UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2017 Questions – Don’t be Judgemental, Take a Look till the End of this Post

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If one had religiously followed Insights Test series, Daily Quiz, Mindmaps and Daily Current Affairs for ONE YEAR, and most importantly REVISED all of these at regular intervals, one would have answered following Questions of UPSC Prelims 2017 confidently.

We have attached Screenshots for each and every question. All sources that are mentioned are from 2016 onwards only. And we have excluded Secure.

NOTE: Like previous years we don’t want to claim ‘n’  number of questions came directly or indirectly. We believe we are past that stage. We are just reiterating below that trust you have in us is not misplaced. If you want to react to following post, please do so objectively. Not in a state of anger or cynicism.  

We again like to reiterate (as we have done previously many times) that the intention of test series is not to give you readymade questions for you to remember and reproduce in exam. Its aim is to give you proper guidance in the form of timetable and discipline, and to give you targets to complete syllabus in a systematic manner. At the same time we try to maintain relevance to demand of this exam by focusing on important topics. Fortunately  these focused topics appear in some form in exam. It’s a delight for any paper setter to see some of his/her questions getting repeated in exam in some form (just like you jump with joy when you see questions from your notes getting repeated). If we post it people call it as marketing tricks (this site is our home, where else should we share our joy?). However, we are not fooling anyone – we are posting screenshot as proof under every question. Moreover, IAS aspirants are not kids to be fooled. We hope you take a look till the end of this post and then post your opinion

Last word: Use test series to discipline your preparation and expand knowledge base, not to find shortcuts to success. 


1) Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC):

1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Source:

  • Test 32, Q97, 2017 (one can find full answer in both Q&A)

TRAFFIC question

 


 

2) What is the purpose of ‘evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA)’ project?
(a) To detect neutrinos
(b) To detect gravitational waves
(c) To detect the effectiveness of missile defence system
(d) To study the effect of solar flares on our communication systems

Source:

  • Test 2, Q14, 2017 (eLISA and LISA are same)


 

3) Consider the following statements:

1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of G20 group of countries.
2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and hydrofluorocarbons.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Source:

  • Test 2, Q55, 2017
  • Test 6, Q24, 2017

(We framed two questions in 2017 test series on CCAC. Bot Q&A gives complete answer)

Climate and Clean Air coalition


 

4) Consider the following statements:

1. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) helps in promoting the financial inclusion in the country.
2. NPCI has launched RuPay, a card payment scheme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Source:

  • Test 15, Q54, 2017


5) Consider the following statements:

1. The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes.
2. AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Source:

  • Test 6, Q65, 2017
  • Test 22, Q9, 2017

AGMARK BIS


6) Consider the following in respect of ‘National Career Service’:

1. National Career Service is an initiative of the Department of Personnel and Training, Government of India.
2. National Career Service has been launched in a Mission Mode to improve the employment opportunities to uneducated youth of the country.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Source:

  • Test 10, Q35, 2017 on E-kranti (covered in Learning part. If one was through with solution and links, they could answer this question easily)

 

7) Which of the following gives ‘Global Gender lb Gap Index’ ranking to the countries of the world?
(a) World Economic Forum
(b) UN Human Rights Council
(c) UN Women
(d) World Health Organization

Source:

  • Test 12, Q24, 2017
  • Revision Test 2, Q81, 2017 (Direct question)

 


 

8) What is the purpose of Vidyanjali Yojana’?

1. To enable the famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India.
2. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community.
3. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

Source:

Insights PT Exclusive Module 2017 Social Issues Page 27

2016 Test 29, Q18


 

9) With reference to ‘Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development (APMCHUD)’, consider the following statements:

1. The first APMCHUD was held in India in 2006 on the theme ‘Emerging Urban Forms — Policy Responses and Governance Structure’.
2. India hosts all the Annual Ministerial Conferences in partnership with ADB, APEC and ASEAN.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Source:


 

10) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Smart India Hackathon 2017?

1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme for developing every city of our country into Smart Cities in a decade.
2. It is an initiative to identify new digital technology innovations for solving the many problems faced by our country.
3. It is a programme aimed at making all the financial transactions in our country completely digital in a decade.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

 

Source:

  • Revision Test 3, Q21

 


 

11) The terms ‘Event Horizon’, ‘Singularity’, `String Theory’ and ‘Standard Model’ are sometimes seen in the news in the context of
(a) Observation and understanding of the Universe
(b) Study of the solar and the lunar eclipses
(c) Placing satellites in the orbit of the Earth
(d) Origin and evolution of living organisms on the Earth

 

Source:

  • 2016 Test 26, Q23 (exact question)

 

 


 

12) The Global Infrastructure Facility is a/an
(a) ASEAN initiative to upgrade infrastructure in Asia and financed by credit from the Asian Development Bank.
(b) World Bank collaboration that facilitates the preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs) to enable mobilization of private sector and institutional investor capital.
(c) Collaboration among the major banks of the world working with the OECD and focused on expanding the set of infrastructure projects that have the potential to mobilize private investment.
(d) UNCTAD funded initiative that seeks to finance and facilitate infrastructure development in the world.

Source:


 

13) With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’ sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. IOD phenomenon is characterised by a difference in sea surface temperature between tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean.
2. An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Nino’s impact on the monsoon.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Source:

 

  • Test 26, Q90, 2017


 


 

14) The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 was to?
(a) Define the jurisdiction of the Central and Provincial Governments.
(b) Define the powers of the Secretary of State for India.
(c) Impose censorship on national press.
(d) Improve the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian States.

Source:

2016 Test 24, Q17

 


 

15) Consider the following statements:

1. The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the aegis of the United Nations.
2. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an organ of International Atomic Energy Agency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Source:


 

 

16) With reference to ‘Quality Council of India (QCI)’, consider the following statements:

1. QCI was set up jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry.
2. Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendations of the industry to the Government.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Source:

 

 


17) Which of the following is a most likely consequence of implementing the ‘Unified Payments Interface (UPI)’?
(a) Mobile wallets will not be necessary for online payments.
(b) Digital currency will totally replace the physical currency in about two decades.
(c) FDI inflows will drastically increase.
(d) Direct transfer of subsidies to poor people will become very effective

 

Source:

  • Test 3, Q13, 2017
  • Test 10, Q45, 2017


 

18) With reference to ‘National Investment and Infrastructure Fund’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.
2. It has a corpus of Rs. 4, 00,000 crore at present.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Source:

  • Test 4, Q75, 2017


 

19) What is/are the advantage/advantages of implementing the ‘National Agriculture Market’ scheme?

1. It is a pan-India electronic trading portal for agricultural commodities.
2. It provides the farmers access to nationwide market, with prices commensurate with the quality of their produce.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Source:

  • Test 8, Q9, 2017


 

20) What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India?
(a) India’s trade with African countries will enormously increase.
(b) India’s relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened.
(c) India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.
(d) Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India.

 

Source:

  • Revision Test 6, Q2
  • Test 6, Q77, 2017


 

21) With reference to the role of UN-Habitat in the United Nations programme working towards a better urban future, which of the statements is/are correct?

1. UN-Habitat has been mandated by the United Nations General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities to provide adequate shelter for all.
2. Its partners are either governments or local urban authorities only.
3. UN-Habitat contributes to the overall objective of the United Nations system to reduce poverty and to promote access to safe drinking water and basic sanitation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only

Source:

 


 

22) The term ‘Domestic Content Requirement’ is sometimes seen in the news with reference to
(a) Developing solar power production in our country
(b) Granting licences to foreign T.V. channels in our country
(c) Exporting our food products to other countries
(d) Permitting foreign educational institutions to set up their campuses in our country

Source:

  • Test 9, Q26, 2017 (explanation)
  • Test 11, Q87, 2017


 

23) Consider the following statements:

1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by the same mosquito that transmits dengue.
2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Source:

  • 2017 Revision Test3, Q88 (Covered in Explanation)
  • 2016 Test 11, Q53
  • PT S&T Module Page 39


 

24) What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’?
(a) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and government’s education system and local communities.
(b) Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies.
(c) Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power.
(d) Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them.

 

Source:

 

  • Test 17, Q72, 2017


 

25) Consider the following statements :

The nation-wide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at

1. expanding the cultivable area under irrigation.
2. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality.
3. checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Source:

  • Test 28, Q7, 2017


 

26) Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)?
(a) Resident Indian citizens only
(b) Persons of age from 21 to 55 only
(c) All State Government employees joining the services after the date of notification by the respective State Governments
(d) All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1St April, 2004

Source:


 

27) With reference to the ‘National Intellectual Property Rights Policy’, consider the following statements:

1. It reiterates India’s commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS Agreement.
2. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal agency for regulating intellectual property rights in India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Source:

Insights into Editorial: All you need to know about the new IPR Policy


 

28) In the context of Indian history, the principle of “Dyarchy (diarchy)” refers to
(a) Division of the central legislature into two houses.
(b) Introduction of double government i.e., Central and State governments.
(c) Having two sets of rulers; one in London and another in Delhi.
(d) Division of the subjects delegated to the provinces into two categories

Source:

  • Test 13, Q38, 2017


 

29) Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?

1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Abolition of untouchability
3. Protection of the interests of minorities

4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines Select the correct answer using the

code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and

Source:

  • Right to freedom and exploitation covered in Test 13, Q71, 2017 (explanation)


 

30) Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:
(a) An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
(b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.
(c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.
(d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.

Source:

  • Test 8, Q10, 2017
  • Test 14, Q15, 2017
  • Test 30, Q60, 2017


 

31)

With reference to the Parliament of India, 4 consider the following statements:

1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Source:

  • Test 8, Q48, 2017


 

32)

The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through

1. Adjournment motion
2. Question hour
3. Supplementary questions

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Source:

– Test 8, Q26, 2017

– Test  15, Q5, 2017


 

33) In India, Judicial Review implies
(a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
(b) the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.
(c) the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President.
(d) the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases.

Source:

  • Test 2, Q63, 2017
  • Test 13, Q78, 2017


 

34)

Consider the following statements :

1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

Source:

  • Test 3, Q56 and Q96, 2017
  • Test 8, Q89, 2017

 


 

35)  Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?
(a) There is an independent judiciary in India.
(b) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.
(c) The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
(d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.

Source:

  • Test 6, Q34, 2017
  • Test 5, Q82, 2017


 

36) Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in
(a) Federalism
(b) Democratic decentralisation
(c) Administrative delegation
(d) Direct democracy

 

Source:

  • Test 28, Q44, 2017


37)  Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens.
(b) Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State.
(c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.
(d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many

Source:


38) Right to vote and to be elected in India is a
(a) Fundamental Right
(b) Natural Right
(c) Constitutional Right
(d) Legal Right

Source:

  • 2017 Test 13, Q99 (our explanation however marks it as a constitutional right)
  • 2016 Test 28, Q76


 

39)

Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?

1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
2. They are correlative to legal duties. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Source:

  • Test 13, Q57 (covered legislative enforcement of fundamental duties by state legislatures)


40) In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?
(a) Rights are correlative with Duties.
(b) Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.
(c) Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen.
(d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State

Source:

  • Test 26,Q 34 (Explanation)


 

41) Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?
(a) Liberty of thought
(b) Economic liberty
(c) Liberty of expression
(d) Liberty of belief

 

Source:

– Test 18, Q30, 2017

– Revision Test 4, Q22 (Similar question with different Options – which highlights that one should mug up Preamble)


 

42)  The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?
(a) The Preamble
(b) The Fundamental Rights
(c) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) The Fundamental Duties

Source:

  • 2016 Test 30, Q59 (Statement 1 and its explanation exactly address the question)
  • 2017 Test 29, Q97


 

43)

Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the following countries?

1. Jordan
2. Iraq
3. Lebanon

4. Syria

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Source:

  • Test 3, Q79, 2017
  • Test 8, Q84, 2017


 

44)

With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements:

1. The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra but it flows through Sikkim.
2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is a tributary of river Teesta.
3. River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the border of India and Bangladesh.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Source:

  • Q 73 Revision Tests 2017 (Test 5)


 

45) The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated paintings at
(a) Ajanta
(b) Badami
(c) Bagh
(d) Ellora

 

Source:

  • Test 5, Q80, 2017
  • Test 30, Q74, 2017

 


46)

Who among the following was/were associated with the introduction of Ryotwari Settlement in India during the British rule?

  1. Lord Cornwallis
  2. Alexander Read
  3. Thomas Munro

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Source:

  • Test 3, Q73 (Thomas Munro mentioned in question)
  • Test 6, Q27 (Alexander Read mentioned in explanation)
  • Revision Test 3, Q49


 

47)

With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements:

1. It is a song and dance performance.
2. Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance.
3. It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3.
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only

Source:

  • Test 23, Q42, 2017


 

48)

Consider the following pairs:

1. Radhakanta Deb — First President of the British Indian Association
2. Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty —Founder of the Madras Mahajana Sabha
3. Surendranath Banerjee — Founder of the Indian Association

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Source:

  • Test 25, Q45 (We asked in which year above were formed)
  • Test 30, Q97 on Indian association


 

49) Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for
(a) Measuring oxygen levels in blood
(b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
(c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems
(d) Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions

Source:

  • Test 7, Q 58, 2017

 

 


 

50)

Which of the following practices can help in water conservation in agriculture? ‎

‎1. Reduced or zero tillage of the land ‎

‎2. Applying gypsum before irrigating the field ‎

‎3. Allowing crop residue to remain in the field ‎

Select the correct answer using the code given below : ‎
(a) 1 and 2 only‎

(b) 3 only

‎(c) 1 and 3 only

‎(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Source:

  • Test 22, Q96 covers zero tillage
  • Test 7, Q21 covers Gypsum (however it does not cover role of gypsum in water conservation)


 

51) In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be the potential sites for carbon sequestration?

1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams
2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
3. Subterranean deep saline formations

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Source:

  • – 2016 Test 27, Q86 Almost similar question
  •   2017 Test 26, Q6, 2017


52) In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply ?
(a) It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.
(b) It no longer exists in the wild, a few individuals are under captive protection; and now it is impossible to prevent its extinction.
(c) It is endemic to a particular region of India.
(d) Both (b) and (c) stated above are correct in this context.

 

Source:

  • Test 28, Q83, 2017
  • Test 23, Q70, 2017
  • Test 1, Q31, 2017 (Explanation, Wild Ass Endangered)
  • Test 4, Q42, 2017 covers Gharial as an endangered species


 

53) Recently there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites ?
(a) Corbett National Park
(b) Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary
(c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) Sariska National Park

Source:

Insights Daily Quiz, Oct 3, 2016


54)

According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law?

1. Gharial
2. Indian wild ass
3. Wild buffalo

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Source:

  • Test 23, Q70, 2017 (Similar question, different animals in options)


55) If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit?
(a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves
(b) Chambal River
(c) Pulicat Lake
(d) Deepor Beel

 

Source:

  • Revision Test 9, Q 42, 2017 (Directly mentioned in Solution)
  • 2017 Test 4, Q42 covers Gharial threats and CLEARLY mentions that Gharial resides in riverine areas. Answer could have been arrived at as Chambal river, as all other options were either lakes or saltwater mangroves
  • 2016 Test 25, Q74 talks about Ken Gharial Sanctuary located in MP, in the explanation (based on this Chambal river answer could have been derived)


 

56)

In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/advantages of bioremediation technique?

1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature.
2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms.
3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Source:

  • Test 4, Q36
  • Test 10, Q36
  • Revision Test 2017, Q 36, Test 4


 

57)

With reference to agriculture in India, how can the technique of `genome sequencing’, often seen in the news, be used in the immediate future?

1. Genome sequencing can be used to identify genetic markers for disease resistance and drought tolerance in various crop plants.
2. This technique helps in reducing the time required to develop new varieties of crop plants.
3. It can be used to decipher the host-pathogen relationships in crops.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Source:

  • Test 9, Q24 (Statement 2 and explanation discuss the benefits of genome sequencing)


 

58)

It is possible to produce algae based biofuels, but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing countries in promoting this industry?

1. Production of algae based biofuels is possible in seas only and not on continents.
2. Setting up and engineering the algae based biofuel production requires high level of expertise/technology until the construction is completed.
3. Economically viable production necessitates the setting up of large scale facilities which may raise ecological and social concerns.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Source:

– Test 23, Q64 (both statement 2 and explanation address the question)


59) What is the application of Somatic Cell CJ Nuclear Transfer Technology?
(a) Production of biolarvicides
(b) Manufacture of biodegradable plastics
(c) Reproductive cloning of animals
(d) Production of organisms free of diseases

Source:

  • Insights Current Events 2nd February 2017


 

60)

What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’?

1. It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India.
2. It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves.
3. It will enormously increase the growth and size of economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Source:

  • Test 6, Q33, 2017
  • Revision Tests, Q 77, Test 6, 2017


 

61)

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)?

1. It decides the RBI’s benchmark interest rates.
2. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year.
3. It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

Source:

– Test 20, Q26

– Insights Current Events 6th May 2016 http://www.insightsonindia.com/2016/05/06/insights-daily-current-events-06-may-2016/


 

62) 

Consider the following statements:

1. India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of WTO.
2. TFA is a part of WTO’s Bali Ministerial Package of 2013.
3. TFA came into force in January 2016.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Source:

– 2016 Test 13, Q66

– 2017 Test 32, Q38 (explanation)

– Insights PT Exclusive Economy page 27


 

63) 

With reference to the ‘Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)’, consider the following statements:

1. A property transaction is not treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction.
2. Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government.
3. The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism. Which of the statements .given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

 

Source:

Insights PT Economy, Page 11


 

64) 

What is the purpose of setting up of Small Finance Banks (SFBs) in India?

1. To supply credit to small business units
2. To supply credit to small and marginal farmers
3. To encourage young entrepreneurs to set up business particularly in rural areas.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Source:

  • Insights PT Exclusive Economy Page 22


 

65) ‘Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and
(a) European Union
(b) Gulf Cooperation Council
(c) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
(d) Shanghai Cooperation Organization

 

Source:

  • Insights Current Events 31st March 2016


 

66) Which of the following statements best k describes the term ‘Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A)’, recently seen in the news?
(a) It is a procedure for considering ecological costs of developmental schemes formulated by the Government.
(b) It is a scheme of RBI for reworking the financial structure of big corporate entities facing genuine difficulties.
(c) It is a disinvestment plan of the Government regarding Central Public Sector Undertakings.
(d) It is an important provision in ‘The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code’ recently implemented by the Government.

Source:



 

67) For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by
(a) anyone residing in India.
(b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
(c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
(d) any citizen of India.

Source:

 

– Test 28, Q71


68) 

Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?

1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Abolition of untouchability
3. Protection of the interests of minorities

4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Source:

  • Right to freedom and exploitation covered in Test 13, Q71 (explanation)
  • Test 28, Q76 covers abolition of untouchability


69) Which principle among the ‘following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?
(a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
(b) Participation of workers in the management of industries
(c) Right to work, education and public assistance
(d) Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers

Source:

  • 2016, Test 15, Q50 question and explanation


 

70)

Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State?

1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
3. Dissolution of the local bodies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2and 3

Source:

  • 2017 Test 27, Q35