Insights Revision Plan for Prelims 2016: FULL LENGTH FREE ONLINE MOCK TEST – 2

Solution: c)

Justification: Statement 1: Article 41: The State shall, within the limits of its economic capacity and development, make effective provision for securing the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement, and in other cases of undeserved want.

Statement 2: It deals with allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha.

Statement 3: Relief of the disabled and unemployable – State List

http://socialjustice.nic.in/writereaddata/UploadFile/Seventh%20Schedule.pdf

Statement 4: Eleventh Schedule contains the following items:

• Health and sanitation, including hospitals, primary health centers and dispensaries.
• Family welfare.
• Women and child development.
• Social welfare, including welfare of the handicapped and mentally retarded.
• Welfare of the weaker sections, and in particular, of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.

Q Source: http://socialjustice.nic.in/writereaddata/UploadFile/Eleventh%20Schedule.pdf

Solution: d)

Justification: Statement 1: It was the earlier capital Delhi was prone to Mongol (not Greek) invasions, not Daultabad, which was actually more secure and centrally located.

Statement 2: No such referendum was held. It was a monarchy.

Statement 3: Daulatabad was situated at a long distance from the northern frontiers of the empire and those required to be constantly watched.

Learning: Barani points out that Dualatabad had a central situation and were nearly equidistant (700 miles) from Delhi. Gujarat, Lakhnauti, Telingana and other important places.

The new capital had its strategic value. It was safe from Mongolian invasions which constantly threatened Delhi. The Sultan also did his best to make Daulatabad a suitable place for his officers and the people.

Q Source: Past year UPSC papers

Solution: a)

Justification: Option (b) can’t be the answer because many constitutions provide for and aim at socio-economic justice.

Option (c) can’t be the answer because it is sovereignty of the nation that forms the basis for getting political rights, if any. If a nation is not free, there is no question of a political right.

• Also, please understand that no nation can be formed without anyone having political rights. Political rights are not only about voting or running for public office, but start from citizenship itself.
• For e.g. many point that the Kurdish or Kashmiri movement is not one that is supported by the Sovereign State, and so political rights and sovereignty are in conflict.
• But, secessionism is not considered as a political or constitutional right in the national context. Therefore, there are hardly few cases of conflicts between political rights and sovereignty. One forms the basis of the other.

Option (d) is not appropriate because populism is generally against long-term development objectives.

Option (a): “National Rights versus Minority Rights” was a terminology used by the UPSC itself in one of its CDS/CAPF papers. We used the same terminology to make you aware that it can/should be interpreted as Majority Rights.

• National rights versus minority rights have been a major issue in democracies. For e.g. in cases of development displacement, the question is whose rights should be preferred, the right of the nation to develop as a whole or that of minorities to decide their own future?
• In a religious setting, should a religious practice be banned because it is against national morality, or should the minority religious practices be respected because they have a right to preserve their practices.
• Such conflicts are common in democracies and every democracy strikes a balance between them by providing some space to minorities in decision making.

Q Source: General democratic issues

Solution: d)

Justification: While other types of batteries include toxic metals such as cadmium, the metals in lithium ion batteries – cobalt, copper, nickel and iron – are considered safe for landfills or incinerators.

Each battery contains 10 to 13% cobalt by weight.

According to the U.S. government, lithium ion batteries aren’t an environmental hazard, and instead their recycling can generate enough metal to be reused in the semiconductor industry applications.

Q Source: http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/india-fifth-largest-producer-of-ewaste-study/article8646446.ece

Solution: b)

Justification: Statement 1: If the launderer simply conceals income and violates I-T Act, he will not necessarily be booked for money laundering. Generation of black money and money laundering are two different issues, however closely related.

Statement 2: No, investments received from tax havens can be genuine investments too. But, generally it is seen that the round-tripped money (from home to host tax-haven to back home) is laundered money.

Statement 3: The Enforcement Directorate carries out investigations. The ED is also empowered to attach property of entities involved in money laundering. T

Statement 4: Banks, financial institutions and intermediaries are obligated, by law, to keep an eye on such transactions. In India, for example, if a suspected case of money laundering is spotted, the financial institution needs to inform the Financial Intelligence Unit-India (FIU-IND), an enforcement agency.

According to Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), the director of FIU-IND can impose fines on banks and other financial institutions if they fail to detect or conceal wrongdoings.

Q Source: Often in news due to Panama leaks

Solution: b)

Justification: As per the OHI 2014, the overall health score of the Oceans of the world stands at 67 out of 100. It covers all oceans of the world.

• For the assessment of the Ocean Health of the High Seas, three goals and sub-goals were assessed. There are: Fisheries, Iconic Species, and Biodiversity (measured as the threat of extinction to all assessed Species).
• The Western Indian Ocean and Eastern Central Atlantic Ocean scored the highest overall score of 79 and the North-western Pacific Ocean scored the lowest score of 53. So, 1 is incorrect.
• The OHI score of eight goals assessed for Antarctica are: Food Production (55), Natural Products (29), Economies and Livelihoods (83), Tourism and Recreation (55), Sense of Place (46), Coastal Protection (99), Clean Water (100) and Biodiversity (94). So, clearly 2 is correct.

Q Source: International Environment related NGOs: http://zeenews.india.com/news/sci-tech/worlds-first-ocean-health-index-finds-earths-oceans-only-67-healthy_1478550.html

Solution: d)

Justification: A referendum (in some countries synonymous with a plebiscite — or a vote on a ballot question) is a direct vote in which an entire electorate is asked to vote on a particular proposal. This may result in the adoption of a new law, leaving or joining a territory, adopting constitution or such other significant questions.

Statement 1: A constitutional referendum was held in Egypt in January 2014.The new constitution was approved by nearly 98% of voters (turnout was low though at around 38%).

Statement 2: A referendum to decide whether Greece was to accept the bailout conditions in the country’s government-debt crisis proposed jointly by the European institutions.

Statement 3: We know about the Brexit that happened in the month of July 2016 which was based on a referendum about staying or leaving the EU.

Statement 4: A referendum on Scottish independence took place in September 2014. The independence referendum question, which voters answered with “Yes” or “No”, was “Should Scotland be an independent country? The “No” side won and Scotland remains in the UK.

Q Source: Current Affairs of last 2-3 years

Solution: b)

Justification: A small population is likely to constitute a small market and thus not attractive for foreign investors who are looking for a long-term association with the economy. So, (a) is wrong.

Consistently high inflation and large fiscal deficit actually discourages investors because returns on investment become uncertain. If inflation is very high returns on investment will be eroded significantly. High fiscal deficit usually leads to macroeconomic imbalances. So, (c) is also wrong.

A closed economy does not have any external transactions. So, (d) is definitely wrong.

Highly skilled and cheap labour attracts FDI because the investor can run her business at a lower cost in the host country rather than home country, since labour costs form a major chunk of production cost. This has attracted many BPOs, KPOs in India. So, (b) is a correct option.

Q Source: Economic concepts

Solution: c)

Learning: Throughout most of 2013, Bangladesh Nationalist Party and its alliance led by Opposition Leader Khaleda Zia called more than 85 days of nationwide general strikes and blockades.

The opposition demanded that the ruling Awami League party led by the current Prime Minister Sheikh Hasina amends the constitution, dissolves parliament after their full five-year term ends in January 2014 and then hand over power to a non-partisan interim government or a caretaker government that will be run by technocrats for 90 days.

The job of a Caretaker Government of Bangladesh will then be to work in tandem with the Bangladesh Election Commission by helping them to organise, arrange, oversee the general election held on 5 January and transfer power to a newly elected government.

As most of the demands were not met within the stipulated time frame all opposition parties boycotted the polls

Q Source: http://www.nytimes.com/2014/01/05/world/asia/bangladesh-election.html?_r=0

Solution: d)

Learning: Under the Zero Landless (Citizens) Kerala Project, Kannur (Kerala) has been declared as the the first zero-landless district in India.

Zero Landless (Citizens) Kerala Project sought to provide 3 cents of land each to 2.44 lakh landless in the State of Kerala by 2015.

However, the land has not been divided most desirably, as many citizens have received infertile lands or lands far away from their residence.

Q Source: Current affairs of last 2-3 years: http://www.ndtv.com/south/kannur-in-kerala-declared-indias-first-zero-landless-citizens-district-539699

Solution: c)

Justification: The Thar Desert extends between the Aravalli Hills in the north-east, the Great Rann of Kutch along the coast and the alluvial plains of the Indus River in the west and north-west.

The desert lies in the rain shadow area of the Bay of Bengal arm of the southwest monsoon. The parallel nature of the range to the Arabian Sea arm also means that the desert does not receive much rainfall.

Q Source: Improvisation: Indian Physical Geography 11^th NCERT

Solution: b)

Learning: The Polygar Wars or Palaiyakkarar Wars were fought between the Polygars of the former Tirunelveli Kingdom in Tamil Nadu and the British East India Company forces between 1799 to 1805 over pending taxes, oppressive land revenue system etc.

The British finally won after carrying out gruelling protracted jungle campaigns against the Polygar armies and finally defeated them.

The British victory over the Polygars brought large parts of the territories of Tamil Nadu under British control, enabling them to get a strong hold in Southern India.

Q Source: Tribal revolts British India: Old NCERT Bipin Chandra

Solution: b)

Justification: Statement 1: The Annual Financial Statement of the Government of India in respect of each financial year (‘the Budget’) shall be presented to the House on such day as the President may direct.

Statement 2: The Budget shall be presented to the House in such form as the Finance Minister may, after considering the suggestions, if any, of the Estimates Committee, settle.

Statement 3: On a day to be appointed by the Speaker subsequent to the day on which the Budget is presented and for such time as the Speaker may allot for this purpose, the House shall be at liberty to discuss the Budget as a whole or any question of principle involved therein, but no motion shall be moved nor shall the Budget be submitted to the vote of the House.

The Finance Minister shall have a general right of reply at the end of the discussion.

Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth: http://parliamentofindia.nic.in/ls/rules/rulep19.html

Solution: c)

Justification: Statement 1 and 2: The largest reservoir of Earth’s oxygen is within the silicate and oxide minerals of the crust and mantle (99.5%). Only a small portion has been released as free oxygen to the biosphere (0.01%) and atmosphere (0.36%). The main source of atmospheric free oxygen is photosynthesis.

Statement 3: The processes that lead to loss of oxygen are:

• Aerobic respiration (largest – more than 75%)
• Microbial oxidation
• Combustion of fossil fuel (anthropogenic – around 6-7% loss only)
• Photochemical oxidation
• Fixation of N2 by lightning
• Fixation of N2 by industry (anthropogenic)
• Oxidation of volcanic gases
• Chemical weathering
• Surface reaction of O3

Q Source: Oxygen Cycle: 12^th NCERT Biology

Solution: b)

Justification: Statement 1: The year is 2010. The point to note is that biodiversity did not gain as much traction in 1992 as it has gained in the past few years. Then, in 1992, the focus was more on conservation of natural resources towards sustainable development.

Statement 2: The UN Decade on Biodiversity serves to support and promote implementation of the objectives of the Strategic Plan for Biodiversity and the Aichi Biodiversity Targets, with the goal of significantly reducing biodiversity loss.

We will be framing a lot of questions from this link in Q Source, so please go through all sections, sub-sections and links given in it broadly. UPSC too lifts a lot of questions directly from Wikipedia.

Q Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Biodiversity

Solution: c)

Justification: Statement 1: Li-fi is loosely expanded to Light-Fidelity. Using precisely controlled light modulation, data can be transmitted using regular, visible light.

Statement 2: It will be 10-100 times faster than current-generation WiFi, but very secure.

Statement 3: Transmission range of this technology is limited compared to a radio frequency based technologies likeWi-Fi. Its because range is inversely proportional to frequency.

So, Li-Fi is a very short range technology, and light fluctuations that transfer data are highly subtle, fast and sensitive. There will be a lot of obstruction in using them practically in the telecom towers.

Q Source: http://www.techworld.com/big-data/what-is-li-fi-everything-you-need-know-3632764/

Solution: c)

Justification: 11th FYP emphasises on the idea of “Rapid and inclusive growth” dealt in its Volume I.

12^th FYP emphasises on the theme “faster, sustainable and more inclusive growth”.

The plans before never focussed on inclusive growth as a theme, even though we were running several programmes that were targeted at poverty reduction (e.g. food for works) and inclusive growth.

Q Source: Ramesh Singh: Indian Economy

Solution: a)

Learning: It is a Pension and Life Insurance fund scheme.

The objective of MGPSY is to encourage and enable the overseas Indian workers by giving government contribution to:

• Save for their Return and Resettlement (R&R)
• Save for their old age,
• Obtain a Life Insurance cover against natural death during the period of coverage.

The government contribution available under the MGPSY is for a period of five years or till the return of subscribed worker back to India, whichever is earlier.

Q Source: http://www.mea.gov.in/mgpsy.htm

Solution: a)

Justification: Admission or establishment of new States, formation of new States, and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing States. Bills relating to such matters require the recommendation of the President for introduction.

Also, Article 110 of the Constitution deals with the definition of money bills. It states that a bill is deemed to be a money bill if it contains ‘only’ provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters (inter alia)

• The imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
• So, clearly option (c) requires prior Presidential assent as it becomes a money bill.

Other bills are:

• Money Bill (as per Article 110) & Finance Bill
• Any bill which affects the taxation in which the states are interested (Article 274)
• State Bills which impose restriction upon freedom of trade (Article 304).

Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth

Solution: a)

Justification: Due to a low temperature in the winter season, a high pressure develops over north-western India.

• In contrast to it, low pressure is found over south India, Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal.
• Therefore, winds blow from north-west to south-east. The direction of the winds in the Ganga valley is westerly or north-westerly and it becomes northerly in Brahmaputra valley.
• Direction of winds over the Bay of Bengal and south-eastern coastal regions is north-easterly.
• The pressure and wind conditions in north India are modified by the inflow of the westerly disturbances. These disturbances are westerly depressions originating over Central Asia and the Mediterranean Sea, and they reach India travelling across Iran and Pakistan.

Q Source: 9^th NCERT: Geography

Solution: d)

Learning: Renowned mathematician and Nobel laureate John Nash recently passed away, who was renowned for works in game theory (where we reach Nash equilibrium).

Game theory is the study of strategic decision making. Specifically, it is “the study of mathematical models of conflict and cooperation between intelligent rational decision-makers.”

Game theory is mainly used in economics, political science, and psychology, as well as logic, computer science, and biology.

Prisoner’s dilemma is a classical case of game theory.

Q Source: https://www.theguardian.com/us-news/2015/may/24/john-nash-mathematician-beautiful-mind-dies-taxi-crash

Solution: d)

Justification: Statement 1: Animals freely move about in the fields for grazing and spoil the soil by their hoofs which lead to soil erosion. This should be avoided. Separate feeding grounds should be arranged by growing fodder crop in large quantities.

Statement 2: Contour ploughing: If ploughing in done at right angles to the hfll slope, following the natural contours of the hill, the ridges and furrows break the flow of water down the hill This prevents excessive soil loss as gullies are less likely to develop and also reduce run-off so that plants receive more water. Thus by growing crops in contour pattern, plants can absorb much of the rain water and erosion is minimised.

Terracing: Contour ploughing follows the “natural shape” of the slope without altering it. Terrace farming alters the shape of the slope to produce flat areas that provide a catchment for water.

Statement 3: Much of the soil erosion by river floods can be avoided by constructing dams across the rivers. This checks the speed of water and saves soil from erosion.

Statement 4: Crops may be cultivated in alternate strips, parallel to one another. Some strips may be allowed to lie fallow while in others different crops may be sown e.g., grains, legumes, small tree crops, grass etc.

Various crops ripen at different times of the year and are harvested at intervals. This ensures that at no time of the year the entire area is left bare or exposed.

The tall growing crops act as wind breaks and the strips which are often parallel to the contours help in increasing water absorption by the soil by slowing down run off.

Q Source: NCERT 9^th Geography

Solution: a)

Learning: In general relativity, an event horizon is a boundary in space-time beyond which events cannot affect an outside observer. It is also defined as “the point of no return”, i.e., the point at which the gravitational pull becomes so great as to make escape impossible, even for light.

An event horizon is most commonly associated with black holes.

In the centre of a black hole is a gravitational singularity, a one-dimensional point which contains a huge mass in an infinitely small space, where density and gravity become infinite and space-time curves infinitely, and where the laws of physics as we know them cease to operate.

Q Source: http://www.newindianexpress.com/editorials/LIGO-Discovery-Opens-Up-World-of-Possibility/2016/02/13/article3273917.ece

Solution: a)

Justification: A reading of ancient Indian literature suggests that those people knew the basic concepts of hydrological processes and measurements.

Important concepts of modern hydrology are scattered in various verses of Vedas, Puranas, Meghmala, Mahabharat, Mayurchitraka, Vrhat Sanhita and other ancient Indian works.

For e.g. the most important concepts, on which the modern science of hydrology is founded, are scattered in Vedas in various verses which are in the form of hymns and prayers addressed to various deities.

• Verse I, 32, 10 says that the water is never stationary, but it continuously gets evaporated and due to smallness of particles we cannot see the upgoing water particles.
• In the Varahamihira’s Vraht Sanhita (550 A.D.), three Chapters are devoted to hydrometeorology comprising Pregnancy of clouds (Chapter 21), Pregnancy of air (Chapter 22) and quantity of rainfall (Chapter 23).
• Slokas 1 and 2 of Dakargelam (Chapter 54 of Vraht Samhita) state the importance of science of ground water exploration which helps man to ascertain the existence of water.

Q Source: http://www.nih.ernet.in/rbis/vedic.htm

Solution: b)

Learning: The question had two parts, “Central Asian countries that are land-locked” OR the ones that “do not have any coasts”. Only option (b) fits the criteria

Here is a map of the Central Asian region. Kazakhstan and Turkmenistan touch Caspian Sea. Uzbekistan and Kazakhstan touch the Aral sea. Afghanistan is another bordering nation to Central Asian republics that is landlocked.

Q Source: Map based questions: World Geography

Solution: a)

Justification: Statement 1: In 1963, the State of Nagaland was formed10 by taking the Naga Hills and Tuensang area out of the state of Assam. This was done to satisfy the movement of the hostile Nagas.

In 1972, the political map of Northeast India underwent a major change. Thus, the two Union Territories of Manipur and Tripura and the Sub-State of Meghalaya got statehood and the two union territories of Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh (originally known as North-East Frontier Agency—NEFA) came into being.

Statement 2: Initially, the 22^nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1969) created Meghalaya as an ‘autonomous state’ or ‘sub-state’ within the state of Assam with its own legislature and council of ministers.

Statement 3: In 1974, Sikkim expressed its desire for greater association with India. Accordingly, the 35 th Constitutional Amendment Act (1974) was enacted by the parliament. So, it gained statehood after Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh, statement 3 is wrong.

Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth

Solution: c)

Justification: Statement 1: If Nepal produces shoes at a cost of Rs. 100/piece, and India does the same at Rs. 50/piece, then its advantageous for Nepal to import it from India rather than producing all the wheat by itself. However, due to strategic reasons, no nation will ever shut down a domestic industry completely.

Statement 2: If raw material for making shoes is available easily in India, whereas that for making socks is available in Nepal more easily, India would tend to specialize in producing Shoes and Nepal in socks. This is because it is advantageous for both nations to extract and process the raw material locally than to import it.

Q Source: 12^th NCERT: Contemporary World Politics: Chapter on globalization

Solution: d)

Learning: The Bethunc School. founded by J.E.D. Bethune, president of the council of Education in Calcutta in 1849 was the first fruit of the powerful movement for women’s education that arose in the 1840s and 1850s.

In 1914, the Women’s Medical Service did a lot of work in training nurses and mid-wives. The Indian Women’s University started by Professor Karve in 1916 was one of the outstanding institutions imparting education to wonien.

In the same year Lady Hardinge Medical College was opened in Delhi.

Q Source: Improvisation: Past year UPSC papers

Solution: c)

Justification: Dandi march was started to break the salt law by non-violent methods following the strategy of civil disobedience to ultimately unite all the communities in India, as a common cause was taken up in the form of a mass movement.

Separate electorates for minorities issue was taken up later when the round table conference finished and the communal award was announced by Ramsay Mcdonald.

Q Source: 10^th NCERT: History

Solution: a)

Justification: It provides for the following salient points:

• No party or candidate shall indulge in any activity which may aggravate existing differences or create mutual hatred or cause tension between different castes and communities, religious or linguistic. So, (b) is correct.
• Criticism of other political parties, when made, shall be confined to their policies and programmes, past record and work. Parties and candidates shall refrain from criticism of all aspects of private life, not connected with the public activities of the leaders or workers of other parties. Criticism of other parties or their workers based on unverified allegations or distortions shall be avoided. So, (a) is incorrect.

The Ministers shall not combine their official visit with electioneering work and shall not also make use of official machinery or personnel during the electioneering work

Government transport including official air-crafts, vehicles, machinery and personnel shall not be used for furtherance of the interest of the party in power. So, (c) is also correct.

Issue of advertisement at the cost of public exchequer in the newspapers and other media and the misuse of official mass media during the election period for partisan coverage of political news and publicity regarding achievements with a view to furthering the prospects of the party in power shall be scrupulously avoided. So, (d) is also correct.

Q Source: Appendix VIII: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth

Solution: c)

Justification: Statement 1: Largest trading partner is China.

Statement 2: Exports to USA are around $42 billion, whereas second largest exports to UAE are around $33 billion.

Statement 3: Three largest import partners are China, Saudi and UAE in descending order of value of imports to India.

Statement 4: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_the_largest_trading_partners_of_India

Statement 5: Highest is petroleum products amounting to around $60 billion, then precious stones around $40 billion and then automobiles around $15 billion.

Economic survey clearly mentions (page 67, Vol II), ” Petroleum, crude and products occupy top position among the top eight export sectors with an 18.3 per cent”. Share of gems and jewellery exports is 13.3 per cent in 2014-15.

You can also go through the following references:

http://indiatoday.intoday.in/education/story/export-products/1/480878.html

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_the_largest_trading_partners_of_India#Countries_of_which_India_is_the_largest_trading_partner

Q Source: General economic statistics/facts are often asked by UPSC

Solution: a)

Learning: The gross national income (GNI) is the total domestic and foreign output claimed by residents of a country, consisting of gross domestic product (GDP) plus factor incomes earned by foreign residents, minus income earned in the domestic economy by non-resident.

GNI measures income received by a country both domestically and from overseas. In this respect, GNI is quite similar to Gross National Product (GNP), which measures output from the citizens and companies of a particular nation, regardless of whether they are located within its boundaries or overseas.

The Gross national income has gradually replaced the Gross national product (GNP) in international statistics. While being conceptually identical, it is calculated differently.

Q Source: Ramesh Singh: Indian Economy

Solution: c)

Justification: Statement 1: Irrigation by surface water and borewells increased after green revolution as the new GM crops required more water.

Statement 2: The presence and availability of groundwater varies greatly with changes in topography, subsurface geology and the prevailing climate in the region. In some areas, groundwater exists in deep aquifers while in others the water is stored near the surface.

In general, the mountainous and hilly regions in the north and west do not allow adequate infiltration and as a consequence, groundwater is mostly limited to valleys and other lower lying areas.

Statement 3: Coastal regions are usually rich in groundwater owing to the largely alluvial terrain, but the aquifers risk being easily contaminated by saltwater ingress due to overpumping.

Statement 4: The alluvial tract of the Gangetic plain, which extends over 2000 km across central and northern India has the best potential for groundwater extraction in the country. This large area possesses many favourable characteristics for groundwater storage and recharge, and the yield over most of the region has been estimated at moderate to high.

AP, MP, Marashtra and UP have some the largest groundwater reserves. So, 4 is wrong.

Q Source: Improvisation: NCERT 9^th Geography

Solution: c)

Justification: India was the first country to ratify the Marrakesh Treaty to facilitate access to published works for persons who are blind, visually impaired, or otherwise print disabled on 30th June, 2014.

Before India ratified the treaty, 79 WIPO (World Intellectual Property Organisation) member states had only “signed” this Treaty.

The Marrakesh treaty comes into force once twenty countries ratify this treaty. More than 50 countries have ratified it and thus it has come into force.

• The treaty requires signatories to adopt national law provisions that facilitate the availability of published works in formats like Braille that are accessible to the blind and allow their exchange across borders by organisations working for the visually impaired.
• The treaty will facilitate import of accessible format copies from the member states by the Indian authorised entities such as educational institutions, libraries and other institutions working for the benefit of the visually impaired.
• This will also facilitate translation of imported accessible format copies and export of accessible format copies in Indian languages.

Q Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=106012

Solution: b)

Justification: The Union Government in March 2013 constituted a committee to clearly define the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investment (FII).

At present, if an investor has a stake of 10 per cent or less in a company, the investment is treated as foreign institutional investment.

If an investor has a stake of more than 10 per cent, it is treated as foreign direct investment. But, the same investor can invest as FDI or FII depending on his shareholding in the company. So, statement 1 is incorrect.

Statement 2: The mayaram committee recommended treating non-repatriable (that which is not taken abroad) NRI investment as domestic investments. They were being treated as FDI earlier.

The Union Cabinet recently approved the review of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) Policy on investments by Non-Resident Indians (NRIs), Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs) and Overseas Citizens of India (OCIs). Their non-repatriable investments will now be considered as domestic investments.

Q Source: http://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/centre-accepts-mayaram-panel-report-on-fdi/article6136928.ece

Solution: c)

Learning: “Ahadi” literally means “royal messenger”.

Ahadis were those cavalry men who offered their services solely not attaching them to any headman. The emperor was their absolute colonel.

They were the personal contingents of the emperor and had a separate commandant of their own.

It is pointed out, that the Ahadis numbered 7,000 to 8,000.

Q Source: Past year UPSC papers

Solution: d)

Justification & Learning: Carbon sinks are natural systems that suck up and store carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.

The main natural carbon sinks are plants, the ocean and soil. Plants grab carbon dioxide from the atmosphere to use in photosynthesis; some of this carbon is transferred to soil as plants die and decompose.

The oceans are a major carbon storage system for carbon dioxide. Marine animals also take up the gas for photosynthesis, while some carbon dioxide simply dissolves in the seawater.

The soil also uptakes carbon dioxide and stores it.

Q Source: Ecology concepts

Solution: a)

Learning: A pressure group can be described as an organised group that does not put up candidates for election, but seeks to influence government policy or legislation. They can also be described as ‘interest groups’, ‘lobby groups’ or ‘protest groups’. So, political parties cannot be called as pressure groups.

Pressure groups provide a means of popular participation in national politics between elections. They are sometimes able to gather sufficient support to force government to amend or even scrap legislation.

For e.g. pressure groups like ABVP frequently organize protests, blockades and lobby with the Universities and governments for making their point.

Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth

Solution: b)

Learning: The First Five-year Plan was launched in 1951 which mainly focused in development of the primary sector.

Irrigation and energy (27.2%), agriculture and community development (17.4%), transport and communications (24%) and social services received major allocations.

The Second Plan was particularly notable in the development of the public sector and followed the Mahalanobis model which laid stress on the development of heavy industries.

Q Source: Ramesh Singh: Indian economy

Solution: a)

Justification: The entry of private service providers brought with it the inevitable need for independent regulation. The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) was, thus, established in 1997 by an Act of Parliament to regulate telecom services, including fixation/revision of tariffs for telecom services which were earlier vested in the Central Government.

TRAI’s mission is to create and nurture conditions for growth of telecommunications in the country in a manner and at a pace which will enable India to play a leading role in emerging global information society.

One of the main objectives of TRAI is to provide a fair and transparent policy environment which promotes a level playing field and facilitates fair competition.

Statement 3: The TRAI Act was amended by an ordinance (effective 2000), establishing a Telecommunications Dispute Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT) to take over the adjudicatory and disputes functions from TRAI. TDSAT was set up to adjudicate any dispute between a licensor and a licensee, between two or more service providers, between a service provider and a group of consumers, and to hear and dispose of appeals against any direction, decision or order of TRAI.

Q Source: Frequently in news due to Net neutrality and call drops

Solution: d)

Justification: Statement 1 and 2: Photosynthesis is the process of capturing light energy and converting it to sugar energy, in the presence of chlorophyll using carbon dioxide (CO2) and water (H2O). If leaves are covered, photosynthesis can hardly occur.

Statement 2: Respiration occurs in all living cells, including leaves and roots. Since respiration does not require light energy, it can be conducted at night or during the day. However, respiration does require oxygen which is taken from leaves and roots.

Statement 3: Transpiration is loss of water from leaves by evaporation. Water cannot evaporate from leaves if they are completely packed.

Q Source: Past year UPSC CDS papers

Solution: c)

Justification: Statement 1: It is a traditional embroidery style from Lucknow believed to have been introduced by Nur Jehan, the wife of Mughal emperor Jahangir.

Statement 2: Moradabad is famous for both bangles and brasswares.

Statement 3: Moradabad in Uttar Pradesh is said to be the world’s largest producer of bangles. Firozabad is the largest producer of glass bangles in the world. The Lad Bazar in Hyderabad is one of the most famous and largest markets of bangles.

Q Source: Past year UPSC CDS papers

Solution: b)

Justification: The rugged terrain and adverse climatic conditions make exploration of minerals difficult and costly, but it can’t be a reason for lack of mineral resources. So, (a) and (b) are wrong.

Our rich mineralized zone is largely confined to the old, crystalline rock structures of plateaus and low hills of peninsular India. So, option (d) is clearly wrong.

In Himalayas, geological processes have led to major displacement of rock strata. This has disturbed the arrangement of rocks and made it complex, making Himalayas poor in mineral resources.

Q Source: UPSC past year papers

Solution: d)

Justification: The work done by the Parliament in modern times is not only varied in nature, but considerable in volume.

• The time at its disposal is limited. It cannot, therefore, give close consideration to all the legislative and other matters that come up before it. A good deal of its business is, therefore, transacted by what are called the Parliamentary Committees.
• The committees that act as watchdogs are the Committees on Subordinate Legislation (checks rules/regulation made under laws), the Committee on Government Assurances, the Committee on Estimates, the Committee on Public Accounts and the Committee on Public Undertakings and Departmentally Related Standing Committees (DRSCs).
• The Committee on Estimates, the Committee on Public Accounts, the Committee on Public Undertakings and DRSCs play an important role in exercising a check over governmental expenditure and Policy formulation.

Committee on Government Assurances (Lok Sabha)

• This Committee consists of 15 members nominated by the Speaker. A Minister is not nominated to this Committee.
• While replying to questions in the House or during discussions on Bills, Resolutions, Motions etc., Ministers at times give assurances or undertakings either to consider a matter or to take action or to furnish the House further information later.
• The functions of this Committee are to scrutinize the assurances, promises, undertakings etc. given by Ministers from time to time and to report to Lok Sabha on the extent to which such assurances etc. have been implemented and to see whether such implementation has taken place within the minimum time necessary for the purpose.

Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth

Solution: d)

Justification: Solar insolation depends on both latitude and longitude.

For e.g. even if a North-eastern state and Western state are at the same latitude, they would not see the Sun overhead at the same time. There will be a time lag.

Similarly, if a Northern State and Southern state are at the same longitude, they do not receive the same amount of solar insolation. Depending on the apparent position of Sun in the sky, place close to ITCZ would receive greater insolation.

Q Source: 6^th NCERT: Geography

Solution: d)

Justification: All oil and gas deposits are found in structural or stratigraphic traps.

Most oil and gas deposits are found in sandstones and coarse-grained limestones. A piece of sandstone or limestone is very much like a hard sponge, full of holes, but not compressible. These holes, or pores, can contain water or oil or gas, and the rock will be saturated with one of the three.

The oil and gas become trapped in these holes, stays there, for millions of years.

Q Source: Improvisation: Past year UPSC papers

Solution: d)

Learning: RGPSA doesn’t intervene in the District autonomous councils as they are not within the PRI system.

The Rajiv Gandhi Panchayat Sashaktikaran Abhiyan will strengthen the Panchayati Raj system across the country and address critical gaps that constrain its sucess.

RGPSA seeks to (apart from what is mentioned in the question):

• Enhance capacities and effectiveness of Panchayats and the Gram Sabhas;
• Strengthen the institutional structure for knowledge creation and capacity building of Panchayats;
• Strengthen Gram Sabhas to function effectively as the basic forum of people’s participation, transparency and accountability within the Panchayat system;
• Strengthen the constitutionally mandated framework on which Panchayats are founded.

Q Source: http://www.panchayat.gov.in/documents/401/80005/GUIDLINES_RGPSA.pdf

Solution: a)

Justification: Statement 1: The Reserve Bank Of India (RBI) is likely to begin an experiment in select few cities in India to test the possibility of replacing the regular paper-based currency notes with plastic currency notes.

The security features on these notes will be easy to verify as well as quite difficult to counterfeit.

Statement 2: Printing plastic notes has a higher cost. But, it is assumed that its benefits like longer life, reduced counterfeiting etc will ultimately lead to long term benefits offsetting the initial cost.

Q Source: Last 2 years current affairs: http://www.thehindu.com/business/markets/plastic-notes-to-be-launched-next-year/article6013003.ece

Solution: a)

Justification: Earliest Bhakti movements in India were led by Alvar and Nayanar saints.

Statement 1: The importance of the traditions of the Alvars and Nayanars was sometimes indicated by the claim that their compositions were as important as the Vedas.

For instance, one of the major anthologies of compositions by the Alvars, the Nalayira Divyaprabandham, was frequently described as the Tamil Veda, thus claiming that the text was as significant as the four Vedas in Sanskrit that were cherished by the Brahmanas.

Statement 2: Perhaps one of the most striking features of these traditions was the presence of women. For instance, the compositions of Andal, a woman Alvar, were widely sung. These women challenged patriarchal norms.

Q Source: 12th NCERT: Themes in Indian History-I

Solution: b)

Learning: Despite a long-term peace process and the general reconciliation of Israel with Egypt and Jordan, Israelis and Palestinians have failed to reach a final peace agreement.

The remaining key issues are: mutual recognition, borders, security, water rights, control of Jerusalem, Israeli settlements, Palestinian freedom of movement, and Palestinian right of return.

Many Palestinians and Israelis in the West Bank and Gaza Strip have expressed a preference for a two-state solution.

Q Source: Frequently in news

Solution: a)

Learning: It was launched on third UN World Conference on Disaster Risk Reduction held at Sendai in Japan in March 2015.

The GlobalSat was proposed in response to the need for a globally interconnected disaster and environmental management system since no single country can afford to develop a complete set of sensors and satellite systems needed for forecasting, monitoring and mitigating disasters like floods, drought, typhoons, earthquakes, wild fires, windstorms, or tidal events.

It will provide a common platform that will allow sharing of space and data segments, with an ability to serve individual nation’s disaster management and development needs.

Q Source: http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/global-satellite-to-be-named-after-abdul-kalam/article7512030.ece

Solution: d)

Justification: Statement 1: The US senate refused to recognize India as a strategic partner, and thus the US instead recognized India only as a major defence partner (with lesser access to modern technologies than in case it was declared a strategic partner). http://thebricspost.com/us-senate-refuses-to-grant-india-strategic-defence-partner-status/#.V3E-IFR97IV

Now, we would be treated at a level similar to the closest allies and partners of the U.S. and that it sort of allows for better, higher quality, faster technology access on the defence side and also more liberal access to the dual technology side.

Statement 2: There was no mention of South China sea in the document.

Q Source: http://www.thehindu.com/news/international/us-names-india-major-defence-partner/article8704634.ece

Solution: c)

Justification: Statement 1: It targets adolescent girl population.

Statement 2: The Centrally Sponsored Pilot Scheme ‘Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana’ (PMAGY) is being implemented for integrated development of Scheduled Castes (SC) majority villages having SC Population concentration > 50%.

Statement 3: It provides that each member of parliament of India has the choice to suggest to the Head of the District works to the tune of ₹5 crore per year, to be taken up in his/her constituency. It does not target SC population directly.

Q Source: http://socialjustice.nic.in/UserView/index?mid=19536

Solution: c)

Learning: Moist tropical forest is a broad category that includes tropical evergreen forests, semi-evergreen forests, littoral and swamp forests and moist deciduous forests.

Bordering the areas of tropical wet evergreen forests, are comparatively drier areas of the tropical semi-evergreen forests – Here the armual rainfall is 200-250 cm, the mean annual temperature varies from 24°C to 27°C and the relative humidity is about 75 per cent.

• These forests are found on the Western coast, Assarr, lower slopes of the Eastern Himalayas, Orissa and Andamans.
• The semi-evergreen forests are less dense but more gregarious (especially in Assam) than the wet evergreen forests.
• At places, these forests represent a transition from wet evergreen to deciduous forests. Further, these forests are characterised by many species, frequently buttressed tnmks, rougher and thicker bark, heavy climbers, less bamboos and abundant epiphytes.

Source: 11^th NCERT Geography: India Physical Environment

Solution: d)

Justification: Statement 1: Amarkantak (MP) is the place from where the Narmada River originates. It rises from the Maikal ranges at the height of 1057 m above MSL. It mainly flows in the central India.

Statement 2: Chambal River originates from the Singar Chouri peak on the northern slopes of the Vindhyan escarpment.

Statement 3: The river rises in the eastern Satpura Range of southern Madhya Pradesh state, and flows westward, draining Madhya Pradesh’s Nimar region, Maharashtra’s Kandesh and east Vidarbha regions in the northwest corner of the Deccan Plateau and south Gujarat, before emptying into the Gulf of Cambay of the Arabian Sea.

Q Source: 9^th Geography NCERT

Solution: b)

Justification: Ministry of Tribal Welfare is a separate ministry. So, 3 is wrong.

Department of Agricultural Research and Education and Dept of farmer’s welfare are under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmer Welfare. So, 1 and 2 are wrong.

Learning: There is a proposal that the Ministry of Panchayati Raj and Drinking Water and Sanitation (which are separate ministries now) to be merged under the MoRD.

But, the MoRD (even now) displays them as departments under it (despite the change being made official). Moreover, a common Minister is heading these departments/ministries.

Q Source: http://rural.nic.in/netrural/rural/index.aspx

Solution: c)

Justification: The westerly winds develop within the equatorial trough when the Intertropical Convergence Zone is well north or south of the Equator.

The north-easterly or south-easterly trade winds cross the Equator and, because of the reversal of the Coriolis effect, acquire a westerly component.

The term is also applied to the westerlies that are present throughout most of the year in the eastern Indian Ocean.

Q Source: 11^th NCERT: Fundamentals of Physical Geography

Solution: c)

Learning: A green building can function using an optimum amount of energy, consume less water, conserve natural resources, generate less waste and create spaces for healthy and comfortable living, as compared to conventional buildings, is a green building.

Conventional methods of building use tremendous quantities of material, many of them non-renewable and toxic, and pay little attention to the impact the building has on the environment.

Green buildings not only reduce these impacts but are also healthier and consume less energy saving money in the long run.

Q Source: http://mnre.gov.in/schemes/decentralized-systems/green-buildings-2/

Solution: d)

Justification: Statement 1: Marine current is ocean water moving in one direction. Tides also create currents that flow in two directions. Kinetic energy can be captured from the marine current and other tidal currents with submerged turbines that are very similar in appearance to miniature wind turbines.

As with wind turbines, the constant movement of the marine current moves the rotor blades to generate electric power.

Statement 2: Wave energy is generated by the movement of a device either floating on the surface of the ocean or moored to the ocean floor. This is harnessed to generate electricity.

Statement 3: The difference in water height from low tide and high tide is potential energy. Similar to traditional hydropower generated from dams, tidal water can be captured in a barrage across an estuary during high tide and forced through a hydro-turbine during low tide.

Statement 4: Ocean thermal energy conversion, or OTEC, uses ocean temperature differences from the surface to depths lower than 1,000 meters, to extract energy. A temperature difference of only 20°C can yield usable energy.

• In the closed cycle method, a working fluid, such as ammonia, is pumped through a heat exchanger and vaporized. This vaporized steam runs a turbine.
• The cold water found at the depths of the ocean condenses the vapor back to a fluid where it returns to the heat exchanger.

Q Source: http://mnre.gov.in/schemes/new-technologies/tidal-energy/

Solution: d)

Justification & Learning: The Deccan peasants uprising 1875 was directed mainly against the excesses of the Marwari and Gujarati money lenders.

Social boycott of moneylenders by the peasants was later transformed into armed peasant revolt in the Poona and Alimadnagar districts of Maharashtra.

By June 1875 nearly a thousand peasants were arrested and the uprising completely suppressed.

The Government appointed the Deccan Riots Commission to investigate into the causes of the uprising.

The ameliorative measure passed was the Agriculturists Relief Act of 1879 which put restrictions on the operations of the peasants land and prohibited imprisonment of the peasants of the Deccan for failure to repay debts to the moneylenders.

Q Source: Bipin Chandra: India’s struggle for Independence

Solution: c)

Justification: Statement 1: Astronomy, Buddhism, medicine, mathematics etc were also taught there.

Statement 2: Use smart elimination in such questions. It is common knowledge that there were a lot of students studying at Nalanda. If 2 is eliminated, the only answer possible is (c).

There were more than 10,000 students who were housed in dormitories then, which was perhaps unique to an educational institution then. It attracted international students also (e.g. Huen Tsang).

Statement 3: It is said that Chanakya, Charaka and Chardagupta Maurya studied here. Arthashashtra is said to have composed in Takshashila itself.

Q Source: Yojana 2016

Solution: c)

Learning: The RBI set up the PJ Nayak Committee to look into three issues related with Public Sector banks (PSBs) – regulatory compliance; governance (board) of PSBs; and compensation of the board of directors.

Its major recommendations were:

• Removal of Banking Nationalization Acts of 1970 and l980, SBI Act etc.
• Incorporation of all banks under Companies Act and constituting a Bank Investment company for the government to transfer its holdings in banks.
• Appointment of a whole time director in three phases with the help of Bank Boards Bureau (BBB)
• Reduction of government stake to less than 50 per cent.
• Recommendation on HR policy that could bring younger people into top management.

Q Source: Last 2 year current affairs: Also, Yojana 2016

Solution: c)

Learning: It is to support market interventions for price control of perishable agri-horticultural commodities during 2014-15 to 2016-17. Initially the fund is proposed to be used for market interventions for onion and potato only.

PSF Scheme provides for advancing interest free loan to State Governments/Union Territories (UTs) and Central agencies to support their working capital and other expenses on procurement and distribution interventions for such commodities.

Q Source: Annual Budget 2016-17

Solution: d)

Justification: Statement 1: It does not have any office in Antarctica, so it is based in only 6 continents. This question statement is a modified version of a statement appearing directly on the homepage of WWF. Please be prepared to face such options, tick carefully.

Statement 2: It was set up as a Charitable Public Trust in 1969 (Rio Summit in 1992). It was then known as the World Wildlife Fund-India, much before the terms ‘wildlife’ and ‘environment’ had caught the attention of the government or the public.

Statement 3: NITI Aayog is the nodal agency for SDGs, no separate nodal agencies have been assigned for this particular goal.

Q Source: http://www.wwfindia.org/who_we_are/mission/

Solution: c)

Learning: Economic liberalization is the lessening of government regulations and restrictions in an economy in exchange for greater participation by private entities promoting economic development.

• As a general rule, to what degree a country is liberalized economically can be found out by how easy it is to invest and do business in the country.
• The primary goals of economic liberalization are the free flow of capital between nations and the efficient allocation of resources and competitive advantages. This is usually done by reducing protectionist policies such as tariffs, trade laws and other trade barriers.
• India started liberalizing significantly since 1991 reforms, for e.g. easing FDI caps, promoting ease of doing business, reducing bureaucracy where its not needed etc.

Q Source: 11^th NCERT: Indian Economic Development

Solution: b)

Learning: Around the globe, Oxfam works to find practical, innovative ways for people to lift themselves out of poverty and thrive.

Oxfam works directly with communities and seeks to influence the powerful, to ensure that poor people can improve their lives and livelihoods and have a say in decisions that affect them.

Oxfam’s involvement in India began when money was granted in 1951 to fight famine in Bihar. Bihar at the time was one of the poorest and most populated states in India.

Oxfam India was established in 2008 under the Companies Act, 2005 as a non profitable organization with its head office in Delhi and is now a member of Oxfam International Confederation.

Q Source: International NGOs: https://www.oxfam.org/en/about

Solution: d)

Justification: Please refer to the map here and check options (a), (b) and (c). http://www.worldmapsonline.com/images/murals/miller_world_physical_wall_mural_lg.jpg

Mt. Kilimanjaro is a dormant volcano in Tanzania and the highest mountain in Africa.

The Gobi Desert is a vast, arid region in northern China and southern Mongolia. It’s known for its dunes, mountains and rare animals like snow leopards and Bactrian camels.

The Bering Strait is a strait connecting the Pacific and Arctic oceans between Russia and the United States. The International Date Line runs equidistant between the Strait’s Diomede Islands at a distance of 1.5 km.

Q Source: World geography: Map based questions

Solution: b)

Justification: Here are the national symbols:

• National animal: Royal Bengal tiger
• National heritage animal of India: Elephant
• National mammal of India: Hanuman Langur
• National aquatic animal: Ganges river dolphin
• National bird: Peacock

Lotus is the National Flower of India. It is a sacred flower and occupies a unique position in the art and mythology of ancient India and has been an auspicious symbol of Indian culture since time immemorial.

Q Source: Improvisation UPSC CSE 2015: https://india.gov.in/india-glance/national-symbols

Solution: d)

Justification: Indian rhinoceros is vulnerable as per IUCN classification.

Namdapha flying squirrel: It is known from a single specimen collected in 1981 from the Namdapha National Park, though there were informal sightings in 2002. Its range may be restricted to a single valley and it is threatened by poaching of animals for food from within the park, and possibly by habitat destruction

Sangai: Its habitat is located in the southern parts of the Loktak Lake, which is the largest freshwater lake in eastern India. It is also one of the seven Ramsar sites of international importance. The habitat of the sangai is now protected as the Keibul Lamjao National Park. The sangai is also the state animal of Manipur

Q Source: IUCN Red List

Solution: d)

Learning: The principles laid down therein are considered fundamental in the governance of the country, making it the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws to establish a just society in the country.

They were made non-justifiable keeping in view that the state may not have resources to implement them.

DPSPs are not enforceable in a court of law.

Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth

Solution: b)

Learning: This is the most widely spread and important soil. In fact, the entire northern plains are made of alluvial soil. These have been deposited by three important Himalayan river systems– the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra.

The alluvial soil consists of various proportions of sand, silt and clay.

As we move inlands towards the river valleys, soil particles appear bigger in size. In the upper reaches of the river valley i.e. near the place of the break of slope, the soils are coarse.

Q Source: 10^th Geography NCERT

Solution: b)

Justification: Statement 1: They are an ethnic and linguistic aboriginal group of the Brahmaputra valley in the northeast part of India.

Statement 2: The Bodo family structure is patriarchal, with the father as the head of the family. The family property usually passes to the male members of the family.

Statement 4: The village priest looks after the proceedings of the several rituals that mark their social and religious calendars. The priest, the douri (assistant of priest), and the heads of the families are the revered persons of the family, and are the decision-makers. The most important community institution of Bodos is the village. The village council’s decision in all matters is accepted by the people.

Q Source: http://online.assam.gov.in/web/guest/tribes_of_assam

Solution: c)

Justification: Aggregate demand is the total demand for final goods and services in an economy at a given time.

Statement 1: Investment creates infrastructure, generates demand for raw material, labour, provides employment and adds to the productive capacity of the economy. It is one of the most potent factors in increasing Aggregate demand (AD).

Statement 2 and 3: The government has some ability to impact AD. It can give fiscal stimulus or increase taxes in order to influence how consumers spend or save. An expansionary fiscal policy (higher spending, lower taxes) causes AD to increase, while a contractionary monetary policy (e.g. high bank rates) causes AD to decrease.

Q Source: 12^th NCERT: Macroeconomics

Solution: a)

Justification: Sankhya is the oldest philosphy. It was put forward by Kapila. Sankhya philosophy provided the materialistic ontology for Nyaya and Vaisheshik

Statement 1: Samkhya emphasizes the attainment of knowledge of self by means of concentration and meditation. Sankhya holds that it is the self-knowledge that leads to liberation and not any exterior influence or agent. Samkhya thus forms the philosophical basis for Yoga.

Statement 2: It is generally believed that Sankhya Philosophy is dualistic and not monistic because it has two entities, purush (spirit which is immaterial, ever-existing) and prakriti (nature which is material consisting of three gunas – Satva, Rajas, tamas) in it.

Q Source: Old NCERT: Ancient History

Solution: d)

Justification: The Parliament, through an Act in 1981, approved the setting up of NABARD. The bank came into existence in 1982 by transferring the agricultural credit functions of RBI and refinance functions of the then Agricultural Refinance and Development Corporation (ARDC).

In discharging its role as a facilitator for rural prosperity, NABARD is entrusted with

• Providing refinance to lending institutions in rural areas
• Bringing about or promoting institutional development and
• Evaluating, monitoring and inspecting the client banks

Besides this pivotal role, NABARD also:

• Acts as a coordinator in the operations of rural credit institutions
• Extends assistance to the government, the Reserve Bank of India and other organizations in matters relating to rural development
• Offers training and research facilities for banks, cooperatives and organizations working in the field of rural development
• Helps the state governments in reaching their targets of providing assistance to eligible institutions in agriculture and rural development

Learning: Co-operative banks have a three tier structure — primary (agriculture or urban) credit societies, district central co-operative banks and at the apex level, state co-operative banks.

Urban Cooperative Banks come under the regulatory domain of State governments and RBI.

Others are regulated by NABARD. Also, see https://www.nabard.org/pdf/Regulation_and_Supervision_of_mFIs.pdf

Q Source: https://www.nabard.org/english/home.aspx#

Solution: a)

Learning: Whitefly is a small (1-2 mm) white coloured insect affecting cotton, and also occurring on vegetables and other crops in tropical and sub-tropical regions.

There is large-scale crop damage from whitefly infestation this year, especially in northern India.

Reasons and spread in India:

• Rains were scarce and intermittent, which led to farmers resorted to excessive irrigation and urea application that promoted fresh vegetative growth and allowed whiteflies to proliferate.
• The problem was worsened by over-spraying of pesticides.
• Other reasons are delayed sowing, persistent drought coupled with hot and cloudy conditions.
• The early-sown crop is less susceptible, as the mature leaves are not preferred by whiteflies.
• The whitefly menace was not witnessed in Maharashtra. Although Telangana did report some incidence, it was much less severe than Punjab.

Q Source: http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/500-scouts-to-tackle-whitefly-in-cotton-fields-of-punjab/article8719520.ece

Solution: a)

Learning: It is a metrical historical chronicle of north-western Indian subcontinent, particularly the kings of Kashmir, written in Sanskrit by Kashmiri Brahman Kalhaṇa in 12th century CE.

The work generally records the heritage of Kashmir, but 120 verses of Rājatarangiṇī describe the misrule prevailing in Kashmir during the reign of King Kalash, son of King Ananta Deva of Kashmir.

Although the earlier books are inaccurate in their chronology, they still provide an invaluable source of information about early Kashmir and its neighbors in the north western parts of the Indian subcontinent, and are widely referenced by later historians and ethnographers.

Q Source: 6^th History NCERT: Our Pasts-I

Solution: d)

Justification: Statement 1: It was a project the Government of India conducted between 1894 and 1928, under the direction of George A. Grierson, a member of the Indian Civil Service. It is a useful source for understanding the linguistic diversity of India.

Statement 2: A new Linguistic Survey of India project was initiated by the Language Division of Office of the Registrar General & Census Commissioner of India in 1984. This project is still going on and at the end of year 2010 approximately 40% of the survey has been completed. However, some sources point that the project has been abandoned.

Q Source: http://censusindia.gov.in/2011-documents/lsi/ling_survey_india.html

Solution: d)

Justification & Learning: By emphasizing the links between individual consumption decisions and outcomes for the whole economy, his work has helped transform modern microeconomics, macroeconomics and development economics. In his work, he has tried to answer three questions:

•  How do consumers distribute their spending among different goods?
•  How much of society’s income is spent and how much is saved?
•  How do we best measure and analyze welfare and poverty?

India has been one of Deaton’s laboratories. His work has greatly influenced how India maps its disadvantaged population.

For instance, he pointed out how in the 55th Round of the NSS (1999-2000) there were measurement flaws.

The central message emanating from Deaton’s work is that inequalities are often a consequence of economic growth.

Q Source: https://www.nobelprize.org/nobel_prizes/economic-sciences/laureates/

Solution: c)

Learning: The tropical savanna is a biome characterized by tall grasses and occasional trees. Large regions of tropical savanna extend through the nations of Botswana, Namibia, and Kenya in Africa, southern Brazil, India, and Australia.

Savannas exist in areas where there is a 6 to 8 month wet summer season and a dry winter season. Annual rainfall in savannas varies depending on the geographic location.

There are also distinct wet and dry seasons.

Q Source: UPSC past year papers

Solution: d)

Justification: MFI regulation status is not very clear in India. See, http://www.thehindubusinessline.com/markets/centre-told-to-come-clear-on-regulator-for-mfis/article8119923.ece

http://indianexpress.com/article/business/business-others/mudra-not-to-regulate-micro-finance-institutions-govt/

Land development bank provides long-term funds for various agriculture related projects besides development of land and business.

It is of quasi-commercial type and provides services such as accepting deposits, making business loans, and offering basic investment products. So, all options other than (d) will not be the correct answer.

Q Source: https://www.nabard.org/english/home.aspx#

Solution: b)

Justification: Government has recently (2015) decided to set up a National Tribal Advisory Council for effecting monitoring and implementation of various tribal welfare schemes.

Statement 1: The NTAC is different from a TAC that is setup under 5^th schedule provisions.

As per Para 4(1) of the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution, there shall be TAC in each State having Scheduled Areas therein and , if the President should directs, also in any State having Scheduled Tribes but non-Scheduled Areas Therein

Statement 2: The council is chaired by the Prime Minister and will meet once or twice in a year.

Statement 3: It monitors and does not approve funds for tribal welfare.

Q Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=130055

Solution: d)

Justification: Gadgil Committee (not Kasturirangan) report specifies that the present system of governance of the environment should be changed. The commission recommended constitution of a Western Ghats Ecology Authority (WGEA). So, option (c) is incorrect.

The Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel (WGEEP) (Gadgil committee) designated the entire hill range as an Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA).

Instead of the total area of Western Ghats, only 37% (i.e. 60,000 sq. km.) of the total area be brought under ESA under Kasturirangan report. So, (a) is also incorrect.

Solution: d)

Justification: Indian drug makers depend on foreign imports for the APIs in many antibiotics, painkillers, synthetic penicillin etc.

• There is a growing concern in India that the domestic pharma industry has developed an over dependence on China for the manufacture of active pharmaceutical ingredients (APIs).
• India is known for complex intermediates and APIs, while China always had an advantage when it comes to base chemicals and intermediates.
• The concern now is that China has gone up the value chain and is becoming more competitive in APIs and complex intermediates as well.
• Also, the USA is banning generic drugs that are not manufactured by using locally synthesized APIs.
• Experts cite fragmentation within the industry, high costs of land, power and utilities, as well as a marked lack of incentive for research and development. The Chinese are simply able to offer the same ingredients at a more attractive price.
• LiveMint reports that the Indian government intends to make locally manufactured APIs more attractive and available for Indian drug makers.

From the above, it is clear that none of the options except (d) is correct.

Q Source: http://www.business-standard.com/article/economy-policy/govt-to-create-separate-ministry-for-pharma-in-one-year-ananth-kumar-115120901043_1.html

Solution: c)

Justification: Statement 1: In normal circumstances, moisture laden ocean breeze would travel from the ocean to land. But, due to global warming, relative sea temperatures rise (and low pressure regions are created over the ocean). More and more moisture-laden winds then move upwards, form clouds (rather than going to land) and cause more rainfall over the ocean than at land.

Although even the land gets heated and attracts ocean winds, but, the winds are relatively drier than before (the movement of which is referred as subsidence) resulting in scarcity of rainfall over land.

Statement 2: NASA-funded scientists announced that warming sea surface temperatures over the past decade have caused a global decline in phytoplankton productivity.

The most likely explanation is that the warmer the surface waters become, the less mixing there is between those waters and deeper, more nutrient-rich water. As nutrients become scarce at the surface, where phytoplanktons grow, productivity will decline.

Food Security issues will also arise as large scale distribution of fishes are associated with the phytoplankton’s availability.

Q Source: https://www.theguardian.com/environment/2015/may/18/indian-ocean-storing-up-heat-from-global-warming-says-study

Solution: d)

Justification: Rajya Sabha is a permanent continuing chamber and not subject to dissolution. Hence, there is no term of RS, it is the term of the MPs of the house. So, (d) can be the only answer.

Lok Sabha’s term can be increased by six months at a time during the proclamation of emergency.

This is keeping in view the importance of a legislature overseeing the actions of the executive during emergency periods.

Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth

Solution: d)

Justification: Article 366 contains the definitions of various terms used in different provisions of the constitution. These are mentioned below:

• Agricultural Income means agricultural income as defined for the purposes of the enactments relating to Indian income-tax.
• Securities include stock.
• Union Territory means any Union territory specified in the First Schedule and includes any other territory comprised within the territory of India but not specified in that Schedule.

Since the term “procedure established by law” is not defined, the courts have taken enough liberty to interpret it to mean “due process of law”. So, (d) will be the correct answer.

Q Source: Appendix V: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth

Solution: a)

Justification: Statement 1 and 2: Important elements were:

• Empowered the state to make special provisions for the advancement of socially and economically backward classes.
• Provided for the saving of laws providing for acquisition of estates, etc.
• Added Ninth Schedule to protect the land reform and other laws included in it from the judicial review
• Added three more grounds of restrictions on freedom of speech and expression, viz., public order, friendly relations with foreign states and incitement to an offence. Also, made the restrictions ‘reasonable’ and thus, justiciable in nature.

Statement 3: It was added by the 2^nd CA.

Statement 4: Added by the 3^rd CA.

Q Source: Freedom of Speech & Expression debate in India; and Appendix VI: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth

Solution: b)

Justification: It said Vedas are books of true knowledge, but the Samaj always gave preference to rational thoughts and the spirit of inquiry, justice and humanity.

This is also shown by one of their principles – All persons should always be ready to accept the truth and renounce the untruth.

You can read their principles here http://www.vedicculturalcentre.com/10principles.htm

Q Source: Old NCERT History: Bipin Chandra

Solution: b)

Justification: Statement 1: It is a legal right only and was stripped of its status as a constitutional right long back.

Statement 2: These are minority rights under the broader framework of Articles 25-30 that protect religious rights, safeguards minorities, their culture and heritage.

Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth

Solution: d)

Justification: Statement 1: Responsible for photosynthesis and the overall basis for life.

Statement 2: Nutrient availability decides the distribution and richness of community. For e.g. nutrient rich ocean waters are likely to have more phytoplankton.

Statement 3: Greater species richness and large-sized communities make a biome more stable. Greater the diversity, more intricate and reliable would be the trophic level linkages.

Q Source: Ecology concepts

Solution: c)

Justification: Statement 1: It is based in Kathmandu, Nepal.

Statement 2: The CoM of member states appoints the Sec Gen in alphabatical order for a three year term.

Statement 3: Council of Minsiters (CoM) comprises of the Ministers of Foreign /External Affairs of the Member States.

As provided in Article V of the Charter, the Council undertakes: formulation of policies of the Association; review of progress of cooperation under SAARC; decision on new areas of cooepration; establishment of aditional mechanism under SAARC, as deemed necessary; and decision on other matters of general interest to SAARC.

The Council is mandated to meet twice a year as also to hold its extra-ordinary session (by agreement of among the Member States).

Q Source: Intergovernmental organizations

Solution: a)

Justification: Option (d) is related to the Law of Diminishing marginal utility.

As per the Law of variable proportions “in a given state of technology, when the units of variable factor of production (L) are increased within the units of other fixed factors, the marginal productivity increases at increasing rate up to a point, after this point it will become less and less”.

Q Source: 12^th NCERT: Microeconomics

Solution: c)

Learning: Moderates believed in England’s providential mission in India.

They also believed political connections with Britain to be in India’s social, political and cultural interests and thus professed loyalty to the British Crown limiting their movements to middle class intelligentsia. They felt that masses are not yet ready for participation in political work.

So, they demanded only constitutional reforms and share for Indians in services by the use of constitutional methods only.

Extremists demanded swaraj as the panacea for Indian ills and did not hesitate to use extra- constitutional methods like boycott and passive resistance to achieve their objectives.

Q Source: 10^th NCERT: History

Solution: d)

Justification: Statement 1: Union Cabinet of India had approved the National Policy on Bio-fuels & its implementation in 2009 itself.

Statement 2: Jatropha, Minnata etc grow well in Indian conditions.

Statement 3: The National Policy on Bio-fuels envisages accelerated development and promotion of the cultivation, production and use of Bio-fuels to increasingly substitute petrol and diesel for transport. So, 3 is clearly wrong.

The major goals of the policy are Development and utilization of indigenous non-food feed stocks raised on degraded or waste lands, thrust on research and development on cultivation, processing and production of biofuels and a blending mandate of 20% Ethanol and Bio-diesel by 2017.

Their non-adoption is due to several reasons such as political will, farmer’s reluctance to grow bio-fuel crops, less established markets in India, lack of support from automobile makers, availability of land to grow bio-fuels etc. You can read other reasons here http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/the-ethanol-imperative/article2088170.ece

Q Source: http://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/flex-fuel-policy-of-government-to-curb-pollution-worry-automakers/article8116881.ece

Solution: d)

Justification: From 1950 to 2011, world population increased from 2.5 billion to 7 billion and is forecast to reach a plateau of more than 9 billion during the 21st century.

The global human population already exceeds planet’s biocapacity. So, increasing human population and its pressure is a major factor causing loss of biodiversity. Lack of human settlements would only allow the natural to evolve. So, (d) is the answer.

Option (a): Genetic erosion coupled with genetic pollution (for e.g. GM seeds used in green revolution) may be destroying unique genotypes, thereby creating a hidden crisis which could result in a severe threat to our food security.

Diverse genetic material could cease to exist which would impact our ability to further hybridize food crops and livestock against more resistant diseases and climatic changes.

Q Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Biodiversity

Solution: c)

Learning: For the first 60 years of its dominion in India, the East India Company, a trading and profit making concern, took no interest in the promotion of education.

However, small beginning was made by the Charter Act of 1813.

The Act incorporated the principle of encouraging learned Indians and promoting knowledge of modern sciences in the country. The Act directed the Company to sanction certain sum annually for this purpose.

The Government also set up three Sanskrit colleges at Calcutta, Delhi and Agra.

Q Source: Administrative measures under British government

Solution: b)

Justification: Statement 1: Both valleys are fertile and have a significant agricultural population or people living near river banks.

Statement 2: There are heavy landslides and soil erosion in these areas, so statement 2 is incorrect.

Statement 3: It is the large volume of water and size of catchment area (that receives rainfall from large parts) during Monsoon that culminating into floods due to heavy rains.

Statement 4: There is high intensity of rainfall in the Himalayan mountain range and also at the foot of the Himalayas which lies in the upper catchment of Ganga river. In the course of Brahmaputra there are heavy rainfalls in the North-eastern region of India.

Q Source: NCERT 9^th Geography

Solution: c)

Learning: In 2011, Sri Lanka announced that it would establish an Atomic Energy Regulatory Council to allow for the introduction of nuclear power generation technology in the country, and also to address concerns over the security of radioactive sources and to deal with radiation emergencies.

In this context, it signed an agreement with India in 2015. The agreement would facilitate cooperation in the transfer and exchange of knowledge and expertise, sharing of resources, capacity building and training of personnel in peaceful uses of nuclear energy, including use of radioisotopes, nuclear safety, radiation safety, nuclear security, radioactive waste management and nuclear and radiological disaster mitigation and environmental protection.

Q Source: Past year current affairs: http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/preempting-china-india-inks-nuclear-pact-with-sri-lanka/article6902874.ece

Solution: b)

Justification: Supporting services: Ecosystem services “that are necessary for the production of all other ecosystem services”. These include services such as nutrient recycling, primary production, soil formation, pollination etc. So, 4 can’t be the answer.

These services make it possible for the ecosystems to provide services such as food supply, flood regulation and water purification.

Provisioning services: “Products obtained from ecosystems” such as food; raw materials; genetic resources (including crop improvement genes, and health care); water; minerals; medicinal resources; energy etc. So, 1 can’t be the answer.

Regulating services: Benefits obtained from the regulation of ecosystem processes are:

• carbon sequestration and climate regulation
• waste decomposition and detoxification
• purification of water and air
• pest and disease control

Q Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ecosystem_services#Supporting_services