SOLUTIONS – INSIGHTS REVISION TEST for Preliminary Exam 2018: Test – 25 (Indian Polity )

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SOLUTIONS 

INSIGHTS REVISION TEST for Preliminary Exam 2018: Test – 25 (Indian Polity )


1: Consider the following Statements with respect to “Preamble of the Indian Constitution”

  1. The word ‘Fraternity ‘means – “No one should treat a fellow citizen as inferior”.
  2. It reveals Nature of the State, Objectives and Date of implementation of the Constitution.

Which of the above is/are CORRECT?

A.1 Only

B.2 Only

C.BOTH

D.NONE

Solution: a

Explanation:

Statement 1:  “Fraternity” –All of us should behave as if we are members of the same family. No one should treat a fellow citizen as inferior.

Hence STATEMENT 1 is CORRECT

Statement 2: It reveals Nature of the State, Objectives and Date of adoption [Not Date of Implementation] of the Constitution

Hence STATEMENT 2 is INCORRECT

Additional Relevant information:

INGREDIENTS OF THE PREAMBLE:

The Preamble reveals four ingredients or components:

  1. Source of authority of the Constitution: The Preamble states that  the Constitution derives its authority from the people of India.
  2. Nature of Indian  State:  It  declares  India  to  be  of  a  sovereign,  socialist, secular democratic and republican polity.
  3. Objectives of the Constitution: It specifies justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as the objectives.
  4. Date of  adoption  of  the  Constitution:  It  stipulates  November  26,  1949  as the date.

 


2: Which of the following word indicates that “People have the Supreme right to make decisions” in our Preamble?

a) Republic

b) Sovereign

c) Secular

d) None of the above

Solution: b

Explanation:

The word SOVEREIGN means People have supreme right to make decisions on internal as well as external matters. No external power can dictate the government of India.

Hence the answer is B.

For the detailed description of terms in the Preamble, please refer to the Source mentioned below

[Source: NCERT Democratic Politics-1 Chapter-3 Constitutional Design]

 


3: Which of the following Statements is CORRECT?

a) Constitution is about values, not about institutions.

b) No Constitution in the World is based on ethnic identity.

c) A just constitution commands voluntary allegiance of the people.

d) Liberty without equality would kill the individual initiative

Solution: c

Explanation:

Constitution in general is embodiment of Values. For example, Values that inspired and guided the freedom struggle and were in turn nurtured by it, formed the foundation for India’s democracy. These values are embedded in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution. They guide all the articles of the Indian Constitution. But, A constitution is not merely a statement of values and philosophy. As we noted above, a constitution is mainly about embodying these values into institutional arrangements. Much of the document called Constitution of India is about these arrangements.

[Source: NCERT Democratic Politics-1 Chapter-3 Constitutional Design]

 


4: Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT in the Context of Democracy?

  1. The passion for respect and freedom are the basis of Democracy
  2. Democracy and development cannot go together
  3. Democracies are based on Social equality

a) 1 and 2 Only

b) 1 Only

c) 3 Only

d) 1 and 3 Only

Solution: b

Statement 1: Democracy stands much superior to any other form of government in promoting dignity and freedom of the individual. Every individual wants to receive respect from fellow beings. Often conflicts arise among individuals because some feel that they are not treated with due respect. The passion for respect and freedom are the basis of democracy. Democracies throughout the world have recognised this, at least in principle.

Hence STATEMENT 1 is CORRECT

Statement 2:  The example of many western countries-USA and EUROPE– which have succeeded with Democracy [at least in principle] prove that Democracy and Development can go together. But that does not mean that Democracy ensures development. Democracy is Just a form of government. Economic development depends on several factors: country’s population size, global situation, cooperation from other countries, economic priorities adopted by the country, etc

Hence STATEMENT 2 is INCORRECT

Statement 3: Democracies are based on political equality. All individuals have equal weight in electing representatives.

Hence STATEMENT 3 is CORRECT

Source: NCERT Democratic Politics-II Chapter 7

 


5: Which of the following are envisaged by the “Right to Freedom” in the Constitution of India?

  1. Protection of the interests of minorities
  2. Protection in respect of conviction for offences
  3. Protection of freedom of profession
  4. Prohibition of untouchability

a) 1, 2 and 4 Only

b) 2 and 3 Only

c) 2 and 4 Only

d) 1 and 4 Only

Solution: b

Explanation:

Right to freedom (Articles 19–22)

(a) Protection of six rights regarding freedom of: (i) speech and expression, (ii) assembly, (iii) association, (iv) movement, (v) residence, and (vi) profession (Article 19).

(b) Protection in respect of conviction for offences (Article 20).

(c) Protection of life and personal liberty (Article 21).

(d) Right to elementary education (Article 21A).

(e) Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases (Article 22).


6: Indian Constituion has provided fundamental rights to its Citizens. They are termed  “fundamental” because

  1. They are guaranteed and protected by the Constitution
  2. They are most essential for the holistic development of individual
  3. They are justiciable

a) 1 and 2 Only

b) 2 and 3 Only

c) All

d) 1 and 3 Only

Solution: c

Explanation:

STATEMENT 1: The  Fundamental  Rights  are  named  so  because  they  are  guaranteed  and protected by the Constitution, which is the fundamental law of the land.  

Hence STATEMENT 1 is CORRECT

STATEMENT 3: The above “guaranteed” means that they are justiciable. Hence the third statement is conveying the same essence as that of 1st Statement.

Hence STATEMENT 3 is CORRECT

STATEMENT 2: They are  ‘fundamental’  also  in  the  sense  that  they  are  most  essential  for  the  allround  development  (material,  intellectual,  moral  and  spiritual)  of  the individuals.

Hence STATEMENT 2 is CORRECT

SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY-5th EDITION-M LAXMIKANTH-CHAPTER 7

 


7: Which principle among the ‘following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 44th Amendment to the Constitution?

a) To promote the  welfare  of  the  people  by  securing  a  social  order permeated  by  justice

b) To minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities

c) To secure opportunities for healthy development of children

d) To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries

Solution: b

Explanation:

Option B: To minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities- This is added to Article 38 through 44th Constitutional Amendment Act.

Option A: To  promote  the  welfare  of  the  people  by  securing  a  social  order permeated  by  justice – This provision is Originally available under the Article 38.

Option C and Option D : These provisions are added through 42nd Constitutional Amendment.

SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY-5th EDITION-M LAXMIKANTH-CHAPTER 8

 


8: Consider the following Statements:

  1. The President cannot prorogue the House while it is in Session.
  2. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha which got transmitted from the Rajya Sabha does not lapse upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
  3. Quorum includes the Presiding Officer

Which of the following is correct?

a) 2 and 3 Only

b) 1 and 3 Only

c) 3 Only

d) 2 Only

Solution: c

Explanation:

STATEMENT 1: The  presiding  officer  (Speaker  or  Chairman)  declares  the  House  adjourned sine  die,  when  the  business  of  a  session  is  completed.  Within  the  next  few days,  the  President  issues  a  notification  for  prorogation  of  the  session. However, the President can also prorogue the House while in session.

Hence STATEMENT 1 is INCORRECT

STATEMENT 2: The  position with respect to lapsing of bills is as follows:

  1. A bill  pending  in  the  Lok  Sabha  lapses  (whether  originating  in  the  Lok Sabha or transmitted to it by the Rajya Sabha).
  2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses.
  3. A bill  not  passed  by  the  two  Houses  due  to  disagreement  and  if  the president  has  notified  the  holding  of  a  joint  sitting  before  the  dissolution of Lok Sabha, does not lapse.
  4. A bill  pending  in  the  Rajya  Sabha  but  not  passed  by  the  Lok  Sabha  does not lapse.
  5. A bill passed by both Houses but pending assent of the president does not lapse.
  6. A bill  passed  by  both  Houses  but  returned  by  the  president  for reconsideration of Houses does not lapse.

Hence STATEMENT 2 is INCORRECT

STATEMENT 3: Quorum  is  the  minimum  number  of  members  required  to  be  present  in  the House  before  it  can  transact  any  business.  It is one-tenth  of  the  total  number of members in each House  including  the presiding officer.

Hence STATEMENT 3 is CORRECT

SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY-5th EDITION-M LAXMIKANTH-CHAPTER 22


9: Which of the following must be voted upon as part of Parliamentary proceedings?

  1. Private Member’s Resolution
  2. Government Resolution
  3. Statutory Resolution

a) 2 and 3 Only

b) 1 and 3 Only

c) 1 and 2 Only

d) All

Solution: d

Explanation: All resolutions come in the category of substantive motions, that is to say, every  resolution  is  a  particular  type  of  motion.  All  motions  need  not necessarily  be  substantive.  Further,  all  motions  are  not  necessarily  put  to vote  of  the  House,  whereas  all  the  resolutions  are  required  to  be  voted upon.

SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY-5th EDITION-M LAXMIKANTH-CHAPTER 22


10: Promotion of World/International peace is included in the

  1. Preamble to the Indian Constitution
  2. Directive Principles of State Policy
  3. Objectives Resolution
  4. Fundamental Duties

a) 2 Only

b) 1 and 3 Only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) All

Solution: c

Explanation:

Reg. 2 –   Article 51 of the Indian Constitution directs the State to  promote  international  peace  and  security  and  maintain  just  and honourable  relations  between  nations;  to  foster  respect  for  international law  and  treaty  obligations,  and  to  encourage  settlement  of  international disputes by arbitration

Reg. 3 – One can find in the Objectives Resolution —“The land would make full and willing contribution to the promotion of world peace and welfare of mankind.”

Hence the answer is C

Source: NCERT- INDIAN CONSTITUTION AT WORK CHAPTER-1

 


11: Which of the following is/ are CORRECT?

  1. The Constitution of India dictated that the Speaker does not vacate his office until immediately before the first meeting of the House after dissolution
  2. The President of India cannot nominate more than two Anglo-Indians to the House of the People as per the Constitutional mandate.

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Solution: c

Explanation:

Statement 1: Article 94 of the Indian Constitution contains this provision.

Hence Statement 1 is CORRECT

Statement 2: The maximum strength of the House envisaged by the Constitution is now 552 (530 members to represent the states, 20 members to represent the union territories and not more than two members  of  the Anglo-Indian  community  to  be  nominated  by  the  President,  if,  in  his  opinion,  that community  is  not  adequately  represented  in  the  House)

Hence Statement 2 is CORRECT

Additional Relevant information:

Article 94 of the Indian Constitution:

Vacation and resignation of, and removal from, the offices of Speaker and Deputy Speaker A member holding office as Speaker or Deputy Speaker of the House of the People

(a) shall vacate his office if he ceases to be a member of the House of the People;

(b) may at any time, by writing under his hand addressed, if such member is the Speaker, to the Deputy Speaker, and if such member is the Deputy Speaker, to the Speaker, resign his office; and

(c) may be removed from his office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then members of the House: Provided that no resolution for the purpose of clause (c) shall be moved unless at least fourteen days notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution: Provided further that, whenever the House of the People is dissolved, the Speaker shall not vacate his office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution


12: Standing Committees in each house of the Indian Parliament are divided in terms of their functions. In this context, Committee on Privileges comes under which of the following category?

a) Committees to Inquire

b) Committees to Scrutinize

c) Joint Committee on Salaries and allowances of Members of Parliament

d) Committees relating to day-to-day Business of the House

Solution: a

Explanation:

(i) COMMITTEES TO INQUIRE: (a)  Committee on Petitions examines petitions on bills and on matters of general public interest and also entertains representations on matters concerning subjects in the Union List; and (b) Committee  of  Privileges examines  any  question  of  privilege  referred  to  it  by  the  House  or Speaker/Chairman;

(ii) COMMITTEES TO SCRUTINIZE : (a)  Committee on Government Assurances keeps track of all the assurances, promises, undertakings, etc., given by Ministers in the House and pursues them till they are implemented; (b)  Committee on Subordinate Legislation scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the power to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, bye-laws, etc., conferred by theConstitution or Statutes is being properly exercised by the delegated authorities;  and (c)  Committee on Papers Laid on the Table examines all papers laid on the table of the House by ministers, other than  statutory  notifications  and  orders  which  come  within  the  purview  of  the  Committee  on Subordinate  Legislation,  to  see  whether  there  has  been  compliance  with  the  provisions  of  the Constitution, Act, rule or regulation under which the paper has been laid;

 (iii) COMMITTEES RELATING TO THE DAY-TO-DAY BUSINESS OF THE HOUSE: (a)  Business Advisory Committee recommends  allocation  of time for items of Government and other business to be brought before the Houses; (b)  Committee on Private  Members’  Bills  and  Resolutions  of  the  Lok  Sabha classifies  and  allocates  time  to  bills introduced by private members, recommendsallocation of time for discussion on private members’ resolutions and examines Constitution amendment bills before their introduction by private members in  the  Lok  Sabha.  The  Rajya  Sabha  does  not  have  such  committee.  It  is  the  Business  Advisory Committee of that House which recommends allocation of time for discussion on stage or stages of private  members’  bills  and  resolutions;  (c)  Rules  Committee considers  matters  of  procedure  andconduct  of  business  in  the  House  and  recommends  amendments  or  additions  to  the  rules;  and  (d) Committee on Absence of Members from the Sittings of the House of the Lok Sabha considers all applications  from  members  for  leave  or  absence  from  sittings  of  the  House.  There  is  no  such committee in the Rajya Sabha. Applications from members for leave or absence areconsidered by the House itself;

  1. JOINT COMMITTEE ON  SALARIES AND  ALLOWANCES  OF  MEMBERS  OF  PARLIAMENT, constituted  under  the  Salary,Allowances and Pension of Members of Parliament Act, 1954, apart from framing rules for regulating payment of salary, allowances and pension to Members of Parliament, also frames rules in respect of amenities  like  medical,  housing,  telephone,  postal,  constituency  and  secretarial  facility;

13: In 1976, Official Language Rules were framed under the provisions of Official Languages Act, 1963 [as amended in 1967]. They apply to whole of India except to the State/UT of

a) Jammu and Kashmir

b) Tamilnadu

c) Arunachal Pradesh

d) Dadra and Nagar Haveli

Solution: b

Explanation:

In exercise of the powers conferred by section 8, read with sub-section(4) of section 3 of the Official Languages Act, 1963 (19 of 1963), the Central Government hereby makes the following rules, namely ;

Short title, extent and commencement –

These rules may be called the Official Languages (Use for Official Purposes of the Union) Rules, 1976.

They shall extend to the whole of India, except the State of Tamilnadu.

They shall come into force on the date of their publication in the Official Gazette.

Reference: http://www.rajbhasha.nic.in/en/official-language-rules-1976

 


14: Who among the following has to resolve the disputes related to splits/mergers of Political Parties?

a) Indian Parliamentary Group

b) Lok Sabha Speaker

c) Election Commission of India

d) President on the recommendation of Supreme Court

Solution: c

Explanation:

Splits, mergers and alliances have frequently disrupted the compositions of political parties. This has led to a number of disputes over which section of a divided party gets to keep the party symbol, and how to classify the resulting parties in terms of national and state parties. The Election Commission has to resolve these disputes, although its decisions can be challenged in the courts.

Reference: http://eci.nic.in/eci_main1/the_function.aspx#splitsandmergers

 


15: Which of the following Statements is/are CORRECT?

  1. India International Institute of Democracy and Election Management (IIIDEM) is a combined initiative of Indian Parliamentary group and Lok Sabha Secretariat to contribute to developing stronger democratic institutions and support the efforts of ECI in carrying out its mandate and functions.
  2. It was set up recently after 2014 general elections.
  3. It has conducted training on Election Management to SAARC Countries in a Program supported by Ministry of External Affairs

a) 1 and 2 Only

b) 2 and 3 Only

c) 3 only

d) 1 only

Solution: c

Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2: In June 2011, the Election Commission of India (ECI), established the India International Institute of Democracy and Election Management (IIIDEM) to advance its professional competence in election management, promote peoples participation, contribute to developing stronger democratic institutions and support the efforts of ECI in carrying out its mandate and functions.

Hence Both STATEMENT 1 and STATEMENT 2 are INCORRECT

Statement 3: The India International Institute of Democracy and Election Management (IIIDEM) has conducted training on Election Management of SAARC Countries. It was conducted by Election Commission of India (ECI) and sponsored by the Union Ministry of External Affairs with aim of promoting free, fair, peaceful and inclusive elections.

Hence STATEMENT 3 is CORRECT.


16: which of the following Statements is/are CORRECT with respect to Supreme Court?

  1. Supreme Court is the Original, exclusive and final authority related to disputes regarding the election of the President and the Vice-President.
  2. Appeal by Special Leave is not limited to Criminal matters.
  3. Indian Supreme Court’s scope of Judicial review is wider compared to American Counter part.

A.1 and 3 Only

B.2 and 3 Only

C.1 Only

D.1 and 2 Only

Solution: d

Explanation:

Statement 1: It decides the disputes regarding the election of the president and the vicepresident. In this regard, it has the original, exclusive and final authority.

Hence Statement 1 is CORRECT

Statement 2: The  Supreme  Court  is  authorised  to  grant in  its  discretion  special  leave  to  appeal  from  any  judgement  in  any  matter passed  by  any  court  or  tribunal  in  the  country  (except  military  tribunal  and court martial). This provision contains the four aspects as under:

(i)  It  is  a  discretionary  power  and  hence,  cannot  be  claimed  as  a  matter  of right.

(ii) It can be granted in any judgement whether final or interlocutory.

(iii)  It  may  be  related  to  any  matter—constitutional,  civil,  criminal,  incometax, labour, revenue, advocates, etc.

(iv)  It  can  be  granted  against  any  court  or  tribunal  and  not  necessarily  against a high court (of course, except a military court).

Hence Statement 2 is CORRECT

Statement 3: The  scope  of  judicial  review  in  India  is narrower  than  what  exists  in  the  USA,  though  the  American  Constitution does  not  explicitly  mention  the  concept  of  judicial  review  in  any  of  its provisions.  This  is  because,  the  American  Constitution  provides  for  ‘due process  of  law’  against  that  of  ‘procedure  established  by  law’  which  is contained in the Indian Constitution.

Hence Statement 3 is INCORRECT

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5th EDITION-M LAXMIKANTH-CHAPTER 26

 


17: In which of the following States Governor has special responsibility with respect to law and order under Special Provisions of the Constitution?

a) Manipur

b) Arunachal Pradesh

c) Assam

d) Meghalaya

Solution: b

Explanation:

In respect of Nagaland, the Governor has special responsibility under Article 371 A of the Constitution with respect to law and order and even though it is necessary for him  to  consult  Council  of  Ministers  in  matters  relating  to  law  and  order,  he  can  exercise  his individual judgement as to the action to be taken. Similarly, in respect of Arunachal Pradesh, the Governor has special responsibility under Article 371 H of the Constitution with respect to law and order.

 


18: Which of the following Statements is/are CORRECT?

  1. Legislative Council of a state comprises not more than two-thirds of total number of members in Legislative  Assembly  of  the  state.
  2. The Chairman of Legislative Councils is the Governor/His nominee of the concerned State.
  3. With respect to enlargement of the Jurisdiction of the State Public Service Commission Legislative Council’s position is equivalent to that of Legislative assembly

a) 3 Only

b) All

c) 2 and 3 Only

d) 1 Only

Solution: a

Statement 1: Unlike  the  members  of  the  legislative  assembly,  the  members  of the  legislative  council  are  indirectly  elected.  The  maximum  strength  of  the council  is  fixed  at  one-third  of  the  total  strength  of  the  assembly  and  the minimum  strength  is  fixed  at  40.  It  means  that  the  size  of  the  council depends  on  the  size  of  the  assembly  of  the  concerned  state.  This  is  done  to ensure  the  predominance  of  the  directly  elected  House  (assembly)  in  the legislative  affairs  of  the  state.  Though  the  Constitution  has  fixed  the maximum  and  the  minimum  limits,  the  actual  strength  of  a  Council  is  fixed by Parliament

Hence Statement 1 is INCORRECT

Statement 2: The Chairman is elected by the council itself from amongst its members.

Hence Statement 2 is INCORRECT

Statement 3: In  the  following  matters,  the  powers  and  status  of  the  council  are  broadly equal to that of the assembly:

  1. Introduction and passage  of  ordinary  bills.  However,  in  case  of disagreement  between  the  two  Houses,  the  will  of  the  assembly  prevails over that of the council.
  2. Approval of ordinances issued by the governor
  3. Selection of ministers including the chief minister. Under the Constitution the, ministers including  the  chief  minister  can  be  members  of  either House of the state legislature. However, irrespective of their membership, they are responsible only to the assembly.
  4. Consideration of the reports of the constitutional bodies like State Finance Commission, state public  service  commission  and  Comptroller  and Auditor General of India.
  5. Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the state public service commission

Hence Statement 3 is CORRECT

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5th EDITION-M LAXMIKANTH-CHAPTER 32


19: Who among the following comprises of the electorate for the legislative Council?

  1. Members of Legislative Assembly
  2. Members of Lok Sabha of concerned State
  3. Members of Rajya Sabha of concerned State
  4. Registered graduates of more than three years Standing [Residing within the state]
  5. Members of local bodies

a) 1 and 5 Only

b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 Only

c) 1, 4 and 5 Only

d) All

Solution: c

Explanation:

Of the  total  number  of  members  of  a  legislative council:

  1. 1/3 are  elected  by  the  members  of  local  bodies  in  the  state  like  municipalities, district boards, etc.,
  2. 1/12 are  elected  by  graduates  of  three  years  standing  and  residing  within the state,
  3. 1/12 are  elected  by  teachers  of  three  years  standing  in  the  state,  not  lower in standard than secondary school,
  4. 1/3 are  elected  by  the  members  of  the  legislative  assembly  of  the  state from amongst persons who are not members of the assembly, and
  5. the remainder  are  nominated  by  the  governor  from  amongst  persons  who have  a  special  knowledge  or  practical  experience  of  literature,  science, art, cooperative movement and social service.

Thus,  5/6  of  the  total  number  of  members  of  a  legislative  council  are indirectly  elected  and  1/6  are  nominated  by  the  governor

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5th EDITION-M LAXMIKANTH-CHAPTER 32


20: Which of the following Statements is/are CORRECT?

  1. Project Monitoring Group  (PMG),  is  an  institutional  mechanism  for  resolving  a  variety  of  issues including  fast  tracking  of  approvals  for  setting  up  an  expeditious  commissioning  of  large  Public, Private and Public-Private Partnership (PPP) project.
  2. Project Monitoring Group  (PMG) is currently functioning under Cabinet Secretariat.

A.1 Only

B.2 Only

C.Both

D.None

Solution: a

Statement 1: Project  Monitoring  Group  (PMG),  is  an  institutional  mechanism  for  resolving  a  variety  of  issues including  fast  tracking  of  approvals  for  setting  up  an  expeditious  commissioning  of  large  Public, Private and Public-Private Partnership (PPP) project.

Hence Statement 1 is CORRECT

Statement 2: Project Monitoring Group (PMG) was set up in 2013 under cabinet secretariat. PMG is presently functioning under Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) since2015.

Hence Statement 2 is INCORRECT

Additional Relevant Information:

As  part  of  its  efforts  to  ensure  timely  disposal  of  applications  submitted  by  investors,  PMG  is monitoring  the  development  and  operation  of  online  digital  platforms  by  various  ministries  and departments through its web portal e-nivesh monitor (e-nivesh.gov.in). The monitoring mechanism has been developed to track the progress achieved in online processing and disposal of different types of clearances in various central ministries/departments, etc. The portal tracks all digitalized proposals starting  from  the  online  submission  till  clearance  by  pulling  the  information  from  various  online central services/ clearance portals of ministries/departments, etc.


21) Which of the following legislations is known as ‘Shah Bano Act’?

a) Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act

b) The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Bill

c) Indian Divorce Act, 1969

d) Marriage Laws (Amendment) Act, 2001

 

Solution: a)

 

http://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/11/30/insights-daily-current-affairs-30-november-2017/

 

Commonly known as the Shah Bano Act, the 1986 law was enacted by the Rajiv Gandhi government under pressure from the Muslim clergy to overturn the Supreme Court ruling in the Shah Bano case.

 

The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act was a controversially named landmark legislation passed by the parliament of India in 1986 to allegedly protect the rights of Muslim women who have been divorced by, or have obtained divorce from, their husbands and to provide for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. The Act was passed by the Rajiv Gandhi government to nullify the decision in Shah Bano case. This case caused the Rajiv Gandhi government, with its absolute majority, to pass the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986 which diluted the secular judgment of the Supreme Court.


22) For providing additional funds for research and related infrastructure, Higher Education Funding Agency (HEFA), has started its operations. What’s the source of funding for HEFA?

a) Ministry of HRD and World Bank

b) Ministry of Finance and Ministry of HRD

c) Promoter/bank and the MHRD

d) Ministry of HRD and ADB

 

Solution: c)

 

http://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/11/30/insights-daily-current-affairs-30-november-2017/

 

The Union Cabinet had approved HEFA in September 2016 as a Special Purpose Vehicle with a public sector bank (Canara Bank). It would be jointly funded by the promoter/bank and the MHRD with an authorised capital of ₹2,000 crore. The government equity would be ₹1,000 crore.

 


 

23) With reference to the National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC), consider the following statements:

  1. It is based on Public Private Partnership (PPP) model in India, under the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE)
  2. It provides funding to build scalable and profitable vocational training initiatives

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Solution: c)

 

http://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/11/29/insights-daily-current-affairs-29-november-2017/

 

What is it? The National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) is a one-of-its-kind, Public Private Partnership (PPP) model in India, under the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE). A not-for-profit company set up by the Ministry of Finance, under Section 25 of the Companies Act, it has an equity base of Rs.10 crore, of which the Government of India holds for 49%, while the private sector has the balance 51%.

It aims to promote skill development by catalyzing creation of large, quality and for-profit vocational institutions.

Functions: NSDC provides funding to build scalable and profitable vocational training initiatives. Its mandate is also to enable support system which focuses on quality assurance, information systems and train the trainer academies either directly or through partnerships. NSDC acts as a catalyst in skill development by providing funding to enterprises, companies and organisations that provide skill training. It will also develop appropriate models to enhance, support and coordinate private sector initiatives.


24) With reference to the Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS), consder the following statements:

  1. It was launched by India
  2. It is a regional forum of Indian Ocean littoral states
  3. It is represented by the Navy chiefs of member states
  4. It is a security arrangement to ensure mutual cooperation during regional wars

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 2, 3 and 4 Only

b) 1,3 and 4 Only

c) 1,2 and 3 Only

d) 1,2,3 and 4

 

Solution: c)

 

http://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/11/28/insights-daily-current-affairs-28-november-2017/

 

The IONS is a regional forum of Indian Ocean littoral states, represented by their Navy chiefs, launched by India in February 2008. It presently has 23 members and nine observers.

  • It is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region by providing an open and inclusive forum for discussion of regionally relevant maritime issues and, in the process, endeavors to generate a flow of information between naval professionals that would lead to common understanding and possibly agreements on the way ahead.
  • Under the charter of business adopted in 2014, the grouping has working groups on Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR), Information Security and Interoperability (IS&I) and anti-piracy now renamed as maritime security.

25) With reference to CRISPR technology, consider the following statements:

  1. CRISPR sequences contain snippets of DNA from viruses that have attacked the prokaryotic microorganisms
  2. This technology is used for editing and modifying genes
  3. CRISPR sequences play a key role in a prokaryotic defense system

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3 Only

b) 2 and 3 Only

c) 2 Only

d) 1,2 and 3

 

Solution: d)

 

http://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/11/27/insights-daily-current-affairs-27-november-2017/

 

CRISPR is a family of DNA sequences in bacteria and archaea. The sequences contain snippets of DNA from viruses that have attacked the prokaryote. These snippets are used by the prokaryote to detect and destroy DNA from similar viruses during subsequent attacks. These sequences play a key role in a prokaryotic defense system, and form the basis of a technology known as CRISPR/Cas9 that effectively and specifically changes genes within organisms