0 of 100 questions completed Questions: Welcome to Insights UPSC Preliminary Exam Mock Test No. 2 (Paper – 1). The paper contains 100 questions each carrying 2 marks. Once you finish the test, to view Solutions, follow the below instructions: Click on – ‘Start Quiz’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Quiz Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Quiz’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see Solutions and links (Please Right Click on links and open them in New Tab)Quiz-summary
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Question 1 of 100
1. Question
2 pointsThe tail of a comet is directed away from the sun because
Correct
(c) The radiation emitted by the sun exerts a radial pressure on the comet throwing its tail away from the sun
Incorrect
(c) The radiation emitted by the sun exerts a radial pressure on the comet throwing its tail away from the sun
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Question 2 of 100
2. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following come under Non-plan expenditure?
I. Subsidies
II. Interest payments
III. Defence expenditure
IV. Maintenance expenditure for the infrastructure created in the previous plans
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
(d) I, II, III and IV
Incorrect
(d) I, II, III and IV
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Question 3 of 100
3. Question
2 pointsA girl is swinging on a swing in sitting position. When the same girl stands up, the period of swing will
Correct
(a) Be shorter
Centre of gravity will shift upwards. Thus the effective length of the swing/pendulum will decrease from the point it has been hanged to. Therefore period decreases.
Incorrect
(a) Be shorter
Centre of gravity will shift upwards. Thus the effective length of the swing/pendulum will decrease from the point it has been hanged to. Therefore period decreases.
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Question 4 of 100
4. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following are the objectives of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)?
I. To stabilise agricultural prices.
II. To ensure meaningful real income levels to the farmers.
III. To protect the interest of the consumers by providing essential agricultural commodities at reasonable rates through public distribution system.
IV. To ensure maximum price for the farmer.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Correct
(a) I, II and III
Incorrect
(a) I, II and III
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Question 5 of 100
5. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following were common to both Buddhism and Jainism?
I. Avoidance of extremities of penance and enjoyment.
II. Indifference to the authority of the Vedas
III. Denial of efficacy of rituals
IV. Non-injury to animal life
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
(b) II, III and IV
Incorrect
(b) II, III and IV
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Question 6 of 100
6. Question
2 pointsA person in a spaceship located half way between the earth and the sun will notice that the
I. Sky is jet black.
II. Stars do not twinkle.
III. Temperature outside the spaceship is much higher than that on the surface of the earth.
Of these statements:
Correct
(d) I, II and III are correct
Incorrect
(d) I, II and III are correct
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Question 7 of 100
7. Question
2 pointsAn ordinary light bulb has a rather short life because the
I. Filament wire is not uniform.
II. Bulb cannot be evacuated completely.
III. Wires supporting the filament melt at high temperatures.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
(b) II and III
Incorrect
(b) II and III
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Question 8 of 100
8. Question
2 pointsFor which one of the following is capillarity not the only reason?
Correct
(d) Rising of water from the roots of a plant to its foliage
Incorrect
(d) Rising of water from the roots of a plant to its foliage
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Question 9 of 100
9. Question
2 pointsBarium in a suitable form is administered to patients before an X-ray examination of the stomach, because
Correct
(c) Barium is a good absorber of X-rays and this helps the stomach to appear clearly in contrast with the other regions in the picture
Incorrect
(c) Barium is a good absorber of X-rays and this helps the stomach to appear clearly in contrast with the other regions in the picture
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Question 10 of 100
10. Question
2 pointsWhen a CD (Compact Disc used in audio and video systems) is seen in sunlight, rainbow like colours are seen. This can be explained on the basis of the phenomenon of
Correct
(d) Refraction, diffraction and transmission
Like water drops in falling rain, the CD separates white light into all the colors that make it up. The colors you see reflecting from a CD are interference colors, like the shifting colors you see on a soap bubble or an oil slick.
You can think of light as as being made up of waves-like the waves in the ocean. When light waves reflect off the ridges on your CD, they overlap and interfere with each other. Sometimes the waves add together, making certain colors brighter, and sometimes they cancel each other, taking certain colors away.
You can also look at this link.
http://electronics.howstuffworks.com/question52.htm
These three phenomena together account for the interference patterns seen on CD which resembles a rainbow pattern.
Incorrect
(d) Refraction, diffraction and transmission
Like water drops in falling rain, the CD separates white light into all the colors that make it up. The colors you see reflecting from a CD are interference colors, like the shifting colors you see on a soap bubble or an oil slick.
You can think of light as as being made up of waves-like the waves in the ocean. When light waves reflect off the ridges on your CD, they overlap and interfere with each other. Sometimes the waves add together, making certain colors brighter, and sometimes they cancel each other, taking certain colors away.
You can also look at this link.
http://electronics.howstuffworks.com/question52.htm
These three phenomena together account for the interference patterns seen on CD which resembles a rainbow pattern.
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Question 11 of 100
11. Question
2 pointsAssertion (A) :
Small glass beads fixed on traffic signals glow brightly when light falls upon them.
Reason (R):
Light is totally reflected when the angle of incidence exceeds a certain critical value and light travelling in a denser medium is reflected from a rarer medium.
Correct
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
Incorrect
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
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Question 12 of 100
12. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements:
Hard water is NOT suitable for
I. Drinking.
II. Washing clothes with soap.
III. Use in boilers.
IV. Irrigating crops.
Which of these statements are correct?
Correct
(d) I, II, III and IV
Incorrect
(d) I, II, III and IV
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Question 13 of 100
13. Question
2 pointsIndia was declared Polio-free for the third year continuously. The Polio Vaccine is administered either by using Injected Polio Vaccine (IPV) or by using Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV). Consider the following statements in this connection:
1. IPV carries ‘live’ virus so it is very effective in containing polio.
2. OPV can cause vaccine-associated polio paralysis.
3. IPV guarantees cent per cent protection against polio unlike OPV.
Choose the correct ones using the codes below:
Correct
Solution: d)
The inactivated polio vaccine produces antibodies in the blood to all three types of poliovirus. In the event of infection, these antibodies prevent the spread of the virus to the central nervous system and protect against paralysis.
Advantages
As IPV is not a ‘live’ vaccine, it carries no risk of vaccine-associated polio paralysis.
IPV triggers an excellent protective immune response in most people.
Disadvantages
IPV induces very low levels of immunity in the intestine. As a result, when a person immunized with IPV is infected with wild poliovirus, the virus can still multiply inside the intestines and be shed in the faeces, risking continued circulation.
IPV is over five times more expensive than oral polio vaccine.
Administering the vaccine requires trained health workers and sterile injection equipment and procedures.
Safety
IPV is one of the safest vaccines in use. No serious systemic adverse reactions have been shown to follow vaccination.
Efficacy
IPV is highly effective in preventing paralytic disease caused by all three types of poliovirus.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
The inactivated polio vaccine produces antibodies in the blood to all three types of poliovirus. In the event of infection, these antibodies prevent the spread of the virus to the central nervous system and protect against paralysis.
Advantages
As IPV is not a ‘live’ vaccine, it carries no risk of vaccine-associated polio paralysis.
IPV triggers an excellent protective immune response in most people.
Disadvantages
IPV induces very low levels of immunity in the intestine. As a result, when a person immunized with IPV is infected with wild poliovirus, the virus can still multiply inside the intestines and be shed in the faeces, risking continued circulation.
IPV is over five times more expensive than oral polio vaccine.
Administering the vaccine requires trained health workers and sterile injection equipment and procedures.
Safety
IPV is one of the safest vaccines in use. No serious systemic adverse reactions have been shown to follow vaccination.
Efficacy
IPV is highly effective in preventing paralytic disease caused by all three types of poliovirus.
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Question 14 of 100
14. Question
2 pointsIPCC and World Bank reports have warned of the dangers of climate change on food security. Several researchers have suggested Jackfruit as an alternative to wheat, corn and other staples during such shortages of food. Consider the following statements about Jackfruit:
1. It is native to India.
2. It requires a humid tropical climate to grow.
3. It can be grown only in sandy and red soil.
Choose the correct ones using the codes below:
Correct
Solution: a)
Some facts about Jackfruit:
It originated from India and then Spread to South Asian countries. It is also the largest edible fruit and called by the name poor man’s fruit too.
It is rich in potassium, calcium, and iron.
Mostly Grown in South western states of India, coastal areas, Himalayan foothills.
Climate requirement: Humid tropical
Soil: Sandy, stony, laterite soil.
It can survive drought, frost, pest, high temperature.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Some facts about Jackfruit:
It originated from India and then Spread to South Asian countries. It is also the largest edible fruit and called by the name poor man’s fruit too.
It is rich in potassium, calcium, and iron.
Mostly Grown in South western states of India, coastal areas, Himalayan foothills.
Climate requirement: Humid tropical
Soil: Sandy, stony, laterite soil.
It can survive drought, frost, pest, high temperature.
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Question 15 of 100
15. Question
2 pointsThe Great Himalayan National Park was recently nominated by the Government of India for UNESCO heritage site. Consider the following statements about it:
1. All the rivers flowing through the park get their water from glaciers.
2. No species found in the park is critically endangered.
3. The park is located in Himachal Pradesh.
Choose the correct ones using the codes below:
Correct
Solution: d)
It is located In Kullu, Himachal Pradesh.
At a height of 1500-6000m, the climate type is Western Himalayan temperate and alpine type.
Some rare species found in the park like Himalayan Tahr, Blue Sheep, Giffon Vulture and Cheer Pheasant. A few of them are endangered (Musk Deer and Snow leopard), but not critically endangered.
The park also has some glaciers.
Rivers flowing through the park: Tirthan, Sainj, JiwaNal, and Parvati. (all get water from glaciers)
Sanctuaries near the park: Sainj, Tirthan
Incorrect
Solution: d)
It is located In Kullu, Himachal Pradesh.
At a height of 1500-6000m, the climate type is Western Himalayan temperate and alpine type.
Some rare species found in the park like Himalayan Tahr, Blue Sheep, Giffon Vulture and Cheer Pheasant. A few of them are endangered (Musk Deer and Snow leopard), but not critically endangered.
The park also has some glaciers.
Rivers flowing through the park: Tirthan, Sainj, JiwaNal, and Parvati. (all get water from glaciers)
Sanctuaries near the park: Sainj, Tirthan
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Question 16 of 100
16. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following is true about Hydro FluoroCarbons( HFCs):
1. They need not be prepared synthetically.
2. Montreal Protocol bans HFCs.
3. They contribute substantially to ozone layer depletion.
4. They are greenhouse gases.
5. They are used widely in cooling systems.
Choose the correct ones using the code below:
Correct
Solution: c)
It is CFC that depletes the ozone layer. The HFCs are considered to be a replacement of the CFC. However, it is a greenhouse gas. There is a negotiation going on between India and U.S. whether to include this gas in the Montreal framework or not.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
It is CFC that depletes the ozone layer. The HFCs are considered to be a replacement of the CFC. However, it is a greenhouse gas. There is a negotiation going on between India and U.S. whether to include this gas in the Montreal framework or not.
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Question 17 of 100
17. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements:
1. The Manas national park is considered to be the last remaining wild habitat of pygmy hog.
2. The Manas national park also houses several other critically endangered species such as dwarf gecko, Himalayan Tahr etc.
Which of these is/are true?
Correct
Solution: a)
Pygmy hog is the smallest wild pig and is very rare to find. It is found in the wild only in Manaspark.
Species like dwarf gecko are found in western ghats and they are not critically endangered.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Pygmy hog is the smallest wild pig and is very rare to find. It is found in the wild only in Manaspark.
Species like dwarf gecko are found in western ghats and they are not critically endangered.
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Question 18 of 100
18. Question
2 pointsTissue culture is a technique of regenerating the whole plant from parts of a plant.
Consider the following statements about tissue culture:
1. It can be practiced both in the agricultural field and in the laboratory.
2. The plants obtained after tissue culture are genetically identical to the original plant from which they were grown.
3. Plants having a disease even in one part can not be used in tissue culture.
Choose the correct option from the codes below:
Correct
Solution: d)
It was learnt by scientists, during 1950s, that whole plants could be regenerated from explants, i.e., any part of a plant taken out and grown in a test tube, under sterile conditions in special nutrient media.
This method of producing thousands of plants through tissue culture is called micro-propagation. Each of these plants will be genetically identical to the original plant from which they were grown, i.e., they are somaclones. Many important food plants like
tomato, banana, apple, etc., have been produced on commercial scale using this method.
Another important application of the method is the recovery of healthy plants from diseased plants. Although the plant is infected with a virus, the meristem (apical and axillary) is free of virus. Hence, one can remove the meristem and grow it in vitro to obtain virus-free plants.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
It was learnt by scientists, during 1950s, that whole plants could be regenerated from explants, i.e., any part of a plant taken out and grown in a test tube, under sterile conditions in special nutrient media.
This method of producing thousands of plants through tissue culture is called micro-propagation. Each of these plants will be genetically identical to the original plant from which they were grown, i.e., they are somaclones. Many important food plants like
tomato, banana, apple, etc., have been produced on commercial scale using this method.
Another important application of the method is the recovery of healthy plants from diseased plants. Although the plant is infected with a virus, the meristem (apical and axillary) is free of virus. Hence, one can remove the meristem and grow it in vitro to obtain virus-free plants.
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Question 19 of 100
19. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements about birth control methods:
1. Vasectomy prevents sexually transmitted diseases (STDs).
2. Vasectomy is easily reversible.
3. Sterilization for birth control can only be achieved in males.
Choose the correct option from the codes below:
Correct
Solution: d)
Surgical methods, also called sterilisation, are generally advised for the male/female partner as a terminal method to prevent any more pregnancies. Surgical intervention blocks gamete transport and thereby prevent conception. Sterilisation procedure in the male is called ‘vasectomy’ and that in the female, ‘tubectomy’. These techniques are highly effective but their reversibility is very poor.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Surgical methods, also called sterilisation, are generally advised for the male/female partner as a terminal method to prevent any more pregnancies. Surgical intervention blocks gamete transport and thereby prevent conception. Sterilisation procedure in the male is called ‘vasectomy’ and that in the female, ‘tubectomy’. These techniques are highly effective but their reversibility is very poor.
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Question 20 of 100
20. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following properties of acquired immunity is the basis of vaccination?
Correct
Solution: c)
Discrimination between self and non-self is an important basis for immunity to work. But, vaccination is given to activate acquired immunity. Acquired immunity works on the basis of memory. Weak or dead pathogens are injected in the body to create a memory of them. This prepares the immunity to tackle future attacks from the identified pathogen.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Discrimination between self and non-self is an important basis for immunity to work. But, vaccination is given to activate acquired immunity. Acquired immunity works on the basis of memory. Weak or dead pathogens are injected in the body to create a memory of them. This prepares the immunity to tackle future attacks from the identified pathogen.
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Question 21 of 100
21. Question
2 pointsDirectly sending a radio wave from satellites sometimes is not possible due to the curvature of the earth. How do radio waves reach the earth then?
Correct
Solution: a)
It is known that electromagnetic waves above a certain frequency are not reflected from
ionosphere. Radio waves used for radio broadcast which are in the frequency range 2
MHz to 10 MHz, are below the critical frequency. They are therefore reflected by the ionosphere. Thus radio waves broadcast from an antenna can be received at points far away where the direct wave fail to reach on account of the curvature of the earth.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
It is known that electromagnetic waves above a certain frequency are not reflected from
ionosphere. Radio waves used for radio broadcast which are in the frequency range 2
MHz to 10 MHz, are below the critical frequency. They are therefore reflected by the ionosphere. Thus radio waves broadcast from an antenna can be received at points far away where the direct wave fail to reach on account of the curvature of the earth.
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Question 22 of 100
22. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements about the Long-term evolution (LTE) wireless technology:
1. It increases the capacity and speed of data networks.
2. It can be run on the same wireless spectrum as that of 3G technology.
3. WiMAX and Ultra Mobile Broadband (UMB) are other commonly used names for LTE.
Choose the correct option from the codes below:
Correct
Solution: c)
An acronym for Long Term Evolution, LTE is a 4G wireless communications standard developed by the 3rd Generation Partnership Project (3GPP) that’s designed to provide up to 10x the speeds of 3G networks for mobile devices such as smartphones,tablets, netbooks, notebooks and wireless hotspots. 4Gtechnologies are designed to provide IP-based voice, data and multimedia streaming at speeds of at least 100 Mbit per second and up to as fast as 1 GBit per second.
4G LTE is one of several competing 4G standards along with Ultra Mobile Broadband (UMB) and WiMax (IEEE 802.16).
Incorrect
Solution: c)
An acronym for Long Term Evolution, LTE is a 4G wireless communications standard developed by the 3rd Generation Partnership Project (3GPP) that’s designed to provide up to 10x the speeds of 3G networks for mobile devices such as smartphones,tablets, netbooks, notebooks and wireless hotspots. 4Gtechnologies are designed to provide IP-based voice, data and multimedia streaming at speeds of at least 100 Mbit per second and up to as fast as 1 GBit per second.
4G LTE is one of several competing 4G standards along with Ultra Mobile Broadband (UMB) and WiMax (IEEE 802.16).
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Question 23 of 100
23. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Normally rain water is acidic even if it is not acid rain.
Reason (R): While raining, the water reacts with carbon dioxide present in the atmosphere.
In the context of the statements above, which of these is true?
Correct
Solution: a)
Normally rain water has a pH of 5.6 (acidic) due to the presence of H+ ions formed
by the reaction of rain water with carbon dioxide present in the atmosphere to form carbonic acid. When the pH of the rain water drops below 5.6, it is called acid rain.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Normally rain water has a pH of 5.6 (acidic) due to the presence of H+ ions formed
by the reaction of rain water with carbon dioxide present in the atmosphere to form carbonic acid. When the pH of the rain water drops below 5.6, it is called acid rain.
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Question 24 of 100
24. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements:
1. DNA fingerprinting of every individual would be unique and the DNA can not be altered by any known treatment.
2. The fingerprints of individuals are also unique, but they can be altered by surgery.
Which of these is/are true?
Correct
Solution: c)
It is known that every individual has unique fingerprints. These occur at the tips of the fingers and have been used for identification for a long time but these can be altered by surgery. A sequence of bases on DNA is also unique for a person and information regarding this is called DNA fingerprinting. It is same for every cell and cannot be altered by any known treatment. DNA fingerprinting is now used
(i) in forensic laboratories for identification of criminals.
(ii) to determine paternity of an individual.
(iii) to identify the dead bodies in any accident by comparing the DNA’s of parents or children.
(iv) to identify racial groups to rewrite biological evolution.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
It is known that every individual has unique fingerprints. These occur at the tips of the fingers and have been used for identification for a long time but these can be altered by surgery. A sequence of bases on DNA is also unique for a person and information regarding this is called DNA fingerprinting. It is same for every cell and cannot be altered by any known treatment. DNA fingerprinting is now used
(i) in forensic laboratories for identification of criminals.
(ii) to determine paternity of an individual.
(iii) to identify the dead bodies in any accident by comparing the DNA’s of parents or children.
(iv) to identify racial groups to rewrite biological evolution.
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Question 25 of 100
25. Question
2 pointsAnalgesics reduce pain without causing a loss in consciousness, in-coordination or paralysis of the human body. Consider the following statements about Analgesics:
1. Aspirin and paracetamol, commonly used drugs, are analgesics.
2. They contain not only the non-addictive drugs, but also narcotic drugs.
3. Administration of analgesics is statutorily regulated in India.
Choose the correct option from the codes below:
Correct
Solution: a)
Analgesics reduce or abolish pain without causing impairment of consciousness, mental confusion, incoordination or paralysis or some other disturbances of nervous system. These are classified as follows:
(i) Non-narcotic (non-addictive) analgesics
(ii) Narcotic drugs
(i) Non-narcotic (non-addictive) analgesics: Aspirin and paracetamol belong to the class of non-narcotic analgesics. Aspirin is the most familiar example. Aspirin inhibits the synthesis of chemicals known as prostaglandins which stimulate inflammation in the tissue and cause pain. These drugs are effective in relieving skeletal pain such as that due to arthritis. These drugs have many other effects such as reducing fever (antipyretic) and preventing platelet coagulation. Because of its anti blood clotting
action, aspirin finds use in prevention of heart attacks.
(ii) Narcotic analgesics: Morphine and many of its homologues, when administered in medicinal doses, relieve pain and produce sleep. In poisonous doses, these produce stupor, coma, convulsions and ultimately death. Morphine narcotics are sometimes referred to as opiates, since they are obtained from the opium poppy.
These analgesics are chiefly used for the relief of postoperative pain, cardiac pain and pains of terminal cancer, and in child birth.
The Narcotic drugs Act regulates the administration of narcotic analgesics. It was recently in news as the government amended the act to include flexibility for using morphine medicinally. Morphine is a narcotic drug.
Read more here
http://www.hrw.org/news/2014/02/21/india-major-breakthrough-pain-patients
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Analgesics reduce or abolish pain without causing impairment of consciousness, mental confusion, incoordination or paralysis or some other disturbances of nervous system. These are classified as follows:
(i) Non-narcotic (non-addictive) analgesics
(ii) Narcotic drugs
(i) Non-narcotic (non-addictive) analgesics: Aspirin and paracetamol belong to the class of non-narcotic analgesics. Aspirin is the most familiar example. Aspirin inhibits the synthesis of chemicals known as prostaglandins which stimulate inflammation in the tissue and cause pain. These drugs are effective in relieving skeletal pain such as that due to arthritis. These drugs have many other effects such as reducing fever (antipyretic) and preventing platelet coagulation. Because of its anti blood clotting
action, aspirin finds use in prevention of heart attacks.
(ii) Narcotic analgesics: Morphine and many of its homologues, when administered in medicinal doses, relieve pain and produce sleep. In poisonous doses, these produce stupor, coma, convulsions and ultimately death. Morphine narcotics are sometimes referred to as opiates, since they are obtained from the opium poppy.
These analgesics are chiefly used for the relief of postoperative pain, cardiac pain and pains of terminal cancer, and in child birth.
The Narcotic drugs Act regulates the administration of narcotic analgesics. It was recently in news as the government amended the act to include flexibility for using morphine medicinally. Morphine is a narcotic drug.
Read more here
http://www.hrw.org/news/2014/02/21/india-major-breakthrough-pain-patients
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Question 26 of 100
26. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following can be used as food preservatives?
1. Common salt
2. Sugar
3. Vegetable oil
Choose the correct option from the codes below:
Correct
Solution: d)
Food preservatives prevent spoilage of food due to microbial growth. The most commonly used preservatives include table salt, sugar, vegetable oils and sodium benzoate, C6H5COONa. Sodium benzoate is used in limited quantities and is metabolised in the body. Salts of sorbic acid and propanoic acid are also used as preservatives.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Food preservatives prevent spoilage of food due to microbial growth. The most commonly used preservatives include table salt, sugar, vegetable oils and sodium benzoate, C6H5COONa. Sodium benzoate is used in limited quantities and is metabolised in the body. Salts of sorbic acid and propanoic acid are also used as preservatives.
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Question 27 of 100
27. Question
2 pointsA clothe dyer is finding it difficult to dye clothes as the dye is not being absorbed on the cloth evenly and the cloth is looking dull because of this.. There is no problem with the dye. What can be a possible reason for this?
Correct
Solution: a)
Hard water contains calcium and magnesium ions. These ions form insoluble calcium and magnesium soaps respectively when sodium or potassium soaps are dissolved in hard water. These insoluble soaps separate as scum in water and are useless
as cleansing agent. In fact these are hinderance to good washing, because the precipitate adheres onto the fibre of the cloth as gummy mass. Hair washed with hard water looks dull because of this sticky precipitate. Dye does not absorb evenly on cloth washed with soap using hard water, because of this gummy mass.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Hard water contains calcium and magnesium ions. These ions form insoluble calcium and magnesium soaps respectively when sodium or potassium soaps are dissolved in hard water. These insoluble soaps separate as scum in water and are useless
as cleansing agent. In fact these are hinderance to good washing, because the precipitate adheres onto the fibre of the cloth as gummy mass. Hair washed with hard water looks dull because of this sticky precipitate. Dye does not absorb evenly on cloth washed with soap using hard water, because of this gummy mass.
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Question 28 of 100
28. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following are criteria for declaring an area ‘Hot Spot’?
1. Number of endemic species
2. Degree of threat to the species measured in terms of habitat loss
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
Correct
Solution: c)
The hotspots are richest and the most threatened reservoirs of plant and animal life on earth. About 20% of human population lives in hot spot areas. Degree of threat and endemism are the two key criteria to determine whether an area is a hot spot or not.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
The hotspots are richest and the most threatened reservoirs of plant and animal life on earth. About 20% of human population lives in hot spot areas. Degree of threat and endemism are the two key criteria to determine whether an area is a hot spot or not.
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Question 29 of 100
29. Question
2 pointsVaccines against which of the following have been introduced recently in the Universal Immunization programme by the new government at the centre?
1. Rotavirus
2. Japanese Encephalitis in selected districts
3. Polio (injectable)
4. Rubella
Choose the correct option from the codes below:
Correct
Solution: d)
Incorrect
Solution: d)
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Question 30 of 100
30. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following are the circumstances under which an elected member of Parliament may be disqualified on the ground of defection?
1. If he voluntarily gives up his membership of a political party
2. If he votes or abstains from voting contrary to any direction issued by his political party without prior permission of the political party
3. If he speaks against the political party
4. If he joins a political party other than the party on whose ticket he contested and got elected
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Correct
Solution: b)
A MP can speak against his political party. This forms part of his/her Parliamentary pr4ileges as well as Freedom of Speech and Expression (Article 19(a)). If this were not the case, then Parliamentary democracy will not be a reality in India post enactment of anti-defection law.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
A MP can speak against his political party. This forms part of his/her Parliamentary pr4ileges as well as Freedom of Speech and Expression (Article 19(a)). If this were not the case, then Parliamentary democracy will not be a reality in India post enactment of anti-defection law.
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Question 31 of 100
31. Question
2 pointsIn which of the following case(s), the Chief Minister of a State in India is NOT eligible to vote in the Presidential election?
1. If he himself is a candidate
2. If he is yet to prove his majority on the floor of the Lower House of the State legislature
3. If he is a member of the Upper House of the State legislature
4. If he is a caretaker Chief Minister
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
Correct
Solution: c)
The upper houses in the states do not take part in Presidential election. Therefore, if the CM is a member of the upper house, he can not vote.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
The upper houses in the states do not take part in Presidential election. Therefore, if the CM is a member of the upper house, he can not vote.
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Question 32 of 100
32. Question
2 pointsWhen the Vice-President is acting in the capacity of the President, then:
Correct
Solution: d)
He neither resigns, nor ceases to be the chairman of the RS. He only stops presiding over its proceedings. Preferably the Deputy Chairman takes his position temporarily.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
He neither resigns, nor ceases to be the chairman of the RS. He only stops presiding over its proceedings. Preferably the Deputy Chairman takes his position temporarily.
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Question 33 of 100
33. Question
2 pointsWhat is tax buoyancy?
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Question 34 of 100
34. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements about the ‘New Development Bank’ to be established as per the agreement in the latest BRICS summit:
1. It will only focus on development finance and will not assist member countries in case of financial emergencies.
2. Every member nation has equal voting rights in the proposed bank.
3. Every nation will contribute equally for the bank’s capital base.
Choose the correct statements from the codes below:
Correct
Solution: a)
Incorrect
Solution: a)
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Question 35 of 100
35. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements about the Trade facilitation Agreement signed between the WTO member nations at Bali Ministerial conference:
1. The Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) contains provisions for faster and more efficient customs procedures in the context of trade in goods.
2. It also contains provisions for technical assistance and capacity building for trade facilitation and customs compliance issues.
3. India has not ratified the TFA because the TFA is discriminatory in nature and benefits the developed nations more than the developing nations.
Choose the correct statements from the codes below:
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Question 36 of 100
36. Question
2 pointsThe RBI recently launched guidelines for establishing Small and Payments Banks to further the goal of financial inclusion. Consider the following statements about it.
1. Small banks will offer deposits as well as loans.
2. Payments bank will not accept deposits.
3. Small banks will not be allowed to invest in sophisticated and risky financial products.
4. For a payments bank, the access point can be its own branch, business correspondents (BCs) or other network partners.
5. Inter alia, mobile telephone companies, supermarket chains, companies, real sector cooperatives and public sector entities are allowed to start a payments bank.
Choose the correct statements from the codes given below:
Correct
Solution: b)
It has been dealt very comprehensively in this article.
http://www.livemint.com/Money/59j9pDtGyszMVGGgXlc1fN/Small-payments-banks-in-the-making.html
Incorrect
Solution: b)
It has been dealt very comprehensively in this article.
http://www.livemint.com/Money/59j9pDtGyszMVGGgXlc1fN/Small-payments-banks-in-the-making.html
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Question 37 of 100
37. Question
2 pointsConvertibility of the rupee implies:
Correct
Solution: c)
Convertibility basically means the ability to be converted into either foreign currencies or gold for the purposes of trade or investment.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Convertibility basically means the ability to be converted into either foreign currencies or gold for the purposes of trade or investment.
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Question 38 of 100
38. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements about the forms of government in a democracy:
Assertion (A): The Parliamentary form of government is a responsible government, whereas the Presidential form is a non-responsible government.
Reason (R): Unlike the Presidential form of government, the accountability of the legislature directly to the people is a central feature of the Parliamentary government.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of these is true?
Correct
Solution: c)
The legislature is accountable to the people in both forms of government. It is in the Parliamentary form only that the executive or the government is directly accountable to the parliament. It establishes a responsible government as the legislature can question the government on its conduct. In the presidential form, this is not possible.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
The legislature is accountable to the people in both forms of government. It is in the Parliamentary form only that the executive or the government is directly accountable to the parliament. It establishes a responsible government as the legislature can question the government on its conduct. In the presidential form, this is not possible.
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Question 39 of 100
39. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements:
1. A constitutional amendment bill ends in case of a disagreement between the two houses.
2. The president cannot return a constitutional amendment bill to the Parliament for reconsideration.
Which of these is/are true?
Correct
Solution: c)
The President must give assent to such a bill. He can not withhold assent or return the bill for reconsideration. Besides, there is no provision of a joint sitting of both the houses.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
The President must give assent to such a bill. He can not withhold assent or return the bill for reconsideration. Besides, there is no provision of a joint sitting of both the houses.
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Question 40 of 100
40. Question
2 pointsThe power of pardon of the President of India extends to the laws made under which of the following lists?
1. Union list.
2. State list.
3. Concurrent list.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
Correct
Solution: d)
The President can exercise his powers of pardon on laws made under any list. The Governor, however, can not. He is restricted to only the state laws.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
The President can exercise his powers of pardon on laws made under any list. The Governor, however, can not. He is restricted to only the state laws.
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Question 41 of 100
41. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following cases show the federal spirit of the Indian polity?
1. The present logjam in the Good and Services Tax (GST) issue.
2. The Kishenganga water dispute.
3. The presence of both Election commission of India and State election Commissions.
4. Restrictions on the use of Article 356 (President’s rule).
Chose the correct answer using the codes below:
Correct
Solution: c)
The Kishenganga water dispute is an international water dispute solely handled by the Central government. It does not show the federal spirit of our polity.
State election commissions conduct elections for local bodies, and not at the state level. The Election Commission of India conducts it at both the Central and State level. It actually shows the centralizing tendency and not the federal one.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
The Kishenganga water dispute is an international water dispute solely handled by the Central government. It does not show the federal spirit of our polity.
State election commissions conduct elections for local bodies, and not at the state level. The Election Commission of India conducts it at both the Central and State level. It actually shows the centralizing tendency and not the federal one.
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Question 42 of 100
42. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following are constitutional mechanisms of devolving funds to the states by the centre?
1. Statutory grants
2. Grants-in-aid
3. Discretionary grants
Choose the correct answer using the following codes:
Correct
Solution: d)
Although Discretionary grants were given on the recommendation of PC (now disbanded), it is covered under Article 282 of the constitution.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Although Discretionary grants were given on the recommendation of PC (now disbanded), it is covered under Article 282 of the constitution.
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Question 43 of 100
43. Question
2 pointsThe dignity of women is protected or secured by which of the following in the Indian constitution?
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
Correct
Solution: d)
Article 51A says that it is the fundamental duty of every individual to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.
Also, the Fundamental rights and DPSP contain a number of provisions which promote a society where dignity of every individual is respected, including women. The word fraternity means the dignity of the individual (including women) and the unity and integrity of the nation as a whole.
The fundamental rights already ensure the dignity of the individual by not granting special privileges to any section of society by ensuring civic equality.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Article 51A says that it is the fundamental duty of every individual to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.
Also, the Fundamental rights and DPSP contain a number of provisions which promote a society where dignity of every individual is respected, including women. The word fraternity means the dignity of the individual (including women) and the unity and integrity of the nation as a whole.
The fundamental rights already ensure the dignity of the individual by not granting special privileges to any section of society by ensuring civic equality.
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Question 44 of 100
44. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following fundamental rights are denied to foreigners staying in India, but granted to Indian citizens?
1. Freedom of speech and expression.
2. Right against racial discrimination.
3. Equality before law.
4. Right to elementary education
Correct
Solution: b)
In the eyes of the law, the foreigner and the Indian is alike. However, the offence for which both can be convicted and tried can be different. For e.g. a foreigner is not entitled to free speech or protection against racial discrimination.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
In the eyes of the law, the foreigner and the Indian is alike. However, the offence for which both can be convicted and tried can be different. For e.g. a foreigner is not entitled to free speech or protection against racial discrimination.
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Question 45 of 100
45. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements about the election of chairpersons in rural local bodies:
1. Chairperson of a Panchayat at the village level is invariably chosen by the ward representatives (panchs).
2. The Chairpersons at the intermediate and district level need not necessarily be from amongst the members of these local bodies.
3. One-third of seats of chairpersons at all levels in these bodies are reserved for women.
Which of these is/are true?
Correct
Solution: d)
Chairperson must necessarily be a member. Besides, the manner of selection of the Panchayat chairperson is decided by the state assembly.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Chairperson must necessarily be a member. Besides, the manner of selection of the Panchayat chairperson is decided by the state assembly.
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Question 46 of 100
46. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements about the administrator of the UTs appointed by the President:
1. He need not necessarily adhere to the advice tendered by the council of ministers in UTs where an assembly exists.
2. He appoints the Chief Minister of that UT.
3. He can promulgate ordinances in the recess of the assembly.
Which of these is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: c)
The administrator can take a different view in case his opinion conflicts with that of the council of ministers but only after referring it to the President.
The President appoints the CM.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
The administrator can take a different view in case his opinion conflicts with that of the council of ministers but only after referring it to the President.
The President appoints the CM.
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Question 47 of 100
47. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following correctly highlights the difference between a bank and a non-banking financial institution (NBFI)?
1. Banks accepts deposits unlike NBFIs.
2. Money can be withdrawn using cheques from banks unlike in NBFIs.
3. Banks are regulated by the RBI unlike the NBFIs.
Chose the correct answer using the codes below:
Correct
Solution: a)
RBI regulates banks as well as NBFIs. There are extra safeguards included in regulating banks given their sensitive handling of large amounts of public money. Money can both be deposited and withdrawn in banks.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
RBI regulates banks as well as NBFIs. There are extra safeguards included in regulating banks given their sensitive handling of large amounts of public money. Money can both be deposited and withdrawn in banks.
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Question 48 of 100
48. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements about Reverse repo rate:
1. Reducing this rate increases the money supply.
2. Increasing this rate cuts bank losses.
Which of these is/are true?
Correct
Solution: c)
Reverse repo rate is basically the rate that banks get for parking their funds with the RBI. Reducing this rate makes the bank park their money somewhere else and not with RBI. For it is less attractive to them. Money parked outside RBI circulated by the banks would become a part of the money supply.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Reverse repo rate is basically the rate that banks get for parking their funds with the RBI. Reducing this rate makes the bank park their money somewhere else and not with RBI. For it is less attractive to them. Money parked outside RBI circulated by the banks would become a part of the money supply.
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Question 49 of 100
49. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following act as shock absorbers for the banks in case they tend to go bust?
1. Cash Reserve Ratio
2. Statutory Liquidity Ratio
3. Marginal Standing Facility (MSF)
4. Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF)
5. Capital Adequacy Ratio
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
Correct
Solution: a)
MSF and LAF are facilities made for the banks to borrow money in the short term from the RBI even below their levels of SLR would permit. Suppose MSF is 1%, then the banks can borrow money till their SLR holdings reach 22% of their total deposits (if 23% is the SLR). If MSF is not there, the banks can only borrow up to the limit of 23% of SLR.
Liquidity adjustment facilities are used to aid banks in resolving any short-term cash shortages during periods of economic instability or from any other form of stress caused by forces beyond their control. Various banks will use eligible securities as collateral through a repo agreement and will use the funds to alleviate their short-term requirements, thus remaining stable.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
MSF and LAF are facilities made for the banks to borrow money in the short term from the RBI even below their levels of SLR would permit. Suppose MSF is 1%, then the banks can borrow money till their SLR holdings reach 22% of their total deposits (if 23% is the SLR). If MSF is not there, the banks can only borrow up to the limit of 23% of SLR.
Liquidity adjustment facilities are used to aid banks in resolving any short-term cash shortages during periods of economic instability or from any other form of stress caused by forces beyond their control. Various banks will use eligible securities as collateral through a repo agreement and will use the funds to alleviate their short-term requirements, thus remaining stable.
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Question 50 of 100
50. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following would increase the money supply in the economy?
1. A scheduled commercial bank issuing a cheque to its customer.
2. Reduction in Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
3. A customer depositing money in a scheduled commercial bank.
4. RBI issuing fresh currency
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
Correct
Solution: c)
Banking deposits and the money held by the public form a part of the money supply. Whether a bank issues a cheque or if a customer deposits money, it will not change the money supply. But any issue by RBI or reduction in the CRR would inject liquidity in the system thus increasing the money supply.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Banking deposits and the money held by the public form a part of the money supply. Whether a bank issues a cheque or if a customer deposits money, it will not change the money supply. But any issue by RBI or reduction in the CRR would inject liquidity in the system thus increasing the money supply.
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Question 51 of 100
51. Question
2 pointsCredit rating agencies across the world, including India measure the credit rating of which of the following?
1. Individuals
2. Banks
3. Companies other than banks
4. Nations
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
Correct
Solution: d)
Refer to http://www.business-standard.com/article/finance/cibil-makes-credit-scores-available-to-individuals-111042100067_1.html and Ramesh Singh for detailed information about the system of credit rating. Nations are rated as sovereigns and company ratings are also prepared by agencies such as Moody’s etc.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Refer to http://www.business-standard.com/article/finance/cibil-makes-credit-scores-available-to-individuals-111042100067_1.html and Ramesh Singh for detailed information about the system of credit rating. Nations are rated as sovereigns and company ratings are also prepared by agencies such as Moody’s etc.
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Question 52 of 100
52. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following indices are published by the Government of India?
1. CrisilInclusex
2. National Index
3. Sensex
4. Indo Next
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
Correct
Solution: d)
Sensex, National Index and Indo Next are published by BSE and Indo Next exchange. CrisilInclusex while launched by P. Chidambaram is published by CRISIL, a S&P global company.
Here are some more details on CRISIL Inclusex. It is an indicator of financial inclusion in the country.
http://www.dnaindia.com/money/report-p-chidambaram-launches-crisil-inclusix-1852970
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Sensex, National Index and Indo Next are published by BSE and Indo Next exchange. CrisilInclusex while launched by P. Chidambaram is published by CRISIL, a S&P global company.
Here are some more details on CRISIL Inclusex. It is an indicator of financial inclusion in the country.
http://www.dnaindia.com/money/report-p-chidambaram-launches-crisil-inclusix-1852970
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Question 53 of 100
53. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements about Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI):
1. It is a non-statutory body.
2. It registers stock exchanges and mutual funds.
3. It promotes financial literacy in the country.
4. It is tasked with the inspection and audit of stock exchanges.
Which of these is/are true?
Correct
Solution: a)
It was initially a non-statutory body setup by a government order. It was afterwards given powers under the SEBI Act, 1992. It is the principal agency in India which regulates the security market and promotes investor education.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
It was initially a non-statutory body setup by a government order. It was afterwards given powers under the SEBI Act, 1992. It is the principal agency in India which regulates the security market and promotes investor education.
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Question 54 of 100
54. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following correctly describes the term ‘reinsurance’ in the context of Insurance in India?
Correct
Solution: b)
The practice of insurers transferring portions of risk portfolios to other parties by some form of agreement in order to reduce the likelihood of having to pay a large obligation resulting from an insurance claim is called reinsurance. The intent of reinsurance is for an insurance company to reduce the risks associated with underwritten policies by spreading risks across alternative institutions.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
The practice of insurers transferring portions of risk portfolios to other parties by some form of agreement in order to reduce the likelihood of having to pay a large obligation resulting from an insurance claim is called reinsurance. The intent of reinsurance is for an insurance company to reduce the risks associated with underwritten policies by spreading risks across alternative institutions.
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Question 55 of 100
55. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following are the typical characteristics of the unorganized sector of the Indian economy?
1. Higher productivity than the organized sector.
2. Contractual jobs.
3. Little or no social security.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
Correct
Solution: b)
It is important to note that India has been witnessing jobless growth since 1991. Most of the jobs have been created in the unorganized sector. And the jobs in the organized sector have actually shrinked.
The Policymakers are trying to reverse this trend for the following reasons.
One, the unorganized sector does not offer regular income and other social security benefits that a usual worker in the organized sector gets. This is because the jobs are mainly contractual in nature. The quantum of work and compensation therefore vary with seasons.
Two, the productivity in the unorganized sector is much lower than that of the organized sector. The economy can reap the demographic dividend only if the skill levels of the labour in India increase. This will lead to increased productivity consequently leading to higher economic growth.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
It is important to note that India has been witnessing jobless growth since 1991. Most of the jobs have been created in the unorganized sector. And the jobs in the organized sector have actually shrinked.
The Policymakers are trying to reverse this trend for the following reasons.
One, the unorganized sector does not offer regular income and other social security benefits that a usual worker in the organized sector gets. This is because the jobs are mainly contractual in nature. The quantum of work and compensation therefore vary with seasons.
Two, the productivity in the unorganized sector is much lower than that of the organized sector. The economy can reap the demographic dividend only if the skill levels of the labour in India increase. This will lead to increased productivity consequently leading to higher economic growth.
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Question 56 of 100
56. Question
2 pointsWhat is ‘labour force participation rate (LFPR)’ and ‘employment rate (ER)’ respectively?
Correct
Solution: a)
Generally with the rise of the LFPR and ER, a nation’s economic growth increases. It is assumed here that the per capita labour productivity either remains constant or increases.
Refer to the section ‘Sources of Growth’ in the chapter Preparing for the Demographic Dividend in Ramesh Singh.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Generally with the rise of the LFPR and ER, a nation’s economic growth increases. It is assumed here that the per capita labour productivity either remains constant or increases.
Refer to the section ‘Sources of Growth’ in the chapter Preparing for the Demographic Dividend in Ramesh Singh.
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Question 57 of 100
57. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements:
1. The labour force participation rate of women has been declining since the last decade.
2. The Micro enterprises in India employ much more people than the Small and Medium Entreprises (SMEs) combined together.
3. The MSMEs employ much more numbers of people than the large scale industries together do.
Which of these is/are true?
Correct
Solution: c)
As per the economic survey 2012-13, the Micro industries employ as much as 69% of the total working population amongst the MSMEs. Within the MSMEs there are 94% micro industries.
Together the MSMEs employ 8.1 crore people in India which is a very high number when the same is looked at in the large scale industries.
MSMEs can be one of the keys to reap our demographic dividend.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
As per the economic survey 2012-13, the Micro industries employ as much as 69% of the total working population amongst the MSMEs. Within the MSMEs there are 94% micro industries.
Together the MSMEs employ 8.1 crore people in India which is a very high number when the same is looked at in the large scale industries.
MSMEs can be one of the keys to reap our demographic dividend.
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Question 58 of 100
58. Question
2 pointsIn which of the following category the highest numbers of people are employed in India?
Correct
Solution: a)
As per the ‘Employment Situation in 2010-11 quarterly survey report, only 15.6% of the workforce has regular employment. 33.5% was casual labour and 51% was self-employed.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
As per the ‘Employment Situation in 2010-11 quarterly survey report, only 15.6% of the workforce has regular employment. 33.5% was casual labour and 51% was self-employed.
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Question 59 of 100
59. Question
2 pointsUnder the Direct Benefits transfer scheme, which of the following will be used to make the withdrawal of money by the beneficiary easier and more accessible?
1. Self Help Groups (SHGs)
2. Community Service Centres (CSCs)
3. Petrol pumps
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
Correct
Solution: d)
Aside these alternatives, post offices, grocery stores, banking correspondents, micro ATMs etc. will also be used.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Aside these alternatives, post offices, grocery stores, banking correspondents, micro ATMs etc. will also be used.
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Question 60 of 100
60. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements
- Harappanas ate fish along with wide ranging plants and animal products
- Harappans domesticated animals such as sheep, pig, buffalo and goat
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: c)
The Harappans atea wide range of plant and animal products, includingfish. Archaeologists have been able to reconstructdietary practices from finds of charred grains andseeds. These are studied by archaeo-botanists, whoare specialists in ancient plant remains. Grainsfound at Harappan sites include
wheat, barley, lentil, chickpeaand sesame. Millets are foundfrom sites in Gujarat.
Finds ofrice are relatively rare.
Animal bones found at Harappan sites include those of cattle, sheep,goat, buffalo and pig. Studies done by archaeo-zoologists or zoo-archaeologists indicate that these animals were domesticated.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
The Harappans atea wide range of plant and animal products, includingfish. Archaeologists have been able to reconstructdietary practices from finds of charred grains andseeds. These are studied by archaeo-botanists, whoare specialists in ancient plant remains. Grainsfound at Harappan sites include
wheat, barley, lentil, chickpeaand sesame. Millets are foundfrom sites in Gujarat.
Finds ofrice are relatively rare.
Animal bones found at Harappan sites include those of cattle, sheep,goat, buffalo and pig. Studies done by archaeo-zoologists or zoo-archaeologists indicate that these animals were domesticated.
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Question 61 of 100
61. Question
2 pointsWith reference to Bodhisattas, consider the following statements
- They attained nibbana by their own efforts
- The worship of images of the Buddha and Bodhisattas became an important part of Hinayana tradition
Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?
Correct
Solution: c)
Both are wrong.
By the first century CE, there is evidence ofchanges in Buddhist ideas and practices. EarlyBuddhist teachings had given great importanceto self-effort in achieving nibbana. Besides, theBuddha was regarded as a human being whoattained enlightenment and nibbanaThroughhis own efforts. However, gradually the idea ofa saviour emerged. It was believed that hewas the one who could ensure salvation.
Simultaneously, the concept of the Bodhisattaalso developed. Bodhisattas were perceived asdeeply compassionate beings who accumulatedmerit through their efforts but used this not toattain nibbanaand thereby abandon the world,but to help others. The worship of images of theBuddha and Bodhisattas became an importantpart of this tradition.
This new way of thinking was called Mahayana– literally, the “great vehicle”. Those who adopted these beliefs described the older tradition as Hinayana or the “lesser vehicle”.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Both are wrong.
By the first century CE, there is evidence ofchanges in Buddhist ideas and practices. EarlyBuddhist teachings had given great importanceto self-effort in achieving nibbana. Besides, theBuddha was regarded as a human being whoattained enlightenment and nibbanaThroughhis own efforts. However, gradually the idea ofa saviour emerged. It was believed that hewas the one who could ensure salvation.
Simultaneously, the concept of the Bodhisattaalso developed. Bodhisattas were perceived asdeeply compassionate beings who accumulatedmerit through their efforts but used this not toattain nibbanaand thereby abandon the world,but to help others. The worship of images of theBuddha and Bodhisattas became an importantpart of this tradition.
This new way of thinking was called Mahayana– literally, the “great vehicle”. Those who adopted these beliefs described the older tradition as Hinayana or the “lesser vehicle”.
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Question 62 of 100
62. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements
- Ibn Battuta was appointed as the qazior judge of Delhi by Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
- Ibn Battuta traveled to China through through visiting Maldive and Sri lanka to China as the Sultan’s envoy to the Mongol ruler
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: c)
Both are correct.
Travelling overland through Central Asia, IbnBattuta reached Sind in 1333. He had heard about Muhammad bin Tughlaq, the Sultan of Delhi,and lured by his reputation as a generous patron of arts and letters, set off for Delhi, passing through Multan and Uch. The Sultan was impressed byhis scholarship, and appointed him the qazior judgeof Delhi. He remained in that position for several
years, until he fell out of favour and was throwninto prison. Once the misunderstanding betweenhim and the Sultan was cleared, he wasrestored to imperial service, and wasordered in 1342 to proceed to China as the
Sultan’s envoy to the Mongol ruler.With the new assignment, Ibn Battuta
proceeded to the Malabar coast throughcentral India. From Malabar he went to
the Maldives, where he stayed for eighteenmonths as the qazi,but eventually decidedto proceed to Sri Lanka. He then went back once more to the Malabar coast and the Maldives, and before resuming his mission to China, visited Bengal and Assam as well.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Both are correct.
Travelling overland through Central Asia, IbnBattuta reached Sind in 1333. He had heard about Muhammad bin Tughlaq, the Sultan of Delhi,and lured by his reputation as a generous patron of arts and letters, set off for Delhi, passing through Multan and Uch. The Sultan was impressed byhis scholarship, and appointed him the qazi or judge of Delhi. He remained in that position for several
years, until he fell out of favour and was throwninto prison. Once the misunderstanding betweenhim and the Sultan was cleared, he wasrestored to imperial service, and wasordered in 1342 to proceed to China as the
Sultan’s envoy to the Mongol ruler.With the new assignment, Ibn Battuta
proceeded to the Malabar coast throughcentral India. From Malabar he went to
the Maldives, where he stayed for eighteenmonths as the qazi,but eventually decidedto proceed to Sri Lanka. He then went back once more to the Malabar coast and the Maldives, and before resuming his mission to China, visited Bengal and Assam as well.
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Question 63 of 100
63. Question
2 pointsWith reference to Permanent Settlement system or revenue collection system introduced by the British, consider the following statements
- Under this system, by definition, the zamindar was not a landownerin the village, but a revenue Collector of the state.
- This system ruined the rural economy of Bengal
Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?
Correct
Solution: d)
Both statements are correct.
In introducing the Permanent Settlement, Britishofficials hoped to resolve the problems they hadbeen facing since the conquest of Bengal. Bythe 1770s, the rural economy in Bengal was incrisis, with recurrent famines and decliningagricultural output. Officials felt that agriculture,trade and the revenue resources of the state couldall be developed by encouraging investment inagriculture. This could be done by securing rightsof property and permanently fixing the rates ofrevenue demand. If the revenue demand of the statewas permanently fixed, then the Company couldlook forward to a regular flow of revenue, whileentrepreneurs could feel sure of earning a profitfrom their investment, since the state would notsiphon it off by increasing its claim. The process,officials hoped, would lead to the emergence of aclass of yeomen farmers and rich landowners whowould have the capital and enterprise to improveagriculture. Nurtured by the British, this classwould also be loyal to the Company.
The problem, however, lay in identifyingindividuals who could both improve agriculture andcontract to pay the fixed revenue to the state. Aftera prolonged debate amongst Company officials, thePermanent Settlement was made with the rajas and taluqdars of Bengal. They were now classified as zamindars, and they had to pay the revenuedemand that was fixed in perpetuity. In terms of this definition, the zamindar was not a landowner in the village, but a revenue Collector of the state.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Both statements are correct.
In introducing the Permanent Settlement, Britishofficials hoped to resolve the problems they hadbeen facing since the conquest of Bengal. Bythe 1770s, the rural economy in Bengal was incrisis, with recurrent famines and decliningagricultural output. Officials felt that agriculture,trade and the revenue resources of the state couldall be developed by encouraging investment inagriculture. This could be done by securing rightsof property and permanently fixing the rates ofrevenue demand. If the revenue demand of the statewas permanently fixed, then the Company couldlook forward to a regular flow of revenue, whileentrepreneurs could feel sure of earning a profitfrom their investment, since the state would notsiphon it off by increasing its claim. The process,officials hoped, would lead to the emergence of aclass of yeomen farmers and rich landowners whowould have the capital and enterprise to improveagriculture. Nurtured by the British, this classwould also be loyal to the Company.
The problem, however, lay in identifyingindividuals who could both improve agriculture andcontract to pay the fixed revenue to the state. Aftera prolonged debate amongst Company officials, thePermanent Settlement was made with the rajas and taluqdars of Bengal. They were now classified as zamindars, and they had to pay the revenuedemand that was fixed in perpetuity. In terms of this definition, the zamindar was not a landowner in the village, but a revenue Collector of the state.
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Question 64 of 100
64. Question
2 pointsRegarding Kalighat painting, which of the following sentences is correct?
Correct
Solution: c)
Kalighat painting or Kalighat Pat originated in the 19th century Bengal, in the vicinity of Kalighat Kali Temple, Kalighat, Kolkata, India, and from being items of souvenir taken by the visitors to the Kali temple, the paintings over a period of time developed as a distinct school of Indian painting. From the depiction of Hindu gods, goddesses, and other mythological characters, the Kalighat paintings developed to reflect a variety of themes.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Kalighat painting or Kalighat Pat originated in the 19th century Bengal, in the vicinity of Kalighat Kali Temple, Kalighat, Kolkata, India, and from being items of souvenir taken by the visitors to the Kali temple, the paintings over a period of time developed as a distinct school of Indian painting. From the depiction of Hindu gods, goddesses, and other mythological characters, the Kalighat paintings developed to reflect a variety of themes.
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Question 65 of 100
65. Question
2 pointsWith reference to the practice of using hill stations in India for residence by the British, consider the following statements
- The settled there because of hills’ temperate and cool climate
- Before settlement, hill stations were used by the British as military enclaves
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: c)
As in the case of cantonments, hill stations were a distinctive feature of colonial urban development.The founding and settling of hill stations was initiallyconnected with the needs of the British army. Simla(present-day Shimla) was founded during the course of the Gurkha War (1815-16); the Anglo-Maratha War of 1818 led to British interest in Mount Abu;and Darjeeling was wrested from the rulers of Sikkim in 1835. Hill stations became strategic places for billeting troops, guarding frontiers and launching campaigns against enemy rulers.
The temperate and cool climate of the Indian hillswas seen as an advantage, particularly since theBritish associated hot weather with epidemics.Cholera and malaria were particularly feared and attempts were made to protect the army from these diseases. The overwhelming presence of the armymade these stations a new kind of cantonment inthe hills. These hill stations were also developed as sanatoriums, i.e., places where soldiers could be sent for rest and recovery from illnesses.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
As in the case of cantonments, hill stations were a distinctive feature of colonial urban development.The founding and settling of hill stations was initiallyconnected with the needs of the British army. Simla(present-day Shimla) was founded during the course of the Gurkha War (1815-16); the Anglo-Maratha War of 1818 led to British interest in Mount Abu;and Darjeeling was wrested from the rulers of Sikkim in 1835. Hill stations became strategic places forbilleting troops, guarding frontiers and launching campaigns against enemy rulers.
The temperate and cool climate of the Indian hillswas seen as an advantage, particularly since theBritish associated hot weather with epidemics.Cholera and malaria were particularly feared and attempts were made to protect the army from these diseases. The overwhelming presence of the army made these stations a new kind of cantonment in the hills. These hill stations were also developed as sanatoriums, i.e., places where soldiers could be sent for rest and recovery from illnesses.
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Question 66 of 100
66. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements
- She was instrumental in creating consensus amongst the Muslim leadership to voluntarily give up the demand for reserved seats for religious minorities.
- She was the only Muslim woman to be a member of the Constituent Assembly of India
To which of the following women does the above description refer to?
Correct
Solution: b)
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Begum_Aizaz_Rasul
Refer page no. 419, Theme in Indian History – III
Incorrect
Solution: b)
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Begum_Aizaz_Rasul
Refer page no. 419, Theme in Indian History – III
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Question 67 of 100
67. Question
2 pointsAbout whom Ambedkar said the following words:
“..ability to put the most intricate proposals in the simplest and clearest legal form can rarely be equaled”.
Correct
Solution: b)
During the period of British rule,Ambedkar had been a political opponent of the Congress;but, on the advice of Mahatma Gandhi, he was asked atIndependence to join the Union Cabinet as law minister.
In this capacity, he served as Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution. Serving with him weretwo other lawyers, K.M. Munshi from Gujarat and Alladi Krishnaswamy Aiyar from Madras, both of whom gave crucial inputs in the drafting of the Constitution.These six members were given vital assistance by two civil servants. One was B. N. Rau, Constitutional Advisor to the Government of India, who prepared a series of background papers based on a close study of the political systems obtaining in other countries. The other was the Chief Draughtsman, S. N. Mukherjee, of whom Ambedkar said that his “ability to put the most intricate proposals in the simplest and clearest legal form can rarely be equaled”.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
During the period of British rule,Ambedkar had been a political opponent of the Congress;but, on the advice of Mahatma Gandhi, he was asked at Independence to join the Union Cabinet as law minister.
In this capacity, he served as Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution. Serving with him were two other lawyers, K.M. Munshi from Gujarat and Alladi Krishnaswamy Aiyar from Madras, both of whom gave crucial inputs in the drafting of the Constitution.These six members were given vital assistance by two civil servants. One was B. N. Rau, Constitutional Advisor to the Government of India, who prepared a series of background papers based on a close study of the political systems obtaining in other countries. The other was the Chief Draughtsman, S. N. Mukherjee, of whom Ambedkar said that his “ability to put the most intricate proposals in the simplest and clearest legal form can rarely be equaled”.
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Question 68 of 100
68. Question
2 pointsArrange the following events in chronological order
- The Muslim League decides on “Direct Action” for winning Pakistan
- Congress ministries come to power in seven out of 11 provincesof British India
- The name Pakistan or Pak-stanis coined by a Punjabi Muslimstudent at Cambridge, ChoudhryRehmat Ali
- The British Cabinet sends a three-member Cabinet Missionto Delhi
Choose the correct order of events from below codes
Correct
Solution: d)
Refer NCERT Page 403, Theme in Indian History – III.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Refer NCERT Page 403, Theme in Indian History – III.
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Question 69 of 100
69. Question
2 pointsThe first known Himalayan sketch map of some accuracy was drawn up in 1590 by Antonio Monserrate, a missionary in the court of the Mughal emperor Akbar. He was from
Correct
Solution: a)
Page 137, NCERT Theme in Indian History – II
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Page 137, NCERT Theme in Indian History – II
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Question 70 of 100
70. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements
- She was the Health Minister from 1952 to 1955 in Nehru’s cabinet
- She was personal physician of Mahatma Gandhi
- She was jailed during the Quit India Movement
The above statements refer to
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Question 71 of 100
71. Question
2 pointsWith reference to the recommendations of the Cabinet Mission of 1946, consider the following statements
- It advocated for a divided India
- Central government should control only foreign affairs, defence and communications
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: b)
In March 1946 the British Cabinet sent a three-member mission to Delhi to examine the League’sdemand and to suggest a suitable political frameworkfor a free India. The Cabinet Mission toured thecountry for three months and recommended a loosethree-tier confederation. India was to remain united.
It was to have a weak central government controllingonly foreign affairs, defence and communicationswith the existing provincial assemblies beinggrouped into three sections while electing theconstituent assembly: Section A for the Hindu-majority provinces, and Sections B and C for theMuslim-majority provinces of the north-west and thenorth-east (including Assam) respectively. Thesections or groups of provinces would comprisevarious regional units. They would have the power to set up intermediate-level executives and legislatures of their own.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
In March 1946 the British Cabinet sent a three-member mission to Delhi to examine the League’sdemand and to suggest a suitable political frameworkfor a free India. The Cabinet Mission toured thecountry for three months and recommended a loosethree-tier confederation. India was to remain united.
It was to have a weak central government controllingonly foreign affairs, defence and communicationswith the existing provincial assemblies beinggrouped into three sections while electing theconstituent assembly: Section A for the Hindu-majority provinces, and Sections B and C for theMuslim-majority provinces of the north-west and thenorth-east (including Assam) respectively. Thesections or groups of provinces would comprisevarious regional units. They would have the power to set up intermediate-level executives and legislatures of their own.
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Question 72 of 100
72. Question
2 pointsIn ancient India the term Mlechchha was used for
Correct
Solution: a)
Mlechchha, also spelled mleccha, people of foreign extraction in ancient India. A Sanskrit term, mlechchha was used by the Vedic peoples much as the ancient Greeks used barbaros, originally to indicate the uncouth and incomprehensible speech of foreigners and then extended to their unfamiliar behaviour. Mlechchhas were found in northwestern India, and there is reason to believe that the people known in Akkadian as Mlakkha were the original mlechchhas. As a mlechchha, any foreigner stood completely outside the caste system and the ritual ambience. Thus, historically, contact with them was viewed by the caste Hindu as polluting.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Mlechchha, also spelled mleccha, people of foreign extraction in ancient India. A Sanskrit term, mlechchha was used by the Vedic peoples much as the ancient Greeks used barbaros, originally to indicate the uncouth and incomprehensible speech of foreigners and then extended to their unfamiliar behaviour. Mlechchhas were found in northwestern India, and there is reason to believe that the people known in Akkadian as Mlakkha were the original mlechchhas. As a mlechchha, any foreigner stood completely outside the caste system and the ritual ambience. Thus, historically, contact with them was viewed by the caste Hindu as polluting.
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Question 73 of 100
73. Question
2 pointsThe river which originates at Amarkantak on the Amarkantak hill and then plunges into the Arabian sea at near Bharuch in Gujarat is
Correct
Solution: d)
Narmada River
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Narmada River
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Question 74 of 100
74. Question
2 pointsThe Vindhyan range in central India is a
Correct
Solution: c)
The Vindhyas do not form a single range in the proper geological sense: the hills collectively known as the Vindhyas do not lie along an anticlinal or synclinal ridge. The Vindhya range is actually a group of discontinuous chain of mountain ridges, hill ranges, highlands and plateau escarpments.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
The Vindhyas do not form a single range in the proper geological sense: the hills collectively known as the Vindhyas do not lie along an anticlinal or synclinal ridge. The Vindhya range is actually a group of discontinuous chain of mountain ridges, hill ranges, highlands and plateau escarpments.
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Question 75 of 100
75. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements
- Deccan Trap is a region within Deccan Plateau comprising solidified basalt lava
- The region is famous for its black soil
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Question 76 of 100
76. Question
2 pointsIn geological timescale, the Cretaceous period is well known for
Correct
Solution: b)
The Cretaceous ended with a large mass extinction, the Cretaceous–Paleogene extinction event, in which many groups, including non-avian dinosaurs, pterosaurs and large marine reptiles, died out.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
The Cretaceous ended with a large mass extinction, the Cretaceous–Paleogene extinction event, in which many groups, including non-avian dinosaurs, pterosaurs and large marine reptiles, died out.
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Question 77 of 100
77. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following affect the Local Mean Sea level?
- Ocean Currents
- Atmospheric Pressure
- Change in ice volume
Choose the correct answer using the codes below
Correct
Solution: d)
Local mean sea level (LMSL) is defined as the height of the sea with respect to a land benchmark, averaged over a period of time (such as a month or a year) long enough that fluctuations caused by waves and tides are smoothed out. One must adjust perceived changes in LMSL to account for vertical movements of the land, which can be of the same order (mm/yr) as sea level changes. Some land movements occur because of isostatic adjustment of the mantle to the melting of ice sheets at the end of the last ice age. The weight of the ice sheet depresses the underlying land, and when the ice melts away the land slowly rebounds. Changes in ground-based ice volume also affect local and regional sea levels by the readjustment of the geoid and true polar wander. Atmospheric pressure, ocean currents and local ocean temperature changes can affect LMSL as well.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Local mean sea level (LMSL) is defined as the height of the sea with respect to a land benchmark, averaged over a period of time (such as a month or a year) long enough that fluctuations caused by waves and tides are smoothed out. One must adjust perceived changes in LMSL to account for vertical movements of the land, which can be of the same order (mm/yr) as sea level changes. Some land movements occur because of isostatic adjustment of the mantle to the melting of ice sheets at the end of the last ice age. The weight of the ice sheet depresses the underlying land, and when the ice melts away the land slowly rebounds. Changes in ground-based ice volume also affect local and regional sea levels by the readjustment of the geoid and true polar wander. Atmospheric pressure, ocean currents and local ocean temperature changes can affect LMSL as well.
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Question 78 of 100
78. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements
- The Kollur Mine in Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh is the largest producer of diamonds in India as per 2014 mining data
- Panna in Chhattisgarh is another largest producer of diamond in India
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: d)
The Kollur Mine in Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh India was one of the most productive diamond mines in the world and the first major diamond center. It is situated on the right bank of the river Krishna. It operated between the sixteenth and mid-nineteenth centuries
Panna is in Madhya Pradesh.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
The Kollur Mine in Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh India was one of the most productive diamond mines in the world and the first major diamond center. It is situated on the right bank of the river Krishna. It operated between the sixteenth and mid-nineteenth centuries
Panna is in Madhya Pradesh.
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Question 79 of 100
79. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following artists sought to modernise Mughal and Rajput styles to counter the influence of Western models of art, as taught in Art Schools under the British Raj and developed the Indian style of painting?
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Question 80 of 100
80. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements about The Indira Gandhi Matritva Sahyog Yojana (IGMSY)
- This scheme is for the care and nurturing of pregnant and lactating women
- Under this scheme is funds are given to nearby hospitals to treat pregnant and lactating women during emergencies
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Question 81 of 100
81. Question
2 pointsRani Velu Nachiyar is famous for
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Question 82 of 100
82. Question
2 pointsWith reference to Rowlatt Act, consider the following statements
- The act allowed certain political cases to be tried without juries and permitted internment of suspects without trial
- It was the Rowlatt satyagraha that made Gandhiji a truly national leader.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: c)
http://www.britannica.com/EBchecked/topic/511120/Rowlatt-Acts
NCERT Class XII Theme in Indian History – III, Page 350
Incorrect
Solution: c)
http://www.britannica.com/EBchecked/topic/511120/Rowlatt-Acts
NCERT Class XII Theme in Indian History – III, Page 350
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Question 83 of 100
83. Question
2 pointsWith reference to Ebola virus disease (EVD), consider the following statements
- It is introduced into the human population through close contact with the blood, secretions, organs or other bodily fluids of only humans
- There is no specific treatment nor is any licensed vaccine for EVD available
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: b)
Transmission
Ebola is introduced into the human population through close contact with the blood, secretions, organs or other bodily fluids of infected animals. In Africa, infection has been noticed among those handling infected chimpanzees, gorillas, fruit bats, monkeys, forest antelope found ill or dead or in the rainforest. Ebola then spreads in the community through human-to-human transmission, with infection resulting from direct contact (through broken skin or mucous membranes) with the blood, secretions, organs or other bodily fluids of infected people, and indirect contact with environments contaminated with such fluids. Men who have recovered from the disease can still transmit the virus through their semen for up to 7 weeks after recovery from illness.
Health-care workers have frequently been infected while treating patients with suspected or confirmed EVD when infection control precautions are not strictly practiced.
Signs and symptoms
EVD is a severe acute viral illness often characterized by the sudden onset of fever, intense weakness, muscle pain, headache and sore throat. This is followed by vomiting, diarrhoea, rash, impaired kidney and liver function, and in some cases, both internal and external bleeding. The incubation period, that is, the time interval from infection with the virus to onset of symptoms, is 2 to 21 days.
Diagnosis
Before a patient is diagnosed as infected with EVD, one should rule out malaria, typhoid fever, shigellosis, cholera, leptospirosis, plague, rickettsiosis, meningitis, hepatitis and other viral hemorrhagic fevers like dengue, yellow fever and kyasanur forest disease etc.
Vaccine and treatment
There is no specific treatment nor is any licensed vaccine for EVD available. Several vaccines are being tested, but none are available for clinical use. Severely ill patients require intensive supportive care. Patients are frequently dehydrated and require oral rehydration with solutions containing electrolytes or intravenous fluids.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Transmission
Ebola is introduced into the human population through close contact with the blood, secretions, organs or other bodily fluids of infected animals. In Africa, infection has been noticed among those handling infected chimpanzees, gorillas, fruit bats, monkeys, forest antelope found ill or dead or in the rainforest. Ebola then spreads in the community through human-to-human transmission, with infection resulting from direct contact (through broken skin or mucous membranes) with the blood, secretions, organs or other bodily fluids of infected people, and indirect contact with environments contaminated with such fluids. Men who have recovered from the disease can still transmit the virus through their semen for up to 7 weeks after recovery from illness.
Health-care workers have frequently been infected while treating patients with suspected or confirmed EVD when infection control precautions are not strictly practiced.
Signs and symptoms
EVD is a severe acute viral illness often characterized by the sudden onset of fever, intense weakness, muscle pain, headache and sore throat. This is followed by vomiting, diarrhoea, rash, impaired kidney and liver function, and in some cases, both internal and external bleeding. The incubation period, that is, the time interval from infection with the virus to onset of symptoms, is 2 to 21 days.
Diagnosis
Before a patient is diagnosed as infected with EVD, one should rule out malaria, typhoid fever, shigellosis, cholera, leptospirosis, plague, rickettsiosis, meningitis, hepatitis and other viral hemorrhagic fevers like dengue, yellow fever and kyasanur forest disease etc.
Vaccine and treatment
There is no specific treatment nor is any licensed vaccine for EVD available. Several vaccines are being tested, but none are available for clinical use. Severely ill patients require intensive supportive care. Patients are frequently dehydrated and require oral rehydration with solutions containing electrolytes or intravenous fluids.
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Question 84 of 100
84. Question
2 pointsBreastfeeding is highly recommended for a new born infant. It’s because
Correct
Solution: d)
Incorrect
Solution: d)
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Question 85 of 100
85. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following states together produce maximum amount of common salt in the country?
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Question 86 of 100
86. Question
2 pointsThe Cartagena Protocol is related to
Correct
Solution: c)
The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety is an international agreement on biosafety, as a supplement to the Convention on Biological Diversity. The Biosafety Protocol seeks to protect biological diversity from the potential risks posed by genetically modified organisms resulting from modern biotechnology.
The Biosafety Protocol makes clear that products from new technologies must be based on the precautionary principle and allow developing nations to balance public health against economic benefits. It will for example let countries ban imports of a genetically modified organisms if they feel there is not enough scientific evidence that the product is safe and requires exporters to label shipments containing genetically altered commodities such as corn or cotton.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety is an international agreement on biosafety, as a supplement to the Convention on Biological Diversity. The Biosafety Protocol seeks to protect biological diversity from the potential risks posed by genetically modified organisms resulting from modern biotechnology.
The Biosafety Protocol makes clear that products from new technologies must be based on the precautionary principle and allow developing nations to balance public health against economic benefits. It will for example let countries ban imports of a genetically modified organisms if they feel there is not enough scientific evidence that the product is safe and requires exporters to label shipments containing genetically altered commodities such as corn or cotton.
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Question 87 of 100
87. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following is one of the Declarations of Earth Summit or Rio Declarations?
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Question 88 of 100
88. Question
2 pointsThe Brihadeeshwar temple at Thanjavur in Tamil Nadu is built using which of the following type of stone?
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Question 89 of 100
89. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements
- From the health view point, higher the melting point, better is the oil or the fat.
- Partial hydrogenation results in production of trans fatty acids
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Question 90 of 100
90. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following statements about millets is NOT true
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Question 91 of 100
91. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements about the Komagata Maru incident in September 1914:
-
- Thousands of Indians were killed by the Canadian authorities when they tried to enter into the national boundaries of Canada.
- This incident was one of the reasons for the fuelling of the Ghadr Movement.
- The incident evoked a sharp response from the Indian revolutionaries because people from almost all parts of India were onboard the Komagata Maru ship.
Choose the correct answer from the codes g4en below:
Correct
Solution: d)
There were only 22 casualites and that too were in India, not in Canada. The ship was simply returned from Canada without letting it enter their premises.
It fuelled Ghadr movement as it involved mainly the Punjabi Sikh and Muslim population. The Ghadr leaders could sympathize with the victims.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
There were only 22 casualites and that too were in India, not in Canada. The ship was simply returned from Canada without letting it enter their premises.
It fuelled Ghadr movement as it involved mainly the Punjabi Sikh and Muslim population. The Ghadr leaders could sympathize with the victims.
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Question 92 of 100
92. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements
- This river rises on Brahmagiri Hill of the Western Ghats in southwestern Karnataka state
- In Karnataka the river bifurcates twice, forming the sacred islands of Srirangapatnam and Sivasamudram
To which of the following rivers, the above statements refer to?
Correct
Solution: c)
Kaveri River, Kaveri also spelled Cauvery, sacred river of southern India. It rises on Brahmagiri Hill of the Western Ghats in southwestern Karnataka state, flows in a southeasterly direction for 475 miles (765 km) through the states of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, and descends the Eastern Ghats in a series of great falls. Before emptying into the Bay of Bengal south of Cuddalore, Tamil Nadu, the river breaks into a large number of distributaries forming a wide delta called the “garden of southern India.” Known to devout Hindus as Daksina Ganga (“Ganges of the South”), the Kaveri River is celebrated for its scenery and sanctity in Tamil literature, and its entire course is considered holy ground. The river is also important for its irrigation canal projects.
Its uppermost course is tortuous, with a rocky bed and high banks under luxuriant vegetation. After passing through a narrow gorge and tumbling about 60 to 80 feet (18 to 24 metres) in the rapids ofChunchankatte, the river widens about 900 to 1,200 feet (275 to 365 metres) across the Karnataka Plateau. There its flow is interrupted by a number of anicuts or weirs. At the Krishnaraja Sagara, the Kaveri is joined by two tributaries, the Hemavati and Lakshmantirtha, and dammed for irrigation, forming a 12-square-mile (31-square-km) reservoir.
In Karnataka the river bifurcates twice, forming the sacred islands of Srirangapatnam andSivasamudram, 50 miles (80 km) apart. Around Sivasamudram are the scenic Sivasamudram Falls, comprising two series of rapids, Bhar Chukki and Gagana Chukki, plunging a total of 320 feet (100 metres) and reaching a width of 1,000 feet (300 metres) in the rainy season. The falls supply hydroelectric power to Mysore, Bangalore (Bengaluru), and the Kolar Gold Fields, more than 100 miles (160 km) away.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Kaveri River, Kaveri also spelled Cauvery, sacred river of southern India. It rises on Brahmagiri Hill of the Western Ghats in southwestern Karnataka state, flows in a southeasterly direction for 475 miles (765 km) through the states of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, and descends the Eastern Ghats in a series of great falls. Before emptying into the Bay of Bengal south of Cuddalore, Tamil Nadu, the river breaks into a large number of distributaries forming a wide delta called the “garden of southern India.” Known to devout Hindus as Daksina Ganga (“Ganges of the South”), the Kaveri River is celebrated for its scenery and sanctity in Tamil literature, and its entire course is considered holy ground. The river is also important for its irrigation canal projects.
Its uppermost course is tortuous, with a rocky bed and high banks under luxuriant vegetation. After passing through a narrow gorge and tumbling about 60 to 80 feet (18 to 24 metres) in the rapids ofChunchankatte, the river widens about 900 to 1,200 feet (275 to 365 metres) across the Karnataka Plateau. There its flow is interrupted by a number of anicuts or weirs. At the Krishnaraja Sagara, the Kaveri is joined by two tributaries, the Hemavati and Lakshmantirtha, and dammed for irrigation, forming a 12-square-mile (31-square-km) reservoir.
In Karnataka the river bifurcates twice, forming the sacred islands of Srirangapatnam andSivasamudram, 50 miles (80 km) apart. Around Sivasamudram are the scenic Sivasamudram Falls, comprising two series of rapids, Bhar Chukki and Gagana Chukki, plunging a total of 320 feet (100 metres) and reaching a width of 1,000 feet (300 metres) in the rainy season. The falls supply hydroelectric power to Mysore, Bangalore (Bengaluru), and the Kolar Gold Fields, more than 100 miles (160 km) away.
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Question 93 of 100
93. Question
2 pointsWith reference to the Coriolis Force, consider the following statements
- It is most apparent in the path of an object moving longitudinally.
- An object moving from equator towards the pole will undergo apparent deflection to the right in the Northern Hemisphere
- This rightward deflection is because of Earth’s eastward rotation
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: d)
The Coriolis effect is most apparent in the path of an object moving longitudinally. On the Earth an object that moves along a north-south path, or longitudinal line, will undergo apparent deflection to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere. There are two reasons for this phenomenon: first, the Earth rotates eastward; and second, the tangential velocity of a point on the Earth is a function of latitude (the velocity is essentially zero at the poles and it attains a maximum value at the Equator). Thus, if a cannon were fired northward from a point on the Equator, the projectile would land to the east of its due north path. This variation would occur because the projectile was moving eastward faster at the Equator than was its target farther north. Similarly, if the weapon were fired toward the Equator from the North Pole, the projectile would again land to the right of its true path. In this case, the target area would have moved eastward before the shell reached it because of its greater eastward velocity. An exactly similar displacement occurs if the projectile is fired in any direction.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
The Coriolis effect is most apparent in the path of an object moving longitudinally. On the Earth an object that moves along a north-south path, or longitudinal line, will undergo apparent deflection to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere. There are two reasons for this phenomenon: first, the Earth rotates eastward; and second, the tangential velocity of a point on the Earth is a function of latitude (the velocity is essentially zero at the poles and it attains a maximum value at the Equator). Thus, if a cannon were fired northward from a point on the Equator, the projectile would land to the east of its due north path. This variation would occur because the projectile was moving eastward faster at the Equator than was its target farther north. Similarly, if the weapon were fired toward the Equator from the North Pole, the projectile would again land to the right of its true path. In this case, the target area would have moved eastward before the shell reached it because of its greater eastward velocity. An exactly similar displacement occurs if the projectile is fired in any direction.
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Question 94 of 100
94. Question
2 pointsThe Communal award of McDonald Ramsay provided for:
- Separate electorates for Muslims, Sikhs, Christians and Anglo-Indians
- Special constituencies for depressed classes
- Election of women on communal basis from special constituencies
Choose the correct statements from the codes below:
Correct
Solution: c)
On August 16, 1932, the British Prime Minister McDonald announced the Communal Award. Thus it is also known as McDonald Award. The Communal Award was basically a proposal on minority representation.
Major proposals were as follows:
- The existing seats of the provincial legislatures were to be doubled.
- The system of separate electorates for the minorities was to be retained.
- The Muslims, wherever they were in minority, were to be granted a weightage.
- Except NWFP, 3 % seats for women were to be reserved in all provinces.
- The depressed , dalits or the untouchables were to be declared as minorities.
- Allocation was to be made to labor, landlords, traders and industrialists.
Thus, this award accorded separate electorates for Muslims, Europeans, Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo Indians, Depressed Classes, and even Marathas. (Some seats in Bombay were given to Marathas) The depressed classes were given seats which had to be filled by election from the special constituencies in which only they could vote. However, they were eligible to vote in the general constituencies as well. The labor, Commerce and Industry, Mining and Planting, Landholders were also given special electorates. Sikhs were 13.2% of the population in Punjab. Here they were given 32 seats out of the total 175 seats.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
On August 16, 1932, the British Prime Minister McDonald announced the Communal Award. Thus it is also known as McDonald Award. The Communal Award was basically a proposal on minority representation.
Major proposals were as follows:
- The existing seats of the provincial legislatures were to be doubled.
- The system of separate electorates for the minorities was to be retained.
- The Muslims, wherever they were in minority, were to be granted a weightage.
- Except NWFP, 3 % seats for women were to be reserved in all provinces.
- The depressed , dalits or the untouchables were to be declared as minorities.
- Allocation was to be made to labor, landlords, traders and industrialists.
Thus, this award accorded separate electorates for Muslims, Europeans, Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo Indians, Depressed Classes, and even Marathas. (Some seats in Bombay were given to Marathas) The depressed classes were given seats which had to be filled by election from the special constituencies in which only they could vote. However, they were eligible to vote in the general constituencies as well. The labor, Commerce and Industry, Mining and Planting, Landholders were also given special electorates. Sikhs were 13.2% of the population in Punjab. Here they were given 32 seats out of the total 175 seats.
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Question 95 of 100
95. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements about Bio-fertilizers:
- It increases the availability of natural soil nutrients and builds soil organic matter.
- It can also protect the crop against drought and soil-borne diseases.
- It works slower than conventional chemical fertilizers.
Choose the correct statements from the codes g4en below.
Correct
Solution: d)
Biofertilizers are defined as preparations containing living cells or latent cells of efficient strains of microorganisms that help crop plants’ uptake of nutrients by their interactions in the rhizosphere when applied through seed or soil. They accelerate certain microbial processes in the soil which augment the extent of availability of nutrients in a form easily assimilated by plants.
Very often microorganisms are not as efficient in natural surroundings as one would expect them to be and therefore artificially multiplied cultures of efficient selected microorganisms play a vital role in accelerating the microbial processes in soil.
Use of biofertilizers is one of the important components of integrated nutrient management, as they are cost effective and renewable source of plant nutrients to supplement the chemical fertilizers for sustainable agriculture. Several microorganisms and their association with crop plants are being exploited in the production of biofertilizers. They can be grouped in different ways based on their nature and function.
They also protect against soil-borne diseases and drought.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Biofertilizers are defined as preparations containing living cells or latent cells of efficient strains of microorganisms that help crop plants’ uptake of nutrients by their interactions in the rhizosphere when applied through seed or soil. They accelerate certain microbial processes in the soil which augment the extent of availability of nutrients in a form easily assimilated by plants.
Very often microorganisms are not as efficient in natural surroundings as one would expect them to be and therefore artificially multiplied cultures of efficient selected microorganisms play a vital role in accelerating the microbial processes in soil.
Use of biofertilizers is one of the important components of integrated nutrient management, as they are cost effective and renewable source of plant nutrients to supplement the chemical fertilizers for sustainable agriculture. Several microorganisms and their association with crop plants are being exploited in the production of biofertilizers. They can be grouped in different ways based on their nature and function.
They also protect against soil-borne diseases and drought.
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Question 96 of 100
96. Question
2 pointsWith reference to seismic waves, consider the following statements
- P wave or primary wave is the fastest kind of seismic wave, and, consequently, the first to ‘arrive’ at a seismic station.
- S wave or secondary wave can only move through solid rock, not through any liquid medium.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: c)
http://www.geo.mtu.edu/UPSeis/waves.html
The first kind of body wave is the P wave or primary wave. This is the fastest kind of seismic wave, and, consequently, the first to ‘arrive’ at a seismic station. The P wave can move through solid rock and fluids, like water or the liquid layers of the earth. It pushes and pulls the rock it moves through just like sound waves push and pull the air. Have you ever heard a big clap of thunder and heard the windows rattle at the same time? The windows rattle because the sound waves were pushing and pulling on the window glass much like P waves push and pull on rock. Sometimes animals can hear the P waves of an earthquake. Dogs, for instance, commonly begin barking hysterically just before an earthquake ‘hits’ (or more specifically, before the surface waves arrive). Usually people can only feel the bump and rattle of these waves.
The second type of body wave is the S wave or secondary wave, which is the second wave you feel in an earthquake. An S wave is slower than a P wave and can only move through solid rock, not through any liquid medium. It is this property of S waves that led seismologists to conclude that the Earth’s outer core is a liquid. S waves move rock particles up and down, or side-to-side–perpindicular to the direction that the wave is traveling in (the direction of wave propagation)
Incorrect
Solution: c)
http://www.geo.mtu.edu/UPSeis/waves.html
The first kind of body wave is the P wave or primary wave. This is the fastest kind of seismic wave, and, consequently, the first to ‘arrive’ at a seismic station. The P wave can move through solid rock and fluids, like water or the liquid layers of the earth. It pushes and pulls the rock it moves through just like sound waves push and pull the air. Have you ever heard a big clap of thunder and heard the windows rattle at the same time? The windows rattle because the sound waves were pushing and pulling on the window glass much like P waves push and pull on rock. Sometimes animals can hear the P waves of an earthquake. Dogs, for instance, commonly begin barking hysterically just before an earthquake ‘hits’ (or more specifically, before the surface waves arrive). Usually people can only feel the bump and rattle of these waves.
The second type of body wave is the S wave or secondary wave, which is the second wave you feel in an earthquake. An S wave is slower than a P wave and can only move through solid rock, not through any liquid medium. It is this property of S waves that led seismologists to conclude that the Earth’s outer core is a liquid. S waves move rock particles up and down, or side-to-side–perpindicular to the direction that the wave is traveling in (the direction of wave propagation)
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Question 97 of 100
97. Question
2 pointsWith reference to Monsoons, which of the following conditions are necessary for its normal arrival into the Indian subcontinent?
- The presence of the high-pressure area, east of Madagascar, approximately at 20°S over the Indian Ocean.
- Cooling of the Tibetan Plateau in summer
- The movement of the westerly jet stream to the north of the Himalayas
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: c)
The monsoons are experienced in the tropical area roughly between 20° N and 20° S. To understand the mechanism of the monsoons, the following facts are important.
(a) The differential heating and cooling of land and water creates low pressure on the landmass of India while the seas around experience comparatively high pressure.
(b) The shift of the position of Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) in summer, over the Ganga plain (this is the equatorial trough normally positioned about 5°N of the equator – also known as the monsoon- trough during the monsoon season).
(c) The presence of the high-pressure area, east of Madagascar, approximately at 20°S over the Indian Ocean. The intensity and position of this high-pressure area affects the Indian Monsoon.
(d) The Tibetan plateau gets intensely heated during summer, which results in strong vertical air currents and the formation of high pressure over the plateau at about 9 km above sea level.
(e) The movement of the westerly jet stream to the north of the Himalayas and the presence of the tropical easterly jet stream over.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
The monsoons are experienced in the tropical area roughly between 20° N and 20° S. To understand the mechanism of the monsoons, the following facts are important.
(a) The differential heating and cooling of land and water creates low pressure on the landmass of India while the seas around experience comparatively high pressure.
(b) The shift of the position of Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) in summer, over the Ganga plain (this is the equatorial trough normally positioned about 5°N of the equator – also known as the monsoon- trough during the monsoon season).
(c) The presence of the high-pressure area, east of Madagascar, approximately at 20°S over the Indian Ocean. The intensity and position of this high-pressure area affects the Indian Monsoon.
(d) The Tibetan plateau gets intensely heated during summer, which results in strong vertical air currents and the formation of high pressure over the plateau at about 9 km above sea level.
(e) The movement of the westerly jet stream to the north of the Himalayas and the presence of the tropical easterly jet stream over.
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Question 98 of 100
98. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements about Anti-retroviral therapy (ART):
- It decreases the risk of spread of the HIV virus from the treated to another.
- It does not cure AIDS.
- Patients must adhere to the therapy in their entire lifetime.
Choose the correct ones using the codes below:
Correct
Solution: d)
Anti-retroviral therapy (ART) is a treatment for HIV/AIDS. It does not cure the disease; rather, it aims to increase life expectancy reduce opportunistic infections, and may potentially reduce the likelihood that an infected individual transmits the virus to another.
A successful ART program requires all of the following:
o Diagnosis. It means for testing individuals to identify those in need of treatment. In the case of ART, diagnosis consists of more than merely testing an individual for HIV/AIDS. This is because when the disease is far enough along, the toxicity of the drugs may outweigh the benefits of starting treatment.
o Distribution. A method for distributing the drugs to those who need them.
o Drugs. Antiretroviral drugs can be costly.
o Patient adherence to drug regimen. ART consists of a relatively complex drug regimen to which patients must strictly adhere. And because ART does not cure HIV/AIDS, patients must adhere to the regimen as long as they remain alive.
o Monitoring of the patient’s response to treatment. ART may cause negative side effects in a patient. In addition, laboratory monitoring may be needed for purposes of noticing decreased efficacy or the
development of resistance.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Anti-retroviral therapy (ART) is a treatment for HIV/AIDS. It does not cure the disease; rather, it aims to increase life expectancy reduce opportunistic infections, and may potentially reduce the likelihood that an infected individual transmits the virus to another.
A successful ART program requires all of the following:
o Diagnosis. It means for testing individuals to identify those in need of treatment. In the case of ART, diagnosis consists of more than merely testing an individual for HIV/AIDS. This is because when the disease is far enough along, the toxicity of the drugs may outweigh the benefits of starting treatment.
o Distribution. A method for distributing the drugs to those who need them.
o Drugs. Antiretroviral drugs can be costly.
o Patient adherence to drug regimen. ART consists of a relatively complex drug regimen to which patients must strictly adhere. And because ART does not cure HIV/AIDS, patients must adhere to the regimen as long as they remain alive.
o Monitoring of the patient’s response to treatment. ART may cause negative side effects in a patient. In addition, laboratory monitoring may be needed for purposes of noticing decreased efficacy or the
development of resistance.
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Question 99 of 100
99. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements:
- Some energy is necessarily lost at every successive higher trophic level in the food chain.
- The biomass at higher levels is always lower than that of the lower level.
Which of these is/are true?
Correct
Solution: a)
In a lake system, the biomass at the second trophic level is the highest. In land systems, generally the higher trophic levels have greater mass.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
In a lake system, the biomass at the second trophic level is the highest. In land systems, generally the higher trophic levels have greater mass.
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Question 100 of 100
100. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following natural sources emit infrasound waves?
- Meteors
- Exploding volcanoes.
- Earthquakes.
Choose the correct ones from the codes below:
Correct
Solution: d)
Infrasound would be used to check for an explosion on the missing Malaysian plane if there was a monitoring station nearby, “or the explosion is at a level or at high altitude that it could be detected.
Acoustic waves with very low frequencies that are inaudible to the human ear are called infrasound.
“Infrasound is produced by a variety of natural and man-made sources — exploding volcanoes, earthquakes, meteors, storms and auroras in the natural world; nuclear, mining and large chemical explosions, as well as aircraft and rocket launches in the man-made arena.”
The Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty Organisation (CTBTO) uses “infrasound” or infrasonic sensors to monitor the earth mainly for atmospheric nuclear explosions.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Infrasound would be used to check for an explosion on the missing Malaysian plane if there was a monitoring station nearby, “or the explosion is at a level or at high altitude that it could be detected.
Acoustic waves with very low frequencies that are inaudible to the human ear are called infrasound.
“Infrasound is produced by a variety of natural and man-made sources — exploding volcanoes, earthquakes, meteors, storms and auroras in the natural world; nuclear, mining and large chemical explosions, as well as aircraft and rocket launches in the man-made arena.”
The Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty Organisation (CTBTO) uses “infrasound” or infrasonic sensors to monitor the earth mainly for atmospheric nuclear explosions.
Leaderboard: INSIGHTS FULL LENGTH PRELIMS 2014 MOCK EXAM - 2
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