SOLUTIONS – INSIGHTS REVISION TEST for Preliminary Exam 2018: Test – 24 (Indian Polity )

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SOLUTIONS

INSIGHTS REVISION TEST for Preliminary Exam 2018: Test – 24 (Indian Polity )


1.Which of the following about CBI-Central Bureau of Investigation is /are CORRECT?

  1. It enjoys the status of an attached Office under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
  2. The Director of CBI  has  been  provided  security  of tenure  in  office  by  the  CVC Act, 2003.

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Solution: b

Explanation:

Statement 1: The  Central  Bureau  of  Investigation  (CBI)  was  set  up  in  1963  by  a resolution  of  the  Ministry  of  Home  Affairs.  Later,  it  was  transferred  to the  Ministry  of  Personnel  and  now  it enjoys  the  status  of  an  attached  office. The Special Police Establishment (which looked into vigilance cases) setup in 1941 was also merged with the CBI.

HENCE STATATEMENT 1 IS INCORRECT

Statement 2: The  Director  of  CBI  as  Inspector-General  of  Police,  Delhi  Special  Police Establishment,  is  responsible  for  the  administration  of  the  organisation.  With the enactment of CVC Act, 2003, the superintendence of Delhi Special Police Establishment  vests  with  the  Central  Government  save  investigations  of offences  under  the  Prevention  of  Corruption  Act,  1988,  in  which,  the superintendence  vests  with  the  Central  Vigilance  Commission.  The  Director of  CBI  has  been  provided  security  of  two-year  tenure  in  office  by  the  CVC Act, 2003.

HENCE STATATEMENT 2 IS CORRECT

SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY-5th EDITION-M LAXMIKANTH-CHAPTER-58

 


2.Which of the following Statements about regarding State of Jammu and Kashmir (J&K) is/are CORRECT?

  1. The name, area or boundary of cannot be changed by the Union without the consent of its Legislative Assembly.
  2. The State of J&K enjoy a vestige of sovereignty owing to its own constitution

a) 1 only

b) 2 Only

c) Both

d) None

Solution: a

Why?-Frequently in news.

Statement 1: Jammu  and  Kashmir  is  a  constituent  state  of  the  Indian  Union  and  has  its place  in  Part  I  and  Schedule  I  of  the  Constitution  of  India  (dealing  with the  Union  and  its  Territory).  But its name, area or boundary cannot be changed by the Union without the consent of its legislature [i.e. Legislative Assembly].

Hence Statement 1 is CORRECT

Statement 2: Existence of own Constitution does not ensure the Sovereignty. The Constitution of J&K itself declares that the State of J&K to be an integral part of India. [Section 3 of the Constitution of J&K].  Moreover, Unlike the preamble of Indian Constitution, preamble of J&K Constitution does not claim any Sovereignty. Also, Article 1 of the Indian Constitution says that India is an Union of States ,including Jammu and Kashmir.

Hence Statement 2 is INCORRECT

SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY-5th EDITION-M LAXMIKANTH-CHAPTER-36


3.Central Home Minister   is one of the members of which of the following selection/ appointment Committee?

a) Central Bureau of Investigation Director

b) Central Vigilance Commissioner

c) Chief Information Commissioner

d) Both A and B

Solution: b

Explanation:

  • CBI selection committee: PM+ Leader of opposition in LS+CJI/Supreme Court judge

Hence Option A is INCORRECT

  • CIC selection committee: PM + Union minister* + Leader of opposition in LS

*[Union finance minister –Mr. Arun Jaitley was the member in the recent appointment of  CIC]

      Hence Option C is INCORRECT

  • CVC selection committee: PM + Home minister + Leader of opposition in LS

Hence Option B is CORRECT

 


4.Which of the following is/are CORRECT with respect to NITI Aayog?

  1. NITI Aayog’s Regional councils are chaired by the Home Minister.
  2. Full time members of NITI Aayog enjoy the rank of a Minister of State.
  3. As a think tank, it is entrusted with the vision of finding a single model from the other developed nations like USA, which can be followed for India’s development.

a) 1 and 2 Only

b) 2 and 3 Only

c) 2 Only

d) All

Solution: c

Why? Frequently in news + There is lot of scope for UPSC to ask questions on NITI Aayog with its ever increasing participation in research[as a think tank] and development activities

Statement 1:

Regional Councils are formed to address  specific  issues  and contingencies impacting more than one state or a region. These are formed for a specified tenure.  These  are  convened  by  the  Prime  Minister  and comprises  of  the  Chief  Ministers  of  States  and  Lt.  Governors of Union Territories in  the  region. These are chaired by the Chairperson of the NITI Aayog or his nominee.

HENCE STATEMENT 1 IS INCORRECT.

Statement 2: FACTUAL. It is CORRECT

Statement 3: Here, “single model” is the key word. India is a vast Country and NITI Aayog’s bottom-up approach has at its core the recognition of “One size fits all” does not work.  Moreover, Indian context is different from the other developed nations in terms of socio,economic and cultural differences. A nation’s culture plays a greater role in the development agenda.

Hence STATEMENT 3 is INCORRECT.

Evidence for the above argument:

The  Executive Resolution[Which created NITI Aayog]  observed:  “Perhaps  most  importantly,  the  institution  must adhere  to  the  tenet  that  while  incorporating  positive  influences  from  the world,  no  single  model  can  be  transplanted  from  outside  into  the  Indian scenario.  We  need  to  find  our  own  strategy  for  growth.  The  new  institution has  to  zero  in  on  what  will  work  in  and  for  India.  It  will  be  a  Bharatiya approach to development.”

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5th EDITION-M LAXMIKANTH-CHAPTER-52


5. Consider the following Statements:

  1. The members of the State Administrative Tribunals (SATs) are appointed by the President.
  2. The Governor can remove the State Chief Information Commissioner

Which of the following is/are CORRECT?

A.1 only

B.2 only

C.Both

D.None

Solution: c

Explanation:

Statement 1: The  chairman  and  members  of  the  SATs  are  appointed  by  the  president after consultation with the governor of the state concerned.

Hence STATEMENT 1 is CORRECT.

Statement 2: The  Governor  can  remove  the  State  Chief  Information  Commissioner  or any  State  Information  Commissioner  from  the  office  under  the  following circumstances:

(a) if he is adjudged an insolvent; or (b)  if  he  has  been  convicted  of  an  offence  which  (in  the  opinion  of  the Governor) involves a moral turpitude; or (c)  if  he  engages  during  his  term  of  office  in  any  paid  employment  outside the duties of his office; or (d)  if  he  is  (in  the  opinion  of  the  Governor)  unfit  to  continue  in  office  due  to infirmity of mind or body; or (e)  if  he  has  acquired  such  financial  or  other  interest  as  is  likely  to  affect prejudicially his official functions.

In  addition  to  these,  the  Governor  can  also  remove  the  State  Chief Information Commissioner  or  any  State  Information  Commissioner  on  the ground  of  proved  misbehaviour  or  incapacity.  However,  in  these  cases,  the Governor  has  to  refer  the  matter  to  the  Supreme  Court  for  an  enquiry.  If  the Supreme  Court,  after  the  enquiry,  upholds  the  cause  of  removal  and  advises so, then the Governor can remove him.

Hence Statement 2 is CORRECT.

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5th EDITION-M LAXMIKANTH-CHAPTER 63, 56


6.Which of the following Statements are INCORRECT?

  1. The Salary, allowances and other service conditions of the Information Commissioner are similar to those of Election Commissioner.
  2. Information Commissioner is not eligible for reappointment for the same post.

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both

d) None

Solution: d

Explanation:

Statement 1: The  salary,  allowances  and  other  service  conditions  of  the  Chief Information  Commissioner  are  similar  to  those  of  the  Chief  Election Commissioner  and  that  of  the  Information  Commissioner  are  similar  to  those of  an  Election  Commissioner.  But,  they  cannot  be  varied  to  his  disadvantage during service.

Hence STATEMENT 1 is CORRECT

Statement 2:

The Chief Information Commissioner and an Information Commissioner hold office  for  a  term  of  5  years  or  until  they  attain  the  age  of  65  years, whichever is earlier. They are not eligible for reappointment. The  Information  Commissioner  is  eligible  for  appointment  as  Chief Information  Commissioner but cannot hold office for more  than a total of five years including his term as Information Commissioner.

Hence STATEMENT 2 is CORRECT

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5th EDITION-M LAXMIKANTH-CHAPTER 55


7.Which of the following Statements about ‘Project Appraisal and Management Division (PAMD)’  is/are CORRECT?

  1. It is a separate Division established recently to undertake techno-economic appraisal of major projects and programmes in the public sector for facilitating investment decisions by the Government.
  2. It functions under the general guidance and direction of the PMO-Prime Minister’s Office

A.1 Only

B.2 Only

C.BOTH

D.None

Solution: d

Why? Frequently in news + There is lot of scope for UPSC to ask questions on NITI Aayog with its ever increasing participation in research[as a think tank] and development activities

Explanation:

Statement 1: A separate Division named ‘Project Appraisal Division’ was set up in the erstwhile Planning Commission in 1972 to undertake techno-economic appraisal of major projects and programmes in the public sector for facilitating investment decisions by the Government.

Hence STATEMENT 1 is INCORRECT.

Statement 2: It was reconstituted as Project Appraisal and Management Division (PAMD) on 6th January, 1994. The PAMD undertakes appraisal of public funded plan projects and schemes in consultation with the subject divisions of the NITI Aayog before these are considered for recommendation/decision by the Public Investment Board or Expenditure Finance Committee depending upon the nature of the project and project cost.

Hence STATEMENT 2 is INCORRECT.

Reference: http://niti.gov.in/content/project-appraisal#


8. ‘Paris Principles’, which are a set of International Standards, are related to

a) Central Information Commission

b) Central Vigilance Commission

c) National Commission for Women

d) National Human Rights Commission

Solution: d

Why?-NHRC retaining ‘A’ status of Accrediation [In news, February]

Explanation: The internationally agreed Paris Principles define the role, composition, status and functions of National human rights institutions.

NHRIs must comply with the Principles which identify their human rights objectives and provide for their independence, broad human rights mandate, adequate funding, and an inclusive and transparent selection and appointment process. The Principles are broadly accepted as the test of an institution’s legitimacy and credibility.


9. Which of the following Statements is/are INCORRECT?

  1. Central Vigilance Commission is the only designated  agency  to  take  action  against  complainants  making  motivated  or vexatious complaints.
  2. The Director of  Prosecution  under  the  Directorate  of  Prosecution  in  CBI shall  be  appointed  by  the  Central  Government  on  the  recommendation  of CVC.

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both

d) None

Solution: d

Explanation:

Statement 1: The  Commission(CVC)  is  also  empowered  as  the  only designated  agency  to  take  action  against  complainants  making  motivated  or vexatious complaints.

Hence Statement 1 is CORRECT.

Statement 2: The  Lokpal  and  Lokayuktas  Act  (2013)  amended  both  the  CVC  Act  (2003) and  the  Delhi  Special  Police  Establishment  Act ( 1946). After this amendment, The  Director  of  Prosecution  under  the  Directorate  of  Prosecution  in  CBI shall  be  appointed  by  the  Central  Government  on  the  recommendation  of the Central Vigilance Commission.

Hence Statement 2 is CORRECT.

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5th EDITION-M LAXMIKANTH-CHAPTER 57

 


10.Who among the following is neither Chairman nor member of Selection Committee for choosing Director of Enforcement?

a) Central Vigilance Commissioner

b) CBI Director

c) Secretary, Department of Personnel and Training

d) Secretary, Ministry of Revenue

Solution: b

Explanation: The  Central  Vigilance  Commissioner  (CVC)  is  the  Chairperson  and  the two  Vigilance  Commissioners  along  with  Secretaries  of  M/o  Home Affairs,  D/o  Personnel  and  Training  and  the  D/o  Revenue  in  M/o  Finance are  the  Members  of  the  Selection  Committees,  on  whose  recommendation the  Central  Government  appoints  the  Director  of  Enforcement

Hence OPTION B is CORRECT.

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5th EDITION-M LAXMIKANTH-CHAPTER 57

 


11: Which of the following Statements is/are CORRECT with respect to the Whistle Blowers Protection Act ( 2011)?

  1. The vigilance commission shall not entertain anonymous complaints
  2. Act provides for witness protection programme during investigation and trial
  3. The Act defines ‘victimisation’ to include suspension, transfer, dilution of power, adverse entries in the service record, and punishments under disciplinary rules.

a) 1 Only

b) 2 and 3 Only

c) 3 Only

d) 1 and 2 Only

Solution: a

Why?-Important legislations have been asked in UPSC[ex: Gram Nyayalayas Act-UPSC 2016]

Statement 1: The Act does not allow anonymous complainants. But there are no clear provisions on what grounds the Vigilance Commission may reveal the identity of a complainant to the Head of an organisation. Some experts contend that allowing anonymous reporting provide protection to whistleblowers while others have expressed concern about difficulty of investigation and possibility of frivolous complaints. Countries such as the U.S., U.K., Canada and Australia have some provision to investigate anonymous complaints.

Hence Statement 1 is CORRECT.

Statement 2: The Act does not provide for witness protection programme to protect witnesses during investigation and trial. The Law Commission has recommended guidelines for witness identity protection.Countries such as the US, Canada, Australia, Germany, Italy and South Africa have witness protection programmes.

Hence Statement 2 is INCORRECT.

Statement 3: The Act does not define what constitutes victimisation. The definition given in the Statement is the definition suggested by the Law Commission.

Hence Statement 3 is INCORRECT

 


12. Which of the following is/are Correctly Matched?

  1. National Foundation for Communal harmony-Ministry of Minority Affairs
  2. Development Monitoring and Evaluation Group-Ministry of Finance
  3. Central Administrative Tribunal-Ministry of Personnel

a) 1 and 3 Only

b) 3 Only

c) None

d) 1 and 2 Only

Solution: b

Explanation:

National Foundation for communal harmony-Ministry of Home Affairs

Central Administrative Tribunal-Ministry of Personnel

Development Monitoring and Evaluation Group-Ministry of Finance


13: 91st and 97th Constitutional Amendments, in terms of their effect, are closely related to which of the following fundamental rights?

a) Article 14

b) Article 19

c) Article 23

d) Article 28

Solution: b

Explanation:

91st Constitutional amendment is related to Anti-defection and 97th Constitutional amendment is related to Cooperatives. Interestingly, while 97th  constitutional amendment upholds freedom to form association under Article 19, 91st constitutional amendment has incidental negative fallout on other freedom related to same fundamental right i.e. freedom of speech and expression. [91st constitutional amendment restricted the freedom of MPs and MLAs to voice their independent views in the legislative houses.]


14: Which of the following Statements is/are CORRECT?

  1. While the Elections to the Legislative Assemblies are conducted by the Election Commission of India, the elections to the Legislative Councils are conducted by the concerned State Election Commissions.
  2. The Superintendence, direction and control of conducting the elections to the offices of the President and Vice-President of India is governed by the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
  3. If the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners differ in opinion on any matter, such matter shall be decided by according to the opinion of the majority.

a) All

b) 1 and 2 Only

c) 3 Only

d) 2 Only

Solution: c

Statement 1: Article 324 (1) also vests in the Election Commission of India the powers of superintendence, direction and control of the elections to both Houses of the State Legislature. Detailed provisions are made under the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and the rules made thereunder.

Hence STATEMENT 1 is INCORRECT.

Statement 2: Under Article 324(1) of the Constitution of India, the Election Commission of India, interalia, is vested with the power of superintendence, direction and control of conducting the elections to the offices of the President and Vice-President of India. Detailed provisions are made under the Presidential and Vice Presidential Elections Act, 1952 and the rules made thereunder.

Hence STATEMENT 2 is INCORRECT

Statement 3: Section 10 of the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Conditions of Service) Amendment Act, 1993 is reproduced below:-

(1) The Election Commission may be by unanimous decision, regulate the procedure for transaction of to business as also allocation of its business amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and their Election Commissioners.

(2) Save as provided in sub section (i) all business of the Election Commission shall, as far as possible, be transacted unanimously.

(3) Subject to the provisions of sub-section (ii), if the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners differ in opinion on any matter, such matter shall be decided by according to the opinion of the majority.

Hence STATEMENT 3 is CORRECT

Reference: http://eci.nic.in/eci_main1/election-machinery.aspx

 


15.Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT?

  1. While the Representation of the People Act, 1951 contains the qualifications and disqualifications for the membership of the houses of legislature, the Representation of the People Act, 1950 contains the qualifications of the voter.
  2. Office of profit is defined in the Representation of the People Act ( 1951), but not in the Constitution.

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both

d) None

Solution: a

Why?-Important legislations have been asked in UPSC[ex: Gram Nyayalayas Act-UPSC 2016]

Explanation:

Statement 1:

The Representation  of  the  People Act,  1950  did  not  contain  all  the  provisions relating  to  elections  but  merely  provided  for  the  allocation  of  seats  in  and  the delimitation  of  constituencies  for  the  purpose  of  elections  to  the  House  of People  and  Legislatures  of  States,  the  qualifications  of  voter  at  such  election and the preparations of electoral rolls.

The  provisions  for  the  actual  conduct  of  elections  to  the  Houses  of Parliament  and  to  the  House  or  Houses  of  the  Legislature  of  each  State,  the qualifications  and  disqualifications  for  the  membership  of  these  Houses,  the corrupt  practices  and  other  election  offences,  and  the  decision  of  election disputes were all left to be made in a subsequent measure. In order to provide for these provisions, the Representation of the People Act, 1951 was enacted.

Hence Statement 1 is CORRECT.

Statement 2:

Office of Profit is defined neither in the Constitution nor in the Representation of the People Act, 1951. But 2nd ARC and Supreme Court Judgments have provided some clarity on office of profit through few guidelines for determining what constitutes “Office of Profit”.

Hence Statement 2 is INCORRECT.

Source: Source: INDIAN POLITY-5th EDITION-M LAXMIKANTH-CHAPTER 70


16: Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT?

  1. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas (Amendment) Act, 2016 requires a public servant to declare his assets and liabilities, and that of his spouse and dependent children.
  2. 50% of the  members  of  the  Lokpal  shall  come  from  amongst  the  SCs,  the STs, the OBCs, minorities and women.
  3. Institutions which are  financed  fully  or  partly  by  Government  are  under the  jurisdiction  of  Lokpal,  but  institutions  aided  by  Government  are excluded.

a) 1 and 2 Only

b) 2 and 3 Only

c) 1 and 2 Only

d) All

Solution: b

Why?-In news

Explanation:

Statement 1: The Original Act required the public servant to declare his/her assets and liabilities, and that of his/her spouse and dependent children. But the amendments in 2016 relaxed this requirement only to the declaration of his/her assets and liabilities.

Hence Statement 1 is INCORRECT

Statement 2 and 3: FACTUAL

Both are CORRECT.

Additional information:

The Lokpal  to consist of a Chairperson with a maximum of 8 members of which 50% shall be judicial members. 50%  of  the  members  of  the  Lokpal  shall  come  from  amongst  the  SCs,  the STs, the OBCs, minorities and women.

The  selection  of  the  Chairperson  and  the  members  of  Lokpal  shall  be through  a  Selection  Committee  consisting  of  the  Prime  Minister,  the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha,the  Chief  Justice  of  India  or  a  sitting  Supreme  Court  Judge  nominated  by the  Chief  Justice  of  India  and  an  eminent  jurist  to  be  nominated  by  the President  of  India  on  the  basis  of  recommendations  of  the  first  four members of the selection committee.

A Search Committee will assist the Selection Committee in the process of selection.  50%  of  the  members  of  the  Search  Committee  shall  also  be from amongst the SCs, the STs, the OBCs, minorities and women.

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5th EDITION-M LAXMIKANTH-CHAPTER 59


17: Which of the following Statements is/are CORRECT with respect to Anglo-Indian Community?

  1. This community is both a religious and linguistic minority.
  2. As per the Constitution, an Anglo-Indian means  “a  person  whose  father  or  any  of  whose  other  male progenitors  in  the  male  line  is  or  was  of  British  descent  but  who  is domiciled within the territory of India and is or was born within such territory of  parents  habitually  resident  therein  and  not  established  there  for  temporary purposes only”.

a) 1 only

b) 2 Only

c) Both

d) None

Solution: a

Statement 1:  The  reason  for  the  special  representation  to  the  Anglo-Indians  is  as follows:  “Anglo-Indians  constitute  a  religious,  social,  as  well  as  a linguistic  minority.  These  provisions  were  necessary,  for,  otherwise, being  numerically  an  extremely  small  community,  and  being interspersed  all  over  India,  the  Anglo-Indians  could  not  hope  to  get  any seat in any legislature through election”

Hence STATEMENT 1 IS CORRECT.

Statement 2:  Unlike  in  the  case  of  SCs,  STs  and  OBCs,  the  Constitution  has  defined  the persons  who  belong  to  the  Anglo-Indian  community.  Accordingly,  ‘an Anglo-Indian  means  a  person  whose  father  or  any  of  whose  other  male progenitors  in  the  male  line  is  or  was  of  European  descent [Not British]  but  who  is domiciled within the territory of India and is or was born within such territory of  parents  habitually  resident  therein  and  not  established  there  for  temporary purposes only’.

Hence STATEMENT 2 IS INCORRECT.

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5th EDITION-M LAXMIKANTH-CHAPTER 66


18. Assertion(A): Parliament has no power over inclusion and exclusion of Castes into SCs and STs.

Reason(R): The Constitution leaves  to  the  President  the  power  to  specify  as  to  what castes  or  tribes  in  each  state  and  union  territory  are  to  be  treated  as  the  SCs and  STs. 

(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A

(C) Both are false

(D) A is false, but R is true

Solution: d

Why?-In the context of demands for inclusion and exclusion into OBCs

Explanation: The  Constitution  does  not  specify  the  castes  or  tribes  which  are  to  be  called the  SCs  or  the  STs.  It  leaves  to  the  President  the  power  to  specify  as  to  what castes  or  tribes  in  each  state  and  union  territory  are  to  be  treated  as  the  SCs and  STs.  Thus,  the  lists  of  the  SCs  or  STs  vary  from  state  to  state  and  union territory  to  union  territory.  In  case  of  the  states,  the  President  issues  the notification  after  consulting  the  governor  of  the  state  concerned.  But,  any inclusion  or  exclusion  of  any  caste  or  tribe  from Presidential  notification  can be  done  only  by  the  Parliament  and  not  by  a  subsequent  Presidential notification. Presidents have issued several orders specifying the SCs and STs in  different  states  and  union  territories  and  these  have  also  been  amended  by the Parliament.


19: Assertion(A): If an MP votes against or refrains from voting to  a Presidential candidate who is fielded by the Political party on whose ticket MP has been elected, she/he will not be disqualified on the grounds of defection.

Reason(R): Anti defection law does not apply to Presidential elections 

(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A

(C) Both are false

(D) A is false, but R is true

 

Solution: a

Explanation: The Election Commission of India has clarified that the anti-defection law does not apply to Presidential Elections.

“Accordingly, in the Commission’s opinion, the voting or not voting as per his/her own free will at the Presidential election will not come within the ambit of disqualification under the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution of India and the electors are at liberty to vote or not to vote at the Presidential election as per their own free will and choice,” the clarification stated.

Reference: http://www.livelaw.in/anti-defection-law-not-apply-presidential-elections-eci-issues-clarification/


20: Establishment of Tribunals under Article 323B are authorized for adjudication of disputes related to which of the following matters ?

  1. Rent and Tenancy Rights
  2. Food stuffs
  3. Public Service
  4. Foreign exchange, import and export

a) 2 Only

b) 2 ,3 and 4 Only

c) 2 and 3 Only

d) 1,2 and 4 Only

 

Solution: d

Explanation:

While  Article  323  A  contemplates  establishment  of  tribunals  for  public service  matters  only,  Article  323  B  contemplates  establishment  of tribunals for certain other matters (mentioned below). [HENCE 3 has to be excluded]

 

Under  Article  323  B,  the  Parliament  and  the  state  legislatures  are  authorised

to  provide  for  the  establishment  of  tribunals  for  the  adjudication  of  disputes

relating to the following matters:

(a) Taxation

(b) Foreign exchange, import and export

 (c) Industrial and labour

(d) Land reforms

(e) Ceiling on urban property

(f) Elections to Parliament and state legislatures

(g) Food stuffs

(h) Rent and tenancy rights

 

Hence the answer is D.

 

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5th EDITION-M LAXMIKANTH-CHAPTER 63