due to surplus BoP. A surplus BoP can only happen with a negative CAD, when the capital account balance has been positive. So, (d) is obviously incorrect.

Even if you do not know about option (b), it can be marked (d) easily.

For detailed information please see https://www.rbi.org.in/Scripts/BS_PressReleaseDisplay.aspx?prid=35795

Q Source: Economic observations: Current Affairs

Solution: c)

Justification & Learning: Statement 1: It is one of India’s most prosperous states, having a per-capita GDP significantly above India’s average. But, Gujarat has an agricultural economy; the total crop area amounts to more than one-half of the total land area.

Statement 2: Gujarat’s national market share in gas-based electricity generation is over 8% and it is second nationwide in nuclear electricity generation with national market share of over 1%.

Statement 3: World’s largest ship breaking yard is in Gujarat near Bhavnagar at Alang. Also, Reliance operates an oil refinery here at Jamnagar which is the world’s largest grass roots refinery.

Statement 4: Animal husbandry and dairying have played a vital role in the rural economy of Gujarat. Dairy farming, primarily concerned with milk production, functions on a cooperative basis and has more than a million members. Amul milk co-operative federation products are well known all over India and is Asia’s biggest dairy.

Q Source: Improvisation: 10^th NCERT Geography

Solution: d)

Justification: Light always travels in a straight path. So, 2 is wrong.

Light doesn’t travel because OF are ductile. In fact, the ductility of a material has nothing to do with how light traverses inside it. So, 1 is also wrong.

But in an optical fibre it undergoes multiple total internal reflections due to which light traverses it.

The image below shows the process

Q Source: 10^th NCERT: Science

Solution: c)

Learning: Relations between the Indian Princes and the crown were not well defined because the extent of sovereignty of the Paramount power was not settled properly.

The Indian states committee in 1927 was appointed to investigate and clarify the relationship between the paramount power and the Princes.

Sir Harcourt Butler was its chairman and this committee was popularly known as the Butler Committee.

It gave the following recommendations:

• Paramountey must remain supreme.
• States should not be handed over to an Indian government in British India, responsible to an Indian Legislature.
• But it could be done with the consent of states.
• It must fulfill its obligation, adopting and defining itself according to the shifting necessities of time and progressive development of states.
• The viceroy was made the Crown’s agent in dealing with states.

Q Source: UPSC NDA 2015

Solution: d)

Justification: Statement 1: Temperature range is moderate with warm to hot summers and mild winters in Mediterranean climate.

Statement 2: Temperature cycle is moderated by marine influence which results in small temperature range.

Statement 3: Warm summers and cold winters with three months below freezing and a very large annual temperature range.

Q Source: UPSC CDS II 2015

Solution: b)

Justification: The shallow waters and reefs of the strait make it difficult for large ships to pass through, although fishing boats and small craft carrying coastal trade have navigated the strait for centuries. Large ships must travel around Sri Lanka.

Construction of a shipping canal through the strait was first proposed to the British government of India in 1860, and a number of commissions have studied the proposal up to the present day.

The most recent study of the Sethusamudram Shipping Canal Project, as it is now called, was an environmental impact assessment and a technical feasibility study commissioned by the Tamil Nadu government in 2004.

Q Source: UPSC CDS II 2015

Solution: b)

Justification: A natural monopoly is a distinct type of monopoly that may arise when there are extremely high fixed costs of distribution, such as exist when large-scale infrastructure is required to ensure supply.

Examples of infrastructure include cables and grids for electricity supply, pipelines for gas and water supply, and networks for rail and underground. These costs are also sunk costs, and they deter entry and exit.

It may be more efficient to allow only one firm to supply to the market because allowing competition would mean a wasteful duplication of resources.

Q Source: Indian Economy: Ramesh Singh

Solution: d)

Justification: Creating a new state, increase in the area of any State; diminishing the area of any State; altering the boundaries of any State; alter the name of any State: all of these would give effect to some changes in the various entries of the constitution, yet, none of them is called a Constitution Amendment Act.

This means that just to increase, decrease areas, create a new state and alter name and boundaries is not required to bring a constitution amendment bill.

These changes are statutory changes affected by a law enacted by the parliament.

For e.g. Telangana was created by the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Bill, 2014 (Telangana).

Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth

Solution: c)

Justification: Warren Hastings Administrative plan divided territory of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa into number of Districts.

Statement 1: As per Warren Hastings plan a Mofussil Diwani Adalat was established in every district with collector as the Judge. The court was authorized to decide all civil cases like disputes regarding properties, inheritance, marriage, caste, debts, disputed accounts, contracts, partnerships and demands of rent.

Statement 2: Where ever possible religious laws of Muslim as well as Hindus were followed and applied .E.g. Caste, marriage, inheritance etc.

Statement 3: In every district a mofussil nizamat or fozdari adalat was established to try all criminal cases. So, even while Diwani Adalats could try only civil cases, criminal cases could be dealt at the State level: statement 3 is wrong.

Q Source: UPSC CDS II 2015

Solution: a)

Justification: Statement 2: The main objectives of the organisation were to liberate the Shudras and Ati Shudras and to prevent their exploitation by the Arya Brahmins. Through this SatyaShodhak Samaj, Jotirao refused to regard the Vedas as sacrosanct. He opposed idolatry and denounced the chaturvarnya system.

Statement 3: Quite opposed to rekindling of devotional aspects of Hindu scriptures, as advocated by Bhakti poet-saints like Chaitanya Mahaprabhu, Ramanuja , Vedanta Desika, Ramananda,etc, Phule instead called for creation of an alternate theology.

In this new parallel faith he coined a new name for God as ‘Nirmik’ rougly translating as ‘Creator’. He rejected all names of God which had roots in the accepted Hindu scriptures.

Statement 4: The SatyaShodhak Samaj movement was totally a social movement and nothing to do with the politics, but the members of SatyaShodhak Samaj dissolved SatyaShodhak Samaj and merged it with Congress party in 1930.

Q Source: UPSC CDS II 2015

Solution: c)

Justification: The Constitution has empowered the Parliament to prescribe the manner of choosing the representatives of the union territories in the Lok Sabha.

Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted the Union Territories (Direct Election to the House of the People) Act, 1965, by which the members of Lok Sabha from the union territories are also chosen by direct election.

Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth

Solution: c)

Justification: Implementation of new pay scales recommended by the 7th Pay Commission is estimated to put an additional burden of Rs 1.02 lakh crore on the government.

The money will go as wages for employees of the Central government that will translate into higher demand, and demand-pull inflation.

Imports of goods which are in short supply will actually reduce supply gap and inflation. So, (a) is incorrect.

Public borrowing will keep money supply constant. It may or may not increase inflation depending on the money raised is used. If it is used to create infrastructure addressing supply side bottlenecks, inflation will reduce. So, (d) is also incorrect.

Q Source: Indian Economy: Ramesh Singh

Solution: c)

Learning: The benefits are quite obvious and explained by the statements above.

RuPay facilitates electronic payment at all Indian banks and financial institutions, and competes with MasterCard and Visa in India.

Banks in India are authorized to issue RuPay debit cards to their customers for use at ATMs, PoS terminals, and e-commerce websites.

RuPay cards got a major boost through the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana as RuPay cards were issued to all Jan Dhan accounts.

Q Source: http://www.business-standard.com/article/pf/five-things-you-wanted-to-know-about-the-rupay-card-114080100278_1.html

Solution: b)

Justification: Dogs can detect a very large variation of odors and can even identify odors at concentrations down to parts per trillion.

Sniffing for mines is a highly monotonous, repetitive work which takes a special breed of dogs.

Since the number of trained sniffer dogs in the world is limited, the development of electrical and mechanical detection devices is important for ensuring the safety and security of people around the globe.

Among paramilitary and police dogs, MDDs are the elite, the Seal Team Six of the canine circuit. They require a single-minded focus and attention to detail

Q Source: UPSC past year papers

Solution: d)

Justification: Statement 1: Western coasts contribute 75% to the total fish catch, and eastern coast only 25%. So, 1 is wrong.

Statement 2: It is the least exploited of all oceans.

The marine potential is around 20-25 million tonnes at present, only 11-12% is caught at present. The actual reasons are as here:

• Only 11% of fishing grounds are more than 200 m deep.
• India has tropical climate in which fish cannot be preserved for a long time. Heavy expenditure on refregeration and deep freezing increases the market price of the fish.
• Indian coast does not have many gulfs, bays, estuaries and backwaters as is the case with Norway. As such, it lacks good fishing grounds
• Marine fishing in India is a seasonal phenomena. Strong winds during the monsoon season accompanied by tropical cyclones often hinder the fishing operation.
• Majority of Indians are vegetarians and do not eat fish.
• About 60 per cent of the fishermen still use small non-mechanised boats. They normally do nut venture beyond 10 km. from the coast and in water more than 18 metres deep. They have to come back to the coast at night.
• Lack of landing, freezing, canning, transport and organised markets are other handicaps faced by fishing in India.

Q Source: Improvisation: UPSC CDS 2015

Solution: c)

Justification: Inclusive growth is about ensuring that the benefits of development reach the entire population, including the most vulnerable members.

So, options (a) and (b) are clearly correct.

Option (d) is correct as the Forest Rights Act is connected to the livelihood of tribals, e.g. they have the right to collect minor forest produce, right to conserve forests etc.

Option (c) may be correct as brining poor countries together may help their cause better by sharing best practices for poverty reduction, but it is the least appropriate among all options.

Q Source: Rights issue: UPSC Prelims syllabus

Solution: d)

Justification: The Constitution does not contain any classification of Directive Principles. However, on the basis of their content and direction, they can be classified into three broad categories, viz, socialistic, Gandhian and liberal–intellectual.

Gandhian principles in DPSP represent the programme of reconstruction enunciated by Gandhi during the national movement.

The constitution imports values from all over the World, e.g. socialism from USSR, liberal values from the West etc.

Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth

Solution: c)

Justification: The scheme been launched on pilot basis in one block each of the States of Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Telangana, Orissa, Jharkhand, Chattisgarh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra and Gujarat.

Under the scheme Government will provide Rs. 10 crore for each block for the development of various facilities for the Tribals.

• These blocks have been selected on the recommendations of the concerned States and have very low literacy rate.
• This scheme mainly focuses on bridging infrastructural gaps and gap in human development indices between Schedule tribes and other social groups.
• VKY also envisages focussing on convergence of different schemes of development of Central Ministries/Departments and State Governments with outcome oriented approach.
• Initially the blocks having at least 33% of tribal population in comparison to total population of the block will be targeted.

Q Source: Rights issue: UPSC Prelims syllabus + Current Affairs

Solution: a)

Justification: Statement 1: The number of mammals, birds, reptiles, amphibians and fish across the globe is, on average, about half the size it was 40 years ago.

Statement 2: The tropical LPI shows a 56% reduction in 3,811 populations of 1,638 species from 1970 to 2010.

The 6,569 populations of 1,606 species in the temperate LPI declined by 36% over the same period. Latin America shows the most dramatic decline – a fall of 83 per cent.

Statement 3: Terrestrial species declined by 39 per cent between 1970 and 2010

The LPI for freshwater species shows an average decline of 76 per cent. The main threats to freshwater species are habitat loss and fragmentation, pollution and invasive species.

Marine species declined 39 per cent.

The steepest declines can be seen in the tropics and the Southern Ocean – species in decline include marine turtles, many sharks, and large migratory seabirds like the wandering albatross.

Q Source: UPSC CDS 2015: http://wwf.panda.org/about_our_earth/all_publications/living_planet_report/living_planet_index2/

Solution: b)

Justification & Learning: As the article 263 makes it clear, the Inter-State Council is not a permanent constitutional body for coordination between the States of the Union.

It can be established ‘at any time’ if it appears to the President that the public interests would be served by the establishment of such a Council.

But, bodies/agencies do not become permanent/non-permanent by the virtue of the President appointing them. The constitutional/legal/executive provisions are the reasons behind the nature of the body.

The provision of article 263 of the Constitution was invoked for the first time in 1952 when President by a notification established the Central Council of Health under the Chairmanship of the Union Minister of Health and Family Planning.

Please see this link http://interstatecouncil.nic.in/formations.html#subnav1_2

Q Source: Improvisation: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth

Solution: d)

Justification: Section 10(26) of the IT Act reads, “in the case of a member of a Scheduled Tribe as defined in clause (25) of article 366 of the Constitution residing in any area……………… of the Sixth Schedule to the Constitution or in the States of Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Mizoram, Nagaland and Tripura or in certain areas notified by the Governor of Assam” will be exempt from the requirement of paying income tax from

• Any source in such areas or states.
• Dividend or interest on securities.

Q Source: UPSC CAPF 2015

Solution: c)

Justification: Water hyacinth can be used to aid the process of water purification either for drinking water or for liquid effluent from sewage systems.

It can cause a significant decrease in turbidity of water due to the removal of flocs and also slight reduction in organic matter in the water.

In sewage systems, the root structures of water hyacinth (and other aquatic plants) provide a suitable environment for aerobic bacteria to function.

Aerobic bacteria feed on nutrients and produce inorganic compounds which in turn provide food for the plants. The plants grow quickly and can be harvested to provide rich and valuable compost.

Water hyacinth has also been used for the removal or reduction of nutrients, heavy metals, organic compounds and pathogens from water

Q Source: Old NCERT: Biology

Solution: d)

Justification: The general distribution of winds throughout the lower atmosphere is known as planetary winds. Confined within some latitudinal belts, these winds blow rather regularly throughout the year and are basically controlled by the latitudinal pressure belts.

The main planetary winds are (i) the North-east and the South-east Trade winds (ii) the Temperate Westerlies and (iii) the Polar Easterlies, which blow from the polar high pressure area to the temperate low pre sure area.

All of them are affected by Coriolis force (earth’s rotation on its axis), and migration of pressure belts apart from how heat patterns vary across the earth (creating difference in pressure).

Q Source: NCERT Geography XIth: Fundamentals of Physical Geography

Solution: d)

Justification & Learning: This Act was the final step towards centralisation in British India.

It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers.

It deprived the governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers.

It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body. It provided that the company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’.

Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth

Solution: b)

Justification: These are large butts on all sides of a bottom rooted butt.

Almost all types of mangroves have these types of roots. Most rainforest soil is very poor with all the nutrients available largely remaining at surface level. Because of this rainforest trees have very shallow roots.

Some very tall trees have developed ways of obtaining much needed additional support by forming buttressed roots, which grow out from the base of the trunk sometimes as high as 15 ft above the ground. These extended roots also increase the area over which nutrients can be absorbed from the soil.

When the roots spread horizontally, they are able to cover a wider area for collecting nutrients. They stay near the upper soil layer because all the main nutrients are found there.

Q Source: Improvisation: UPSC CAPF 2015

Solution: a)

Justification: Ocean acidification is the ongoing decrease in the pH of the Earth’s oceans, caused by the uptake of carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere.

Seawater is slightly basic (meaning pH > 7), and the process in question is a shift towards less basic conditions rather than a transition to acidic conditions (pH < 7).

Ocean acidification is expected to impact ocean species to varying degrees. Photosynthetic algae and seagrasses may benefit from higher CO2 conditions in the ocean, as they require CO2 to live just like plants on land.

On the other hand, studies have shown that a more acidic environment has a dramatic effect on some calcifying species, including oysters, clams, sea urchins, shallow water corals, deep sea corals, and calcareous plankton.

Q Source: Environmental Science: NCERT Biology 12^th

Solution: a)

Learning: The Gadgil formula was formulated with the formulation of the fourth five-year plan for the distribution of plan transfers amongst the states.

It was named after D. R. Gadgil, then deputy chairman of the Planning Commission.

The present formula used by the Finance Commissions is an upgrade over the Gadgil formula.

Population, Tax effort, State per capita income, special problems etc were some of the factors included in the formula.

Q Source: 14^th Finance Commission Report

Solution: c)

Justification: Statement 1: It was introduced by Justice PN Bhagwati of the Supreme Court.

Statement 2: A PIL may be introduced in a court of law by the court itself (suo motu), rather than the aggrieved party or another third party. For the exercise of the court’s jurisdiction, it is not necessary for the victim of the violation of his or her rights to personally approach the court.

Statement 3: In a PIL, the right to file suit is given to a member of the by the courts through judicial activism. The member of the public may be a non-governmental organization (NGO), an institution or an individual.

Q Source: Frequently in news

Solution: d)

Justification: Some other important subjects that come under the concurrent list ae population control and family planning; Social security and social insurance; employment and unemployment; Welfare of labour; Education, including technical education, medical education and universities; Relief and rehabilitation of persons displaced from their original place of residence etc.

Both the Parliament and state legislature can make laws on it. But, if a law made by State legislature contravenes a Central law, the provision will be null and void.

Q Source: 11^th NCERT: Indian Constitution at work

Solution: b)

Learning: Onion flowers consist of a spherical umbel made of florets. The flowers are visited by a range of insects that collect pollen and nectar. They produce enough nectar that beekeepers can occasionally collect a honey crop if large enough areas are planted.

Flies have been used for pollination of onions in breeding trials but for commercial production of onions, honey bees are usually the only option.

Bee pollinated flowers bloom during the day, when bees fly to look for food.

Wind pollinated flowers or plants are usually less attractive, little or nectar, have light pollen grains etc.

Q Source: UPSC SCRA 2015

Solution: a)

Justification & Learning: The soils of Peninsular India are formed by the decomposition of rocks in situ, i.e. directly from the underlying rocks.

Soils of Peninsular India are transported and re-deposited to a limited extent and are known as sedentary soils.

Alluvial soils are formed mainly due to silt deposited by Indo-Gangetic-Brahmaputra Rivers. In coastal regions some alluvial deposits are formed due to wave action.

Rocks of the Himalayas form the parent material. Thus the parent material of these soils is of transported origin.

Q Source: 9^th Geography NCERT

Solution: c)

Justification: In-situ conservation is the on-site conservation or the conservation of genetic resources in natural populations of plant or animal species, such as forest genetic resources in natural populations of tree species, for e.g biosphere reserves, wildlife sanctuaries etc.

Ex-situ conservation is the preservation of components of biological diversity outside their natural habitats.

This involves conservation of genetic resources, as well as wild and cultivated or species, and draws on a diverse body of techniques and facilities. Such strategies include establishment of botanical gardens, zoos, conservation strands and gene, pollen seed, seedling, tissue culture and DNA banks.

Q Source: NCERT 12^th Biology NCERT

Solution: d)

Learning: The salinity of the Red Sea is greater than the world average, approximately 4 percent.

Salinity ranges from between ~36 ‰ in the southern part because of the effect of the Gulf of Aden water and reaches 41 ‰ in the northern part, owing mainly to the Gulf of Suez water and the high evaporation.

There is a lack of significant rivers or streams draining into the sea. Also, there is little precipitation over the red sea which fails to compensate for the high rate of evaporation.

It is connected with the Indian Ocean by only a narrow opening near Yemen.

Q Source: Frequently in news due to Suez Canal

Solution: a)

Justification: Islands and their surrounding near-shore marine areas constitute unique ecosystems often comprising many plant and animal species that are endemic – found nowhere else on Earth.

Island species are also unique in their vulnerability: of the 724 recorded animal extinctions in the last 400 years, about half were island species. This may be because the biodiversity is lesser than many other ecosystems.

Over the past century, island biodiversity has been subject to intense pressure from invasive alien species, habitat change and over-exploitation, and, increasingly, from climate change and pollution.

Q Source: Improvisation: NCERT 10^th Geography

Solution: d)

Justification: Population density varies widely from 123 in Himachal Pradesh to more than 1000 Bihar, and more than 11,000 in NCT Delhi. So, A is clearly wrong.

Eastern region has the highest density of 625 persons per sq. km. and the North Eastern region has the lowest density of 176 persons per sq.km

Central region occupies the second highest place in density with 417 followed by Southern region (397), Western region (344) and Northern region (267) respectively.

You may check http://populationcommission.nic.in/content/934_1_Densityofpopulation.aspx

Q Source: 11^th NCERT: Human Geography

Solution: a)

Justification: Aravali (moderately forested mountains) run approximately 692 km across Gujarat, Rajasthan, and Haryana. So, 3 is correct.

Gujarat is an agricultural economy hosting plains. So, 1 is correct.

Rajasthan hosts deserts. So, 2 is also correct.

Coromandel Coast is more related with wetlands and coastal plains (deltas), hence incorrect.

South-western coasts come near Western Ghats (forested mountains), but do not host deserts; hence incorrect.

North-Eastern Frontier does not host deserts, and the mountains are densely forested; hence incorrect.

Q Source: 11^th NCERT: India Physical Environment Geography

Solution: a)

Learning: In the Lok Sabha, the lower House of the Indian Parliament, both Presiding Officers—the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker- are elected from among its members by a simple majority of members present and voting in the House.

The Speaker holds office from the date of her election till immediately before the first meeting of the Lok Sabha after the dissolution of the one to which she was elected. She is eligible for re-election. On the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, although the Speaker ceases to be a member of the House, she does not vacate her office.   The Speaker may, at any time, resign from office by writing under her hand to the Deputy Speaker.

Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth

Solution: c)

Justification: Option (a): Despite considerable theorising in regard to rituals in later Vedic collections and the Brahmanas, one can’t find any definition of the state either in this literature or in the early law-books, the Dharmasutras.

This was due to the fact that this institution was not established on a firm footing so far.

It is only after the rise of the well-organised states of Kosala and Magadha in the age of the Buddha that the state is defined for the first time in the Arthafastra of Kautilya as consisting of seven elements, a definition which becomes an axiom in the later sources.

Option (b): The Arthashastra explores such issues advising the king that in times and in areas devastated by famine, epidemic and such acts of nature, or by war, he should initiate public projects such as building irrigation projects, building forts around major strategic holdings and towns, and exempt taxes on those affected.

Option (c): The Arthashastra does recognize the concept of land ownership rights and other private property, and requires king to protect that right from seizure or abuse.

This makes it unlike Soviet Union and China model of citizen’s private property rights.

Q Source: Improvisation: 12^th Themes in Indian History: Part I

Solution: b)

Justification & Learning: Gunpowder is a an explosive mixture of sulfur, charcoal and potassium nitrate (also known as saltpetre/saltpeter) that burns rapidly, producing volumes of hot solids and gases which can be used as a propellant in firearms.

Potassium nitrate is the most important ingredient in terms of both bulk and function because the combustion process releases oxygen from the potassium nitrate, promoting the rapid burning of the other ingredients.

To reduce the likelihood of accidental ignition by static electricity, the granules of modern black powder are typically coated with graphite, which prevents the build-up of electrostatic charge.

Q Source: Improvisation: UPSC NDA 2015

Solution: d)

Justification: Options (b) is an endangered species. IUCN Website lists option (c) – Hangul as species of Least Concern, but we believe the status is outdated. Hangul is listed under Schedule- I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 and Jammu & Kashmir Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1978 and has also been listed among the top fifteen species of high conservation priority by the Government of India.

They are found in the Himalayan region, in parts of Nepal, Bhutan, Mynammar and in Sikkim, West Bengal, Meghalaya and Arunachal Pradesh.

White-toothed shrew is found in Andaman.

Learning: The Pygmy Hog is the smallest and the rarest wild suid in the world.

The main threats to survival of Pygmy Hog are loss and degradation of habitat due to human settlements, agricultural encroachments, dry-season burning, livestock grazing, commercial forestry and flood control schemes; the latter as a result of the disruption of natural successions and the replacements of former grasslands by later stage communities or other developments.

Conservation of the species has been hampered by the lack of public support, unlike that for charismatic South Asian mammals such as the Bengal tiger or Indian rhinoceros.

Q Source: IUCN Red List

Solution: c)

Justification: The Eastern Coast is sandy with alluvium and slopes gently towards the sea. But the Western Coast is relatively rocky with sand and sand dunes. It slopes abruptly down to the sea.

Also, the Western Coast is broken and indented and thus suitable for ports. For this reason, a large number of ports are there.

Since it is a submerged coastal plain, ships get the required depth for anchoring, which is not possible in the eastern belt.

Q Source: NCERT 12^th: India, People and Economy

Solution: a)

Justification: The basic features of the Constitution have not been explicitly defined by the Judiciary. At least, 20 features have been described as “basic” or “essential” by the Courts in numerous cases, and have been incorporated in the basic structure.

In Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Naraian and also in the Minerva Mills case, it was observed that the claim of any particular feature of the Constitution to be a “basic” feature would be determined by the Court in each case that comes before it.

The following, apart from others, come under the basic structure

• The Sovereign, Democratic, Republican structure
• Unity and integrity of the Nation
• The principle of equality, not every feature of equality, but the quintessence of equal justice;
• The concept of social and economic justice — to build a Welfare State
• Limitations upon the amending power conferred by Article 368
• Independence of the Judiciary
• Effective access to justice

Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth

Solution: a)

Justification: Statement 1: It was a voluntary land grant movement. The movement though independent of government had the support of congress.

Statement 2: However, this land could not be sold. In effect, landless labourers were being given a small plot of land on which they can settle, as well as grow some of their own food. The Government of various Provinces, passed Bhoodan Acts which generally stipulated that the beneficiary had no right to sell the land or use it for a non-agricultural purpose- including forestry.

Philosophically, Vinoba Bhave was directly influenced by the Sarvodaya movement of Gandhi of whose he was the spiritual heir.

Q Source: NCERT 10^th: Geography

Solution: b)

Learning: Wetlands are vital for human survival. They are among the world’s most productive environments. They provide “ecosystem services” that they provide humanity, ranging from freshwater supply, food and building materials, and biodiversity, to flood control, groundwater recharge, and climate change mitigation.

Every three years, representatives of the Contracting Parties meet as the Conference of the Contracting Parties (COP), the policy-making organ of the Convention which adopts decisions (Resolutions and Recommendations) to administer the work of the Convention.

The Convention uses a broad definition of wetlands. It includes all lakes and rivers, underground aquifers, swamps and marshes, wet grasslands, peatlands, oases, estuaries, deltas and tidal flats, mangroves and other coastal areas, coral reefs, and all human-made sites such as fish ponds, rice paddies, reservoirs and salt pans.

Q Source: http://www.ramsar.org/

Solution: d)

Justification & Learning: Gujarat is the main producer of tobacco, cotton, and groundnuts in India.

Other major crops produced are rice, wheat, jowar, bajra, maize, tur, and gram.

More than 60% of the population of Gujarat lives in rural areas and depends for its livelihood on agriculture and the rural non-farm sector that is interlinked with agriculture.

Q Source: 10^th NCERT Geography

Solution: c)

Justification: It was set up in 1989 to take on large-scale science and technology popularisation programmes.

Vigyan Prasar’s mandate is to promote and propagate – as widely as possible – a scientific and rational outlook in the society. Its broad objectives include:

• Undertake, promote and co-ordinate science popularization programmes and inculcation of scientific temper among the people.
• Development of software for various media – audio, visual, audio-visual & print and different modes of communication to enable the masses to understand, appreciate and comprehend scientific principles and practices.

VP has established a network of more than 7000 science clubs in the country, called the VIPNET science clubs.

Q Source: Question on National Innovation Foundation (DST): UPSC CSP 2015

Solution: b)

Learning: It was an economic strategy aimed at removing the British Empire from power and improving economic conditions in India by following the principles of swadeshi or self-sufficiency which had some success. Strategies of the Swadeshi movement involved boycotting British products and the revival of domestic products and production processes.

The Swadeshi movement started with the partition of Bengal by the Viceroy of India, Lord Curzon in 1905 and continued up to 1911. It was the most successful of the pre-Gandhian movement.

Q Source: 8^th NCERT: Our Pasts –III

Solution: d)

Justification: Forests cover 31 percent of the world’s land surface, just over 4 billion hectares (http://www.earth-policy.org/indicators/C56). Wiki gives the estimate as 26%.

India’s forest cover percentage is only around 24%, and even that is only official forest cover. Actual forest cover is less than 20%.

Highest forest covers can be found in Latin America and the Caribbean countries.

Q Source: 11^th NCERT: INDIA – Physical Environment Geography

Solution: d)

Learning: The present uses of seaweeds at present are as human foods, cosmetics, fertilisers, and for the extraction of industrial gums and chemicals.

They have the potential to be used as a source of long- and short-chain chemicals with medicinal and industrial uses. For e.g. they are used in the treatment of intestinal and stomach disorders.

Extracts of some seaweeds also show antibacterial activity.

Marine algae may also be used as energy-collectors and potentially useful substances may be extracted by fermentation and pyrolysis.

Q Source: Concepts of ecology

Solution: a)

Justification: Statement 1: Each House must pass the bill separately. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill. The bill must be passed in each House by a special majority.

Statement 2: An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures

Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth

Solution: d)

Learning: Government of India introduced the Central Rural Sanitation Programme (CRSP) in 1986 primarily with the objective of improving the quality of life of the rural people and also to provide privacy and dignity to women. From 1999, a “demand driven” approach under the “Total Sanitation Campaign” was launched, later replaced by the Nirmal Bharat Abhiyaan, and now its Swachh Bharat Mission.

The Mission Coordinator is the Secretary, Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation (MDWS) with two Sub-Missions, the Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin) and the Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban), which aims to achieve Swachh Bharat by 2019, as a fitting tribute to the 150th Birth Anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi, which in rural areas shall mean improving the levels of cleanliness in rural areas.

Q Source: Rights issue: UPSC Prelims syllabus + Current Affairs

Solution: d)

Learning: An oxbow is a crescent-shaped lake lying alongside a winding river. The oxbow lake is created over time as erosion and deposits of soil change the river’s course.

On the inside of the loop, the river travels more slowly leading to deposition of silt. Meanwhile water on the outside edges tends to flow faster, which erodes the banks making the meander even wider.

Over time the loop of the meander widens until the neck vanishes altogether.

Then the meander is removed from the river’s current and the horseshoe shaped oxbow lake is formed.

Without a current to move the water along, sediment builds up along the banks and fills in the lake.

Q Source: NCERT Geography XIth: Fundamentals of Physical Geography

Solution: c)

Justification: Option (a) refers to President’s rule, not National Emergency.

Even President’s rule cannot be applied in case of (b), as per a SC judgment.

The President can declare a national emergency when the security of India or a part of it is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion.

The president can declare a national emergency even before the actual occurrence of war or external aggression or armed rebellion, if he is satisfied that there is an imminent danger.

Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth

Solution: d)

Justification: Syria opens out to Mediterranean Sea; Yemen to Arabia Sea and Red Sea; and Turkey to both Mediterranean Sea and Black Sea.

Q Source: Improvisation: UPSC CSP 2015

Solution: a)

Learning: It is a first-of-its-kind Pan-IIT and IISc joint initiative, is a Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD) initiative to address major engineering challenges that the country must address and champion to enable, empower and embolden the nation for inclusive growth and self-reliance. Department of Science and Technology is partnering with MHRD in implementing this program.

The overall National Coordinator is IIT, Kanpur. Each domain in IMPRINT is divided into themes, sub-themes, target and topics for educational orientation, research and innovation. For details, you can visit http://imprint-india.org

Q Source: DST website: UPSC CSP 2015

Solution: d)

Justification: The Constitution deals with the citizenship from Articles 5 to 11 under Part II. However, it contains neither any permanent nor any elaborate provisions in this regard.

Bu, it identifies the persons who became citizens of India at its commencement (i.e., on January 26, 1950). So, A is incorrect.

However, it does not deal with the problem of acquisition or loss of citizenship subsequent to its commencement. It empowers the Parliament to enact a law to provide for such matters and any other matter relating to citizenship.

Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted the Citizenship Act, 1955, which has been amended in 1986, 1992, 2003 and 2005. So, clearly R is incorrect.

Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth

Solution: c)

Learning: BCCI itself is a consortium of state cricket associations and the state associations select their representatives who in turn elect the BCCI officials.

http://www.espncricinfo.com/india-v-england-2012/content/story/600339.html

http://indiatoday.intoday.in/story/bcci-lease-land-cricket-stadium-agra-uttar-pradesh-government/1/379989.html

You can read the above links to understand the issues related with it.

Q Source: http://www.thehindu.com/sport/cricket/ipl-matches-shift-supreme-court-dismisses-maharashtra-cricket-association-appeal/article8527955.ece

Solution: b)

Justification: Indian Standard Time is calculated on the basis of 82.58° E longitude, in Shankargarh Fort, Mirzapur (25.15°N 82.58°E) (in Mirzapur district, Uttar Pradesh).

The country’s east–west distance of more than 2,933 kilometres (1,822 mi) covers over 28 degrees of longitude, resulting in the sun rising and setting almost two hours earlier on India’s eastern border than in the Rann of Kutch in the far west.

Inhabitants of the northeastern states have to advance their clocks with the early sunrise and avoid the extra consumption of energy after daylight hours.

See the map below.

Q Source: Geography 9^th NCERT

Solution: b)

Justification: The top five remittance recipient countries, in terms of value of remittances, continue to be India ($71 billion), China ($54 billion), Philippines, Mexico and Nigeria.

The top five migrant destination countries continue to be the United States, Saudi Arabia, Germany, Russia and the United Arab Emirates (UAE).

Many countries float their currency as well as maintain full current account convertibility, but they are not top recipients.

The statement that India “floats” its currency is different from saying we follow a “floating” or “managed exchange rate regime”. The currency is always floated in the international market, but at times RBI intervenes to halt its depreciation/ appreciation.

It is the Gulf region that dominates the remittance flow in India. India also benefits from the diverse spread of its diaspora across continents.

So, both A and R are correct, but R does not explain A.

Q Source: Indian Economy: Ramesh Singh

Solution: c)

Justification: Statement 1: Since the locomotory powers of the plankton is limited, their distribution is controlled by currents in the aquatic ecosystem.

Statement 2: Phytoplankton are crucially dependent on minerals and sunlight (for photosynthesis).

These are primarily macronutrients such as nitrate, phosphate or silicic acid, whose availability is governed by the balance between the so-called biological pump and upwelling of deep, nutrient-rich waters.

Q Source: Concepts of ecology

Solution: d)

Justification: Statement 1: It was constituted as per the Cabinet Mission plan.

Statement 2: It only considered the views of public. None were allowed to vote in its proceedings.

Statement 3: The representatives of each community were to be elected by members of that community in the provincial legislative assembly and voting was to be by the method of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote. So, 3 is incorrect.

The representatives of princely states were to be nominated by the heads of the princely states.

Statement 4: Seats allocated to each British province were to be decided among the three principal communities—Muslims, Sikhs and general (all except Muslims and Sikhs), in proportion to their population. But, there was no reservation for women. So, 4 is incorrect.

Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth

Solution: c)

Justification: Statement 1: Lower interest rates means lower borrowing costs for the investor, leading to greater investment.

Statement 2: Funds for investment are borrowed from banks and security markets, which includes bonds, stocks, debentures, treasury bills etc. Improving security market is improving the borrowing base of investors. So, 2 is correct.

Q Source: Indian Economy: Ramesh Singh

Solution: c)

Justification: Statement 2: When World War I broke out in 1914, she helped launch the Home Rule League to campaign for democracy in India and dominion status within the Empire. This led to her election as president of the India National Congress in late 1917.

Statement 3: She set up a new school for boys, the Central Hindu College (CHC) at Banaras which was formed on underlying theosophical principles, and which counted many prominent theosophists in its staff and faculty. Its aim was to build a new leadership for India.

Q Source: NCERT 8^th: Our Pasts-III

Solution: b)

Learning: The Global Risks Report 2016 features perspectives from nearly 750 experts on the perceived impact and likelihood of 29 prevalent global risks over a 10-year timeframe.

The risks are divided into five categories: economic, environmental, geopolitical, societal and technological.

The report also examines the interconnections among the risks, and through that analysis explores three areas where global risks have the greatest potential to impact society.

These are the concept of the “(dis)empowered citizen”, the impact of climate change on food security, and the potential of pandemics to threaten social cohesion.

Q Source: Improvisation: UPSC CSP 2015: Global Reports

Solution: a)

Learning: Conventional thinking that a trade-off always exists between inflation and unemployment (i.e. Phillips curve) has been falsified by stagflation.

When the economy is passing through the cycle of stagnation (i.e. long period of low aggregate demand in relation to its productive capacity) and the government shuffles with the economic policy, a sudden and temporary price rise is seen in some of the goods, such inflation is also known as stagflation. So, Stagflation is basically a combination of high inflation and low growth.

Q Source: Indian Economy: Ramesh Singh

Solution: d)

Justification: Statement 1: The rate of interest the RBI charges from its clients on their short-term borrowing is called the repo rate.

Higher repo rate means lower lending activities, and lower liquidity.

Statement 2: It is the rate of interest the RBI pays to its clients who offer short term loan to it.

Higher reverse repo rate means banks submit more funds to RBI and keep less for lending, thereby reducing liquidity in the economy.

Statement 3: The interest rate which the RBI charges on its long-term lendings is known as the Bank Rate. The clients who borrow through this route are the GoI, State governments, Banks, Financial Institutions.

Higher the bank rate, lower is the lending activity and the liquidity.

Statement 4: The cash reserve ratio (CRR) is the ratio (fixed by the RBI) of the total deposits of a bank in India which is kept with the RBI in cash form.

Increase in CRR means lower liquidity in the economy.

Q Source: Indian Economy: Ramesh Singh

Solution: d)

Justification: A mixed economic system allows a level of private economic freedom in the use of capital, but also allows for governments to interfere in economic activities in order to achieve social aims.

In general the mixed economy is characterised by the private ownership of the means of production, the dominance of markets for economic coordination, with profit-seeking enterprise and the accumulation of capital remaining the fundamental driving force behind economic activity.

But unlike a free-market economy, the government would wield indirect macroeconomic influence over the economy through fiscal and monetary policies.

Q Source: Indian Economy: Ramesh Singh

Solution: d)

Learning: The former supervised the collection of revenue from the whole kingdom. The chief sources of revenue in the towns were tolls, fines, fees for assaying weights and measures, police, currency, passports, liquors etc.

Land and agriculture, trade, ferries, traffic in rivers and roads and pastures formed the chief sources of income in the provinces.

While retaining control of expenditure as well, the Samaharta should bring about an increase of revenue and regulate expenditure.

The Sannidhata who worked as a chamberlain and a treasurer was the custodian of the realised revenue in cash and kind.

He checked counterfeit coins and received all articles of approved quality. The accounts branch of the government had a complex organisation with classification of expenditure into current, recurrent, occasional and so on.

Q Source: 11^th TamilNadu History Textbook

Solution: c)

Justification: Zooplankton is a categorization spanning a range of organism (animals specifically) sizes including small protozoans and large metazoans.

Through their consumption and processing of phytoplankton and other food sources, zooplankton play a role in aquatic food webs, as a resource for consumers on higher trophic levels (including fish).

They determine the quantum of fish stock in aquatic bodies since they are consumed by small fishes, which in turn are consumed by large fishes.

This is an important topics. You should read more here https://www.whoi.edu/main/topic/jellyfish-zooplankton

Q Source: Concepts of ecology

Solution: c)

Justification: They are mounted atop a building and draw lightning’s electrical charge away from the structure. So, (b) is wrong.

The rod is attached to an aluminium or copper cable that’s connected to an underground conductive grid. This allows the electricity to dissipate harmlessly.

Because lightning tends to strike the tallest object in the vicinity, lightning rods must be taller than any buildings or other objects in the area.

If installed properly, a lightning rod will carry a lightning bolt’s electrical charge through the path of least resistance along the cable into the ground, reducing the risk of fire or heat damage from the strike.

Q Source: 9^th Science NCERT

Solution: b)

Justification: Mangrove trees grow where no tree has grown before. They are able to survive inundation by salt water twice a day, and in “soil” which is unstable and poor in oxygen (anaerobic).

To deal with salt, all mangrove trees exclude some salt at the root level, and all can tolerate more salt in their tissues than “normal” plants.

Mangrove roots not only provide support in unstable soils and to withstand currents and storms, but also breathe air.

They develop aerial or air-breathing roots. These take in aboveground air.

Q Source: Syllabus on ecology: ICSE Books

Solution: d)

Learning: It is a popular ritual form of worship of North Malabar in Kerala, India, predominant in the Kolathunadu area

The performers of Theyyam belong to the lower caste community, and have an important position in Theyyam.

People of these districts consider Theyyam itself as a God and they seek blessings from this Theyyam.

A similar custom is followed in the Tulu Nadu region of neighbouring Karnataka known as Bhuta Kola.

Different branches of mainstream Hindu religion such as Shaktism, Vaishnavism and Shaivism now dominate the cult of Theyyam. However, the forms of propitiation and other rituals are continuations of a very ancient tradition.

Q Source: http://www.thehindu.com/features/friday-review/defining-moment/article7205407.ece

Solution: b)

Justification: Statement 1: Even though seagrasses and seaweeds look superficially similar, they are very different organisms. Seagrasses have leaves, roots and veins, and produce flowers and seeds.

Statement 2: They are one of the most productive ecosystems in the world. Seagrasses provide shelter and food to an incredibly diverse community of animals, from tiny invertebrates to large fish, crabs, turtles, marine mammals and birds.

Statement 3: Seagrasses are found in shallow salty and brackish waters in many parts of the world, from the tropics to the Arctic Circle, except the Antarctica.

Statement 4: The roots and rhizomes (thicker horizontal stems) of seagrasses extend into the sediment of the seafloor and are used to store and absorb nutrients, as well as anchor the plants.

Statement 5: Seagrasses are known as the “lungs of the sea” because one square meter of seagrass can generate 10 liters of oxygen every day through photosynthesis. Seagrass leaves also absorb nutrients and slow the flow of water, capturing sand, dirt and silt particles.

Q Source: Improvisation: UPSC CSP 2014

Solution: c)

Justification: A bioreactor may also refer to a device or system meant to grow cells or tissues in the context of cell culture. These devices are being developed for use in tissue engineering or biochemical engineering. Organisms growing in bioreactors may be submerged in liquid medium or may be attached to the surface of a solid medium.

Statement 1: A photobioreactor (PBR) is a bioreactor which incorporates some type of light source (that may be natural sunlight or artificial illumination). Photobioreactors are used to grow small phototrophic organisms such as cyanobacteria, algae, or moss plants.

These organisms use light through photosynthesis as their energy source

Statement 2: There is a supply of a free-flowing, chemically inert medium which acts as a receptacle for the bacteria that break down the raw sewage.

Q Source: Old NCERT: Biology and previous year UPSC papers

Solution: b)

Justification: Statement 1: Graphite contains delocalised electrons (free electrons). These electrons can move through the graphite, carrying charge from place to place and allowing graphite to conduct electricity. So, 1 is wrong.

Statement 2: Natural graphite is used mostly in what are called refractory applications. Refractory applications are those that involve extremely high heat and therefore demand materials that will not melt or disintegrate under such extreme conditions. One example of this use is in the crucibles used in the steel industry.

Statement 3: The layers slide over each other easily because there are only weak forces between them, making graphite slippery.

Q Source: UPSC SCRA 2015: Physical Sciences paper

Solution: a)

Learning: Trees are found at an altitude of 3,330 m. The Alpine meadows lie between 3,300 m and 5,000 m. This belt grows beautiful flowering plants, rhododen­drons, sweet grasses, shrubs with cushioned leaves.

Coniferous Forest Belt exists between 2,000 m and 3,300 in. Conifers like deodar, poplar, spruce, cedar, fir, maple, walnut, etc. are found here.

The evergreen broadleaf forest is dominated by oaks. This forest is typically found on moister southern slopes, which are more influenced by the monsoon.

The deciduous forest is found along rivers west of the Gandaki River.

Alpine shrublands, dominated by rhododendrons, predominate at lower elevations close to the treeline.

Above the shrublands are alpine meadows, known as bugyals or bughiyals, which support a variety of herbaceous plants

Q Source: NCERT 11^th Geography NCERT

Solution: a)

Learning: The word “Senia” is related to Tansen, the father of Indian Classical Music. The word “Gharana” implies a style of music. The followers of Tansen’s school of music are widely known as the followers of “Senia gharana” (i.e. “Seniya” style/school of music).

Tansen was a vocalist but this tradition has also produced great Sitar Maestros. The “Senia” style of Sitar playing started with the legendary great master of Sitar, Ustad Maseet Sen from the family of Tansen, the originator of “Maseetkhani” style.

Q Source: UPSC NDA 2015

Solution: d)

Learning: Statement 1: Range of Sea lions extends from the subarctic to tropical waters of the global ocean in both the Northern and Southern Hemispheres, with the notable exception of the northern Atlantic Ocean

Statement 2: The dugong (Dugong dugon) is a herbivorous marine mammal, often called the “sea cow” for its habit of grazing on seagrass meadows. Its range extends from the shallow tropical and subtropical coastal and island waters of the Indo-Pacific, from East Africa to the Solomon Islands and Vanuatu.

Statement 3: Sea otters are a keystone species, meaning their role in their environment has a greater effect than other species. As predators, sea otters are critical to maintaining the balance of the near-shore kelp ecosystems.

Q Source: Improvisation: UPSC CSP 2013

Solution: b)

Justification: Option (a): The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the President of all the Forums except the Parliamentary Forum on Population and Public Health wherein the Chairman of Rajya Sabha is the President and the Speaker is the Co-President.

Option (b): Each Forum consists of not more than 31 members (excluding the President and ex-officio VicePresidents) out of whom not more than 21 are from the Lok Sabha and not more than 10 are from the Rajya Sabha.

Option (c): Members (other than the President and Vice-Presidents) of these forums are nominated by the Speaker/Chairman from amongst the leaders of various political parties/groups or their nominees, who have special knowledge/keen interest in the subject.

The duration of the office of members of the forum is co-terminus with their membership in the respective Houses. A member may also resign from the forum by writing to the Speaker/Chairman.

Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth

Solution: d)

Justification: Exotic species introduced to new environments often reset the ecological conditions in that new habitat, threatening the species that exist there; this is the reason that they are also termed invasive species.

• Invasive species that are closely related to rare native species have the potential to hybridize with the native species; harmful effects of hybridization have led to a decline and even extinction of native species.
• Invasive species can change the food web in an ecosystem by destroying or replacing native food sources. The invasive species may provide little to no food value for wildlife.
• Lakes and islands are particularly vulnerable to extinction threats from introduced species.

Q Source: NCERT 10^th Geography

Solution: d)

Justification: Some, but not all, earthquakes are related to volcanoes. A volcanic eruption can lead to groundshaking too, which should not be confused with earthquakes.

For example, most earthquakes are along the edges of tectonic plates. This is where most volcanoes too are found. However, earthquakes are also caused by the interaction of the plates not the movement of magma.

This is also the reason why every volcanic region is not a region of earthquakes. However nearly 75-80% convergence between both zones can be found.

But, ‘most’ earthquakes directly beneath a volcano are caused by the movement of magma. The magma exerts pressure on the rocks until it cracks the rock. Then the magma squirts into the crack and starts building pressure again.

Considering all these factors, statement A is incorrect, as neither all volcanic eruptions lead to earthquakes, nor is a volcanic eruption caused necessarily by an earthquake.

Q Source: NCERT Geography XIth: Fundamentals of Physical Geography

Solution: b)

Justification & Learning: Muhtasibs were appointed in all the provinces. These officials were asked to see that people lived their lives in accordance with the sharia. Thus, it was the business of these officials to see that wine and intoxicants such as Mang were not consumed in public places.

They were also responsible for regulating the houses of ill repute, gambling dens, etc. and for checking weights and measures.

In other words, they were responsible for ensuring that things forbidden by the sharia and the zawabits (secular decrees) were, as far as possible, not flouted openly.

However, if the Italian traveller, Manucci, who lived in India for a long time, is to be believed, all these regulations were flouted openly.

In appointing muhtasibs, Aurangzeb emphasised that the state was also responsible for the moral welfare of the citizens. But the officials were instructed not to interfere in the private lives of citizens.

Q Source: Medieval India: Satish Chandra (UPSC has been lifting few questions from this book)

Solution: a)

Justification: GDP is the total value of goods and services produced within the economy. But, it also includes production by foreign factors within the nation. So, (b) can’t be the answer.

GNP adjusts GDP for factor income from abroad.

Net National Product (NNP) adjusts even the GNP after deducting the loss due to ‘depreciation’. So, it is the best estimate of national income.

Total market value of consumption of all households only represents the ‘C’ part of the entire equation of national income which is C+I+G+ (X-M)= NI, so (d) is also incorrect.

Q Source: Indian Economy: Ramesh Singh

Solution: d)

Justification: Option (a): Change in collection of taxes with the change in GDP shows the tax buoyancy.

Tax buoyancy can be affected by a number of reasons including tax evasion, tax avoidance, less efficient methods of tax collection etc. These are the short-term reasons which affect the tax collection.

Increase in poverty may or may not affect Tax-GDP ratio, as most poor would not pay taxes (except some of the tax on consumption goods that they anyway would).

Option (b): Slowing economic growth rates may result in lower tax collection. But whether the fall in tax collection is proportionate to the fall in GDP cannot be known without knowing the on-ground statistics. It depends on the structural characteristics of the economy.

However, rising economic growth rates is most likely to result in greater tax collections except under certain conditions. So, (b) is clearly incorrect.

Option (c): This affects the size of fiscal deficit, and not that of the tax collections.

Q Source: UPSC CSP 2015

Solution: b)

Justification: Teesta originates from Kangse Glacier, Charamu Lake in Sikkim, most of its catchment area lies in India.

It enters Bangladesh, joins Brahmaputra, and ends in Bay of Bengal.

Presently after maintaining 25% of river water flow (for Bay of Bengal drainage) rest is divided between India and Bangaldesh, with a slightly greater share for India. So, 2 is incorrect.

More than 21 million farmers depend on the Teesta river flows as it irrigated areas like Rangpur which cultivate rice.

In dry season summer, there is often shortage of water for Bangladesh which adversely affects it farmers.

So, it has demanded an equal sharing of Teesta water while keeping 20% for ecological flows.

The deal was resisted by the WB CM and the agreement is still in consideration.

Q Source: Important issues: Current affairs: http://www.livemint.com/Politics/feg4naFtQrlaRtBRjP2jyK/Bangladesh-looks-to-resolve-Teesta-dispute-with-India.html

Solution: d)

Learning: The act extends to the whole of India, except the State of Jammu and Kashmir which has its own wildlife act. It defines five types of protected areas viz. National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries, Community Reserves, Conservation Reserves and Tiger Reserves.

A wildlife sanctuary is defined by State Government via a Notification. There is no need to pass a legislation (act) by the state assembly to declare a wildlife sanctuary.

There is no need to pass an act for alternation of boundaries.

No alternation of boundaries in wildlife sanctuaries can be done without approval of the NBWL (National Board of Wildlife) Limited human activities are permitted in the sanctuary.

For Central government, read point no. 38 here http://envfor.nic.in/legis/wildlife/wildlife1c4.pdf

Q Source: http://envfor.nic.in/legis/wildlife/wildlife1.html

Solution: d)

Justification: It is said that the Sarvastivada tradition fourth Buddhist council was convened at Kasmir by Kanishka, but the Theravada tradition does not recognize this council.

The Theravada had a Fourth Buddhist Council in the first century BCE in Tambapanni, i.e. Sri Lanka, at Aloka Lena now Alu Vihara during the time of King Vattagamani-Abay.

• According to the Theravāda commentaries and chronicles, the Third Buddhist Council was convened by the Mauryan king Ashoka at Pataliputra (today’s Patna), under the leadership of the monk Moggaliputta Tissa.
• About 100 or 110 years after the Buddha’s Nirvana, a monk called Yasa, when visiting Vesali, noticed a number of lax practices among the local monks.
• Wishing to settle the matter, he gathered support from monks of other regions, mainly to the west and south. A group consented to go to Vesali to settle the matter. After considerable maneuvering, a meeting was held, attended by 700 monks. A council of eight was appointed to consider the matter.
• the first Buddhist Council was held soon after the death of the Buddha, dated by the majority of recent scholars around 400 BCE, under the patronage of king Ajatashatru with the monk Mahakasyapa presiding, at Sattapanni caves Rajgriha.

Q Source: Buddhist councils have been covered in earlier tests